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STUDY GUIDE · SIE

Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Study Guide

Verified against the FINRA content outline 8 sections
Written by Every Exam Prep Editorial TeamSource and review policyPublished July 6, 2026Updated September 9, 2026
Questions
75
Time limit
1h 45m
Passing score
70%
Exam fee
$100
Governing body
FINRA

How the questions are written

The SIE is scored on 75 questions, but the screen shows 80, because 5 unidentified pretest items are mixed in with the scored ones. Since October 27, 2025 that pretest count has been 5, down from 10. Nothing marks a pretest item, so every question deserves the same effort. With 105 minutes on the clock, the budget is a little over a minute per item, and the passing score is 70.

Three stem shapes

Almost every item in our bank of 709 published SIE questions opens with a person: a customer, a representative, an issuer, a candidate. The stem tells you what that person did or wants, and the question asks what follows. The first shape is the classify-the-conduct stem: an action is described and the choices are four labels for it, three of which name a real violation or a real product that fits a different story. The second is the where-does-the-risk-sit stem, where two contracts or two parties are compared and you name who absorbs the loss. The third is the arithmetic stem, where a dividend, a premium, or an equity figure has to be computed and each wrong choice is a single wrong step.

Negatives and superlatives

Watch for EXCEPT, LEAST, and MOST. An EXCEPT stem makes three true statements and one false one; read every choice before committing. MOST and LEAST stems concede that more than one choice is partly right and ask you to rank them, so the answer is the choice that responds to what actually changed in the scenario, not the choice that is true in general.

How to use the bank

Make one pass by outline area in the order below, reading the explanation for every miss and every guess. Then switch to mixed sets, because the real exam shuffles areas. The weights set your pacing: Understanding Products and Their Risks is 44% of the scored questions, Trading, Customer Accounts and Prohibited Activities is 31%, Knowledge of Capital Markets is 16%, and Overview of the Regulatory Framework is 9%. Spend your review time in that order.

Knowledge of capital markets

Knowledge of Capital Markets is 16% of the exam, 12 scored questions, and our bank holds 110 items for it. The which-actor pattern names an action, such as changing tax rates, and asks which body could have taken it; the trap choice picks the wrong branch of government. The direction-of-the-move pattern gives a Fed action or a yield-curve shape and asks what follows; the trap choice reverses the sign. The what-may-the-representative-do pattern drops a customer request somewhere on the registration timeline of a new issue and asks what is permitted at that moment.

Worked example: what-may-the-representative-do

A registration statement for a new issue has been filed with the SEC but has not yet become effective. During this cooling-off period a prospective investor telephones a representative and says she wants to buy 500 shares. What may the representative do?

  1. Accept the order and hold the customer's funds in escrow until the registration statement becomes effective, at which point the shares are released and the trade is confirmed to the customer.
  2. Accept a non-binding indication of interest and send the preliminary prospectus; no sale, no funds, and no binding order may be taken until the registration statement is effective.
  3. Accept the order and forward the firm's own research report on the issuer to help the customer evaluate the investment.
  4. Decline all contact with the investor, because any communication concerning the issue is prohibited until effectiveness.

Answer: Accept a non-binding indication of interest and send the preliminary prospectus; no sale, no funds, and no binding order may be taken until the registration statement is effective.

Before effectiveness the only permitted communications are the preliminary prospectus and a non-binding indication of interest. The first choice tempts because escrow sounds cautious, but taking money is taking an order, which is a sale. The third choice fails because a firm research report is sales material that cannot ride along with an offering still in registration. The last choice overshoots: silence is not required, and mailing the red herring is exactly what the period exists for. The answer is the one choice that permits contact yet forbids any commitment.

Worked example: direction-of-the-move

The Federal Open Market Committee directs the purchase of a large quantity of Treasury securities from primary dealers in the open market. What effect is this action intended to have?

  1. Bank reserves fall, the money supply contracts, and short-term interest rates are pushed higher, which represents a tightening of monetary policy.
  2. Bank reserves rise, the money supply expands, and short-term interest rates tend to fall, which represents an easing of monetary policy.
  3. The federal budget deficit is reduced, which constitutes a tightening of fiscal policy.
  4. The reserve requirement is automatically lowered, obliging banks to hold more capital against their deposits.

Answer: Bank reserves rise, the money supply expands, and short-term interest rates tend to fall, which represents an easing of monetary policy.

Follow the money. When the Fed buys, it pays the dealers, those dollars land in bank reserves, reserves rise, lending capacity grows, and short-term rates ease. The first choice states the exact opposite chain and is the classic sign error; it describes what happens when the Fed sells. The third choice imports fiscal policy, but the budget deficit belongs to Congress and the Treasury, not to the open market desk. The last choice invents an automatic link to the reserve requirement, a separate tool the Fed changes deliberately, never as a side effect of a purchase.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • The Fed runs monetary policy; Congress and the President run fiscal policy, which is taxes and spending.
  • Fed purchases of securities ease; Fed sales tighten. A higher reserve requirement also tightens, but the Fed rarely touches it.
  • The discount rate is set by the Fed and charged to banks that borrow from it; the federal funds rate is negotiated between banks for overnight reserves.
  • A firm commitment underwriter buys the issue and owns the unsold-share risk; a best efforts underwriter is an agent and the issuer keeps that risk.
  • Municipal and U.S. government securities are exempt from Securities Act registration; mutual fund shares are not.

Trap to avoid

Candidates lose this area by answering the question they expected instead of the one asked. They know the Fed manages the economy, so any lever offered gets assigned to the Fed; they know buying is expansionary, so a stem in which the Fed sells gets answered as easing too. Before you choose, write the chain: who acts, what happens to reserves, which way rates move. If the action is taxing or spending, the Fed is out. If the Fed is selling, the banking system is losing money, not gaining it.

Understanding products equity and debt

Understanding Products and Their Risks is 44% of the exam and 33 scored questions, the largest area by far, and our bank carries 315 items for it, so it gets two sections here. This one covers stocks and bonds. The who-gets-paid-first pattern lists claims on a company and asks for their rank in a liquidation or a dividend queue. The arrears and yield arithmetic pattern gives a par value, a rate, and a price or tax bracket, and each distractor is one wrong operation. The which-risk-just-changed pattern moves rates or prices and asks which named risk the holder now faces; the distractors are risks a different move would have triggered.

Worked example: who-gets-paid-first

A corporation is liquidated. Its capital structure includes secured mortgage bonds, unsecured debentures, subordinated debentures, cumulative preferred stock, and common stock. In what order are these claims satisfied from the liquidation proceeds?

  1. Secured mortgage bonds, subordinated debentures, unsecured debentures, preferred stock, common stock.
  2. Secured mortgage bonds, unsecured debentures, subordinated debentures, preferred stock, common stock.
  3. Unsecured debentures, secured mortgage bonds, subordinated debentures, preferred stock, common stock.
  4. Preferred stock, secured mortgage bonds, unsecured debentures, subordinated debentures, common stock.

Answer: Secured mortgage bonds, unsecured debentures, subordinated debentures, preferred stock, common stock.

Creditors first, owners last, and within each group the contract sets the rank. The first choice is the one most candidates pick, because it leads correctly with the mortgage bonds and only swaps the two debenture classes; but a subordinated debenture is defined by standing behind the general creditors, so it can never be paid ahead of them. The third choice puts unsecured debt in front of collateralized debt, which erases the meaning of a lien. The last choice pays equity before creditors, and no shareholder of any class collects a dollar until every lender is whole.

Worked example: arrears arithmetic

A company issued 6 percent cumulative preferred stock with a $100 par value. Because of financial difficulty it paid no preferred dividend for the past two years. The board now wants to resume dividends and also pay a dividend on the common stock this year. How much must be paid per preferred share before any common dividend may be paid?

  1. $6, representing only the current year's dividend.
  2. $12, representing only the two years in arrears.
  3. $12 plus accrued interest on the two years of unpaid dividends, compounded annually.
  4. $18, representing the two years in arrears plus the current year's dividend.

Answer: $18, representing the two years in arrears plus the current year's dividend.

Six percent of a $100 par is $6 a year. Two skipped years are $12 of arrears, and the current year’s $6 must also be paid before common receives anything, which totals $18. The $6 choice forgets that the cumulative feature preserves the missed dividends. The $12 choice remembers the arrears and forgets the current year. The choice that adds compounded interest is the subtle one: it treats preferred like a bond, but a dividend is not a debt, so nothing accrues on the unpaid amounts. The claim is preserved, not compensated.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • Liquidation order: secured, general unsecured, subordinated, preferred, common.
  • Cumulative preferred: arrears plus the current dividend come before any common dividend, with no interest added.
  • Rates up, bond prices down; long maturities and zero-coupon bonds swing the most.
  • Below par, current yield exceeds the coupon; above par, it falls short.
  • Taxable equivalent yield is the municipal yield divided by one minus the tax rate.
  • Falling rates bring call risk and then reinvestment risk to a callable bond, and prepayment risk to a mortgage pass-through; rising rates bring extension risk.
  • A right is short-lived and priced below market; a warrant is long-lived and priced above market.

Trap to avoid

The most-missed distinction is which risk a rate move switches on. Falling rates are good news for a plain non-callable bond, but the bank’s items describe a callable bond or a mortgage pool, where falling rates let the issuer or the homeowner hand the money back early. Candidates who answer purchasing-power risk to any bond stem are answering a rising-prices scenario the stem never described. Rates fell: think call, prepayment, reinvestment. Prices rose: think purchasing power.

Understanding products packaged options and annuities

The second half of the 44% Products area covers funds, exchange-traded products, options, annuities, and alternatives. The where-does-the-risk-sit pattern compares two products with similar names and asks who absorbs a loss: the insurer or the owner, the fund or the issuing bank. The premium arithmetic pattern gives a stock cost, a strike, and a premium and asks for maximum gain, breakeven, or profit at expiration. The which-fund-structure pattern describes how shares are bought or priced and asks which fund type that is.

Worked example: premium arithmetic

A customer owns 500 shares of a stock purchased at $42 per share and writes 5 call contracts with a $50 strike, receiving a premium of $2 per share. Ignoring commissions, what is the customer's maximum gain if the stock rises sharply and the calls are exercised?

  1. $1,000
  2. $4,000
  3. $5,000
  4. Unlimited, because the customer owns the underlying shares.

Answer: $5,000

A covered call caps the stock position. On exercise the shares go out at $50, so the customer keeps the distance between $42 and $50 on each share plus the $2 premium, and across 500 shares that is $5,000. Unlimited is the tempting choice because the customer really does own the stock, but the short calls promise delivery at $50 no matter where the stock trades. The $4,000 choice counts the stock gain and drops the premium; the $1,000 choice keeps only the premium, as if the shares were never sold.

Worked example: where-does-the-risk-sit

A customer is deciding between a fixed annuity and a variable annuity from the same insurance company. Which statement correctly identifies where the investment risk lies during the accumulation period?

  1. In a variable annuity the purchase payments are held in the insurer's separate account and the contract owner bears the investment risk, while in a fixed annuity the payments are held in the general account and the insurer bears that risk.
  2. In both contracts the insurance company guarantees the accumulated value against loss.
  3. In a fixed annuity the contract owner bears the investment risk because the crediting rate is tied to the performance of a market index.
  4. In a variable annuity the insurer guarantees the value of the separate account during the accumulation period, and only the amount of the eventual payout varies with investment performance after the contract is annuitized.

Answer: In a variable annuity the purchase payments are held in the insurer's separate account and the contract owner bears the investment risk, while in a fixed annuity the payments are held in the general account and the insurer bears that risk.

The account tells you the answer. General account money is the insurer’s promise, so the insurer eats any shortfall in a fixed annuity. Separate account money is invested in subaccounts the owner selected, so the owner takes the result, which is why the variable contract is a security sold by prospectus. The second choice gives both contracts a guarantee that only the fixed one has. The third choice describes an indexed crediting rate, not a fixed annuity. The last choice is the polished distractor: it moves the guarantee into the accumulation phase, but a variable contract guarantees mortality and the death benefit, never account value.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • Open-end shares are bought and redeemed at the next computed NAV; closed-end shares trade on an exchange above or below NAV. A UIT is a fixed, unmanaged portfolio.
  • An ETN is the issuing bank’s unsecured note and carries its credit risk; an ETF owns assets.
  • Selling just below a sales-charge breakpoint without mentioning it or a letter of intent is a prohibited breakpoint sale.
  • Covered call maximum gain is strike minus cost plus premium; a long put breaks even at strike minus premium.
  • Variable annuity: separate account, owner bears the risk, prospectus required. Fixed: general account, insurer bears it.
  • Replacing an annuity restarts surrender charges and needs a customer benefit, not a fresh commission.

Trap to avoid

The most-missed distinction is between a guarantee and a wrapper. Candidates see insurance in an annuity stem, or exchange-traded in an ETN stem, and assume a protection the product does not carry. An annuity’s insurance features are the death benefit and the lifetime payout; the separate account itself can fall. An ETN’s listing gives it liquidity, not collateral. Ask what promise is being made and who is making it, and the tempting choice dissolves.

Trading orders accounts and margin

Trading, Customer Accounts and Prohibited Activities is 31% of the exam and 23 scored questions, and our bank holds 230 items for it, split here into two sections. This one covers orders, accounts, and margin. The which-order-does-what pattern describes a price move, often a gap, and asks what each order type does. The is-this-discretion pattern describes an instruction and asks whether written authority was needed, or describes a death or a joint registration and asks who may act. The equity arithmetic pattern gives a market value and a debit balance and tests maintenance.

Worked example: which-order-does-what

A customer holding stock trading at $46 enters a sell stop-limit order with a stop price of $40 and a limit price of $40. Overnight the company reports disastrous news, and the stock opens the next session at $34 and continues lower. What is the most likely outcome?

  1. The order executes at $40, because the limit price guarantees the customer that price.
  2. The order executes at $34, because a stop-limit order becomes a market order to sell as soon as the stop price has been elected, and the limit price applies only to the election of the order.
  3. The order is automatically canceled, because the stock never traded at the stop price.
  4. The order is elected when the stock trades through $40, but it may then go unexecuted, because the limit forbids a sale below $40 while the stock is trading in the $34 range.

Answer: The order is elected when the stock trades through $40, but it may then go unexecuted, because the limit forbids a sale below $40 while the stock is trading in the $34 range.

Two prices, two jobs. The stop at $40 wakes the order once the stock trades at or through it; the limit at $40 then forbids any fill below that level. A gap open at $34 elects the order and makes it unfillable. The first choice reads the limit as a guarantee, which no limit is. The second describes a plain stop, which would have sold near $34 and at least closed the position. The third fails because trading through a stop elects it just as trading at it does; the stock never had to print $40.

Worked example: is-this-discretion

A customer tells his representative: 'Buy me shares of that pharmaceutical company we discussed — you pick the moment today and get the best price you can.' The representative buys the stock later that afternoon without written trading authorization on file. Which statement best describes this situation?

  1. The representative exercised prohibited discretion because no written authorization was on file
  2. The order was not discretionary, because the customer specified the security and the action, leaving only time and price to the representative
  3. The order was discretionary but permissible because it was executed the same day
  4. The order required approval by the customer's spouse

Answer: The order was not discretionary, because the customer specified the security and the action, leaving only time and price to the representative

Discretion means the representative chose the asset, the action, or the amount. Here the customer named the company and the action of buying; only the moment and the price were left open, and time-and-price judgment needs no written authorization. The first choice treats any judgment as discretion, which would make every working order discretionary. The third choice concedes the wrong premise and rescues it with same-day execution; that limit governs how long a time-and-price instruction stays alive, not whether it needed paperwork. The last choice adds a spouse with no standing over an individual account.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • A limit sets the worst acceptable price; a stop is a trigger that becomes a market order; a stop-limit’s trigger becomes a limit order and can go unfilled.
  • A short seller protects with a buy stop above the market; a long holder with a sell stop below.
  • Discretion covers asset, action, and amount; time and price alone are not discretion.
  • Margin equity is market value minus debit, and maintenance is tested against market value, never the debit.
  • A power of attorney dies with the customer; open orders are canceled and the account is frozen until estate documents arrive.
  • Rights of survivorship pass to the survivor; tenants in common passes to the estate.
  • SIPC replaces missing cash and securities at a failed firm, never a market decline.

Trap to avoid

The most-missed distinction is between a trigger and a price. A stop price decides when an order comes alive and promises nothing about the fill. Candidates with a limit-order mindset expect to receive the stop price; candidates with a stop-order mindset expect a stop-limit to fill at all. When a stem gaps the stock past the trigger, ask in order: has the order been elected, and can it execute under its own price restriction?

Trading prohibited activities

The second half of the 31% Trading area is conduct: manipulation, fraud, account abuse, and the anti-money-laundering rules. The name-the-violation pattern describes a scheme and offers four labels, three of which share one symptom with the right one. The what-does-the-representative-do-next pattern places the representative in front of a red flag, such as split cash deposits or a colleague overtrading, and asks for the next step; the trap is the step that feels helpful and is prohibited. The who-benefits pattern describes a gift, a loan, or a trade sequence and asks why it is improper; follow the money.

Worked example: name-the-violation

Two representatives at different firms coordinate a plan for a thinly traded stock: throughout the day, their customers repeatedly buy and sell the same shares to each other at successively higher prices. No party's economic position meaningfully changes, but the printed trades create the appearance of rising demand, and outside investors begin buying. Which prohibited activity does this scheme best illustrate?

  1. Market manipulation through matched trades intended to create a false appearance of trading activity
  2. Churning, because the accounts show excessive trading relative to the customers' objectives
  3. Insider trading, because the representatives acted on information the public did not have
  4. Front-running, because the representatives traded ahead of anticipated customer orders

Answer: Market manipulation through matched trades intended to create a false appearance of trading activity

Look at who is being deceived. Nobody’s economic position changes, and the prints exist to lure outsiders; that is manipulation by matched trades. Churning is the seductive wrong answer because the accounts trade constantly, but churning is a representative overtrading a controlled account for commissions, and the victim is that customer, not the tape. Insider trading needs material nonpublic information, and there is none; the price is being invented, not leaked. Front-running needs a known pending customer order to jump ahead of, and no such order exists.

Worked example: what-does-the-representative-do-next

A customer who normally deposits modest sums brings in a total of $28,000 in currency over four consecutive business days in amounts ranging from $6,800 to $7,400, remarking that he wants to keep each deposit under the reporting threshold. How should the representative proceed?

  1. Take no action, because each individual deposit falls below the currency transaction reporting threshold.
  2. Accept the deposits but advise the customer that the firm intends to file a currency transaction report, so that he has an opportunity to explain the pattern before the report is submitted.
  3. Refuse the deposits, close the account, and send the customer a written explanation of the firm's reasons.
  4. Escalate the pattern to the firm's anti-money-laundering compliance personnel for evaluation and possible suspicious activity report filing, and say nothing about it to the customer.

Answer: Escalate the pattern to the firm's anti-money-laundering compliance personnel for evaluation and possible suspicious activity report filing, and say nothing about it to the customer.

Splitting cash to stay under a reporting line is structuring, and this customer announced his intent out loud. The representative’s only job is to escalate quietly. The first choice reasons from each deposit alone, which is precisely the loophole structuring is built to exploit. The second choice feels fair and is itself a violation: telling a customer that a report may be filed is tipping off. The third choice punishes and explains, which both alerts the customer and takes a decision that belongs to the anti-money-laundering officer, not to the representative.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • Matched or wash trades with no real change in ownership are manipulation; churning is overtrading a controlled account for commissions.
  • Freeriding is paying for a cash-account purchase by selling the same shares; borrowing exists only under a signed margin agreement.
  • Selling away is a private securities transaction without prior written notice to the firm; off-book trades and a finder’s fee are the tell.
  • Structuring deposits to dodge the currency report is an offense; escalate to AML staff and never tip off the customer.
  • Gifts tied to the recipient’s employer’s business are capped per person per year; paying personally changes nothing.
  • Borrowing from or lending to a customer is barred unless a listed exception applies.
  • A firm trading ahead of its customers’ orders violates customer priority.

Trap to avoid

The most-missed distinction is between violations that share a symptom. Heavy trading appears in both churning and matched trades; compensation appears in both selling away and churning; a customer instruction appears in both freeriding and ordinary cash trading. The distractors name a violation that shares one symptom with the correct one. Decide by victim and mechanism. Churning harms the account holder through commissions; manipulation harms the market through false prints; selling away defeats the firm’s supervision through concealment.

Overview of the regulatory framework

Overview of the Regulatory Framework is 9% of the exam and 7 scored questions, and our bank holds 54 items for it. The which-statute-or-body pattern asks which law or regulator owns a function; the distractors swap the two. The what-passing-the-SIE-gets-you pattern describes someone who passed the SIE without a firm and asks what that result is worth later. The registration paperwork pattern asks what happens to a Form U4 or U5 after a complaint, a resignation, or a conviction.

Worked example: which-statute-or-body

A customer asks a representative to explain how the Securities Act of 1933 differs in purpose from the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. Which explanation is correct?

  1. The 1933 Act governs secondary market trading among investors and the conduct of the exchanges, while the 1934 Act governs the registration of new issues sold to the public and the delivery of a prospectus in the offering.
  2. The 1933 Act created the Securities and Exchange Commission, while the 1934 Act established FINRA as a federal agency.
  3. The 1933 Act governs the registration and full disclosure of new issues offered to the public, while the 1934 Act governs secondary market trading and created the SEC to oversee broker-dealers, exchanges, and market conduct.
  4. Both statutes apply exclusively to municipal securities, which are otherwise unregulated at the federal level.

Answer: The 1933 Act governs the registration and full disclosure of new issues offered to the public, while the 1934 Act governs secondary market trading and created the SEC to oversee broker-dealers, exchanges, and market conduct.

Issue, then trade. The Securities Act of 1933 governs the first sale to the public through registration and a prospectus, and the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 governs everything that happens afterward in the trading markets, including the creation of the SEC. The first choice is the mirror image, picked by candidates who memorized two descriptions without anchoring them to a year. The second choice hands the SEC to the wrong statute and promotes FINRA to a federal agency, which it is not; it is a self-regulatory organization under SEC oversight. The last choice invents a municipal-only scope for both laws.

Worked example: what-passing-the-SIE-gets-you

A candidate passes the SIE exam but takes a job outside the securities industry and never joins a broker-dealer. Which statement correctly describes her regulatory status?

  1. She is registered with FINRA in a limited capacity until she lets the result lapse
  2. She is not registered with FINRA, and her passing result remains valid for four years
  3. She is fully registered with FINRA and may service retail customers immediately
  4. Her passing result never expires, but she must join a firm within four years to claim it

Answer: She is not registered with FINRA, and her passing result remains valid for four years

Two facts settle it: the SIE alone registers nobody, and a passing result lasts four years. Any choice that calls her registered, even in a limited capacity, fails at the first word, because registration needs a firm, a Form U4, and a representative-level exam; the first and third choices make that error in different sizes. The last choice inverts the clock: the result is what expires, and it does so after four years whether or not she ever joins a firm. Only the correct choice keeps both halves straight: no registration now, and a result that stays usable for four years.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • The SEC oversees FINRA, a self-regulatory organization, not a federal agency.
  • The SIE is open at age 18 with no firm and no prerequisite exam; the result lasts four years; it is a co-requisite to the Series 7 and by itself registers nobody.
  • Form U4 must be amended promptly for reportable events such as customer complaints, proven or not.
  • Form U5 is the firm’s filing when a representative leaves, with a copy to her; FINRA jurisdiction outlives the departure.
  • A recent felony conviction is a statutory disqualification, curable only through the eligibility process.
  • Continuing education: an annual Regulatory Element per registration plus a Firm Element from the firm’s needs analysis.

Trap to avoid

The most-missed distinction is between being eligible and being registered. Anyone of age can sit for the SIE with no firm behind them, and candidates carry that openness one step too far and assume a pass creates a registration. It does not; the SIE is only the shared first half of a pair. Any stem in which a candidate tells friends she is registered, or expects registration upon hiring, is testing exactly this, and the correct choice is the one that adds the second exam.

Two week plan

Order the two weeks by scored weight. Understanding Products and Their Risks carries 33 of the 75 scored questions, Trading, Customer Accounts and Prohibited Activities carries 23, Knowledge of Capital Markets carries 12, and Overview of the Regulatory Framework carries 7. Products gets the most days because it has the most questions to lose, and Regulatory gets a single evening because its rules fit on one page.

Week one: one area at a time

  • Monday and Tuesday: equity and debt. Read the equity-and-debt section above, then work Products items on the SIE practice exam until the liquidation order and the yield relationships come without thinking.
  • Wednesday and Thursday: packaged products, options, and annuities. Draw the general-account versus separate-account split and the covered-call payoff on paper before each session.
  • Friday: orders, accounts, and margin. Every stop and stop-limit item you miss, rewrite as a timeline: trigger, then execution.
  • Saturday: prohibited activities. Sort every miss by victim and mechanism.
  • Sunday: Knowledge of Capital Markets in the morning, Overview of the Regulatory Framework in the evening, then the SIE cheat sheet once before bed.

Week two: mixed sets and timing

  • Monday through Wednesday: mixed sets only, timed to the real pace of 75 scored questions in 105 minutes. Log every miss under its outline area.
  • Thursday: return to the two areas with the most logged misses and redo their sections above, including the worked examples, without looking at the answers first.
  • Friday: one full timed set, then the cheat sheet’s if-then rules read aloud.
  • Saturday: Products only, one more time, because 44% of the exam lives there.
  • Sunday: rest. Reread the night-before checklist on the cheat sheet and confirm your Prometric appointment details on FINRA’s page.

If you are scoring above the 70 passing mark on mixed timed sets by the second Thursday, keep the schedule; if not, trade the Saturday rest for a second pass through whichever area is dragging the score.

SIE flashcards

33 cards on the highest-yield terms and rules. Grading uses spaced repetition and saves in this browser.

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  1. How many scored questions are on the SIE exam, and how long do you have?

    75 scored questions, and you have 105 minutes (1 hour 45 minutes) to complete them.

  2. What is the difference between an equity security and a debt security?

    An equity security (stock) represents ownership in a company. A debt security (bond) represents a loan to an issuer that must be repaid with interest.

  3. What is the primary market vs. the secondary market?

    The primary market is where issuers sell newly created securities to raise capital (e.g., an IPO). The secondary market is where investors trade previously issued securities among themselves.

  4. What is the role of the SEC?

    The Securities and Exchange Commission is the federal regulator that oversees the securities industry, enforces securities laws, and protects investors.

  5. What is a self-regulatory organization (SRO)? Give an example.

    An SRO is a member-run organization that regulates its members under SEC oversight. FINRA is the primary SRO for broker-dealers.

  6. What is the difference between a market order and a limit order?

    A market order executes immediately at the best available price. A limit order executes only at a specified price or better.

  7. What does a preferred stock offer that common stock generally does not?

    Preferred stock pays a fixed dividend and has priority over common stock for dividends and in liquidation, but usually lacks voting rights.

  8. What is a municipal bond, and what is its key tax feature?

    A municipal bond is a debt security issued by a state or local government. Its interest is generally exempt from federal income tax.

  9. What is systematic risk vs. unsystematic risk?

    Systematic (market) risk affects the entire market and cannot be diversified away. Unsystematic (specific) risk affects a single company or industry and can be reduced through diversification.

  10. What is the purpose of the Anti-Money Laundering (AML) program and the Bank Secrecy Act?

    To detect and prevent money laundering. Firms must file Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) and follow Customer Identification Program (CIP) rules to verify customer identity.

  11. What is an open-end investment company (mutual fund)?

    A mutual fund continuously issues and redeems shares at net asset value (NAV). It does not trade on an exchange; investors buy and redeem directly with the fund.

  12. What is the difference between a call option and a put option?

    A call gives the holder the right to buy the underlying at the strike price. A put gives the holder the right to sell the underlying at the strike price.

  13. What is insider trading, and why is it prohibited?

    Insider trading is buying or selling a security based on material, nonpublic information. It is illegal because it undermines fair and equal access to information in the markets.

  14. What is the general relationship between bond prices and interest rates?

    They move inversely: when market interest rates rise, existing bond prices fall; when rates fall, bond prices rise.

  15. Define basis points and their use in fixed income.

    One basis point (bp) equals 0.01% or 1/100th of a percentage point. Used to express precise interest rate changes and bond yields; for example, a 25 bp rise means a 0.25% increase in rate.

  16. What are the key differences between common stock and preferred stock?

    Common stock provides voting rights and potential capital appreciation; preferred stock receives fixed dividend priority and claims priority in liquidation, but typically has no voting rights and limited upside potential.

  17. Explain the concept of dividend yield.

    Dividend yield is the annual dividend per share divided by the stock price, expressed as a percentage. It measures income return on an equity investment; higher yields may indicate value but could signal distress if the dividend is unsustainable.

  18. What is a call option and when might an investor purchase one?

    A call option gives the holder the right (not obligation) to buy an underlying asset at a set strike price before expiration. Investors buy calls to profit from price increases with limited upside leverage, or to hedge short positions.

  19. Define systematic risk and give an example.

    Systematic risk is market-wide risk that affects all securities; it cannot be eliminated through diversification. Examples include economic recession, interest rate changes, inflation, and geopolitical events.

  20. What is the difference between a mutual fund and an exchange-traded fund (ETF)?

    Mutual funds are priced once daily and typically actively managed; ETFs trade continuously throughout the day like stocks and are usually passively managed. ETFs generally have lower expense ratios and greater tax efficiency.

  21. How does a bond's duration measure interest rate risk?

    Duration measures the weighted average time to receive bond cash flows and expresses bond price sensitivity to interest rate changes. A bond with 5-year duration will fall approximately 5% in price for every 1% rise in interest rates.

  22. What is credit risk in the context of bonds?

    Credit risk is the risk that a bond issuer will default on coupon payments or principal repayment. It is assessed through credit ratings (AAA to C) and affects the bond's yield spread over risk-free Treasuries.

  23. Define liquidity risk and its impact on security values.

    Liquidity risk is the risk that an investor cannot quickly sell a security without significantly affecting its price. Securities with poor liquidity trade at wider bid-ask spreads and may force losses if immediate sale is necessary.

  24. What are the suitability requirements for recommending securities to customers?

    Recommendations must be suitable based on the customer's financial situation, investment objectives, risk tolerance, and time horizon. The firm must obtain and reasonably review the customer's profile before making recommendations.

  25. Explain the prohibition against insider trading.

    Insider trading is buying or selling securities based on material nonpublic information. It is illegal under federal law because it violates the fiduciary duty of persons with access to confidential corporate information and undermines fair market access.

  26. What is churning and why is it prohibited?

    Churning is excessive buying and selling of securities in a customer account without legitimate reason, primarily to generate commissions. It is prohibited as a fraudulent and manipulative practice that harms customers and violates suitability rules.

  27. Define a market order and explain when it is used.

    A market order is an instruction to buy or sell a security immediately at the best available current price. It is used when execution speed is prioritized over price; the buyer accepts any current bid price or the seller accepts any current ask.

  28. What is the role of the SEC in securities regulation?

    The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) administers federal securities laws, registers securities offerings, enforces disclosure requirements, oversees broker-dealers, and investigates securities law violations.

  29. What are the primary responsibilities of FINRA?

    FINRA (Financial Industry Regulatory Authority) is the primary self-regulatory organization for securities firms, responsible for member firm licensing, rule enforcement, dispute resolution (arbitration), and investor protection through the Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC).

  30. Explain the purpose of Know Your Customer (KYC) requirements.

    KYC requires firms to obtain and maintain information about customers' identities, financial conditions, and investment objectives. This allows firms to detect suspicious activity, prevent money laundering, and ensure recommendations are suitable.

  31. What is the difference between an agency transaction and a principal transaction?

    In an agency transaction, the broker acts as intermediary between buyer and seller, earning a commission without taking principal risk. In a principal transaction, the broker buys from or sells to the customer from its own inventory at a markup/markdown.

  32. Define money laundering in the securities industry context.

    Money laundering is concealing the origin of illegally obtained funds by processing them through the financial system to make them appear legitimate. Firms must file Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) and comply with anti-money-laundering (AML) programs.

  33. What score do you need to pass the SIE, and what does it cost?

    You need 70% to pass, and the 2026 exam fee is $100.

SIE glossary

The Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) is FINRA’s foundational exam for securities-industry knowledge. The current test contains 80 items—75 scored and five unidentified pretest items—within 105 minutes, requires a 70% score, and costs $100 in 2026. Firm association is not required, but passing the SIE alone does not confer FINRA registration.

27 terms the SIE exam tests, defined in plain English.

Accrued Interest
Interest that has accumulated on a bond since the last coupon payment but has not yet been paid to the investor. Bond buyers pay the seller accrued interest when purchasing between coupon dates. This adjusts the effective price and ensures the seller receives compensation for the waiting period since the last payment.
Arbitration
A dispute resolution mechanism, mandated by FINRA rules, in which a neutral third party (arbitrator) hears evidence and issues a binding decision instead of going to court. Most customer disputes with firms are resolved through FINRA arbitration, which is faster and more cost-effective than litigation but offers limited appeal rights for customers.
Bid-Ask Spread
The difference between the highest price a buyer is willing to pay (bid) and the lowest price a seller is willing to accept (ask) for a security. A narrower spread indicates greater market liquidity and lower trading costs, while a wider spread reflects less liquid or higher-risk securities. Understanding spreads helps candidates assess transaction costs and market efficiency.
Blue Sky Laws
State securities laws that regulate the offer and sale of securities within that state, established before federal securities laws to protect investors from fraud. While the federal SEC provides a baseline, blue sky laws vary by state and can impose stricter requirements. Securities offerings may need to be registered or qualify for exemption in each state.
Bond (Debt Security)
A debt instrument in which an investor lends money to an issuer in exchange for periodic interest payments and repayment of principal (par value) at maturity. Bondholders are creditors, not owners, and are paid before stockholders in a liquidation.
Broker-Dealer
A firm (or person) in the business of buying and selling securities. It acts as a broker (agent) when executing trades on a customer's behalf for a commission, and as a dealer (principal) when trading securities from its own inventory for a markup or markdown.
Derivative
A financial instrument whose value derives from an underlying asset, index, or rate, such as a stock, bond, commodity, or interest rate. Common derivatives include options, futures, swaps, and forwards. They can be used for hedging (reducing risk) or speculation (amplifying returns), and involve leverage and counterparty risk that require careful monitoring.
Equity Security (Common Stock)
A security representing an ownership stake in a corporation. Common stockholders typically have voting rights and may receive dividends, but they hold the last claim on assets in a liquidation, behind creditors and preferred shareholders.
Fiduciary Duty
A legal obligation to act in the best interest of a client, placing the client's interests above the firm's or advisor's own profit. Different standards apply: registered investment advisors owe a full fiduciary duty; broker-dealers must follow suitability rules, which is a lower standard. Breaching fiduciary duty can lead to regulatory censure, restitution, and civil liability.
FINRA
The Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, the primary self-regulatory organization overseeing securities firms and brokers in the U.S. FINRA writes rules, conducts compliance examinations, and enforces standards through its Conduct Rules and Code of Arbitration. Most exam questions reference FINRA rules and oversight.
FINRA (Financial Industry Regulatory Authority)
A self-regulatory organization (SRO) authorized by Congress to oversee U.S. broker-dealers and their registered representatives. It writes and enforces industry rules, administers qualification exams, and operates under SEC oversight.
Insider Trading
Trading securities based on material nonpublic information obtained through a position of trust or responsibility at a company or regulatory agency. It is illegal and enforced by the SEC and DOJ. Even indirect trading (through family members or tipping others) violates insider trading laws and can result in civil penalties, disgorgement, and criminal prosecution.
Know Your Customer (KYC)
The regulatory requirement that firms obtain and verify information about each customer's identity, financial situation, investment experience, and objectives before opening an account or making recommendations. KYC is foundational to suitability analysis, anti-money laundering compliance, and fraud prevention, and must be periodically updated.
Market Maker
A broker-dealer firm that actively buys and sells securities from its own inventory to provide liquidity and facilitate trading. Market makers quote both bid and ask prices and profit from the spread. They are obligated to display their quotes and maintain orderly markets, and are subject to special regulatory oversight.
Money Laundering / AML (Anti-Money Laundering)
Money laundering is the process of disguising illegally obtained funds as legitimate, and AML refers to the laws and procedures (such as those under the Bank Secrecy Act) that firms follow to detect and prevent it. Firms must file Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) and Currency Transaction Reports (CTRs) as part of compliance.
Municipal Bond
A debt security issued by a state, city, or other local government entity, or by a government agency, to fund public works and services. Interest income is typically exempt from federal income tax and often state and local taxes. Municipals are generally lower-yielding than taxable corporates because of the tax advantage, and credit risk depends on the issuer's financial health.
Mutual Fund (Open-End Investment Company)
A pooled investment vehicle that continuously issues and redeems shares at net asset value (NAV). Investors buy and redeem shares directly with the fund rather than trading them on an exchange.
Penny Stock
A low-priced equity security (typically under $5) issued by small or speculative companies, often quoted over-the-counter. Penny stocks are highly volatile, thinly traded, and subject to manipulation and fraud. Broker-dealers must comply with strict disclosure and suitability rules when recommending penny stocks due to their elevated risk.
Preferred Stock
An equity security that pays a fixed, stated dividend and has priority over common stock for dividends and in liquidation. Preferred shares generally carry no voting rights and behave much like a fixed-income investment.
Primary Market vs. Secondary Market
The primary market is where new securities are issued and sold to investors for the first time, with proceeds going to the issuer (e.g., an IPO). The secondary market is where those already-issued securities trade among investors, with proceeds going to the selling investor rather than the issuer.
Prospectus
A formal disclosure document that must be delivered to investors in a public offering, detailing the security, the issuer's business, financials, and risks. It is derived from the registration statement filed with the SEC under the Securities Act of 1933.
Regulation T
The Federal Reserve regulation governing the extension of credit by brokers and dealers to customers buying securities on margin. It sets the initial margin requirement (currently 50%), meaning customers must deposit at least 50% of the security's value in cash. Regulation T also defines margin maintenance rules and procedures for handling margin calls.
SEC (Securities and Exchange Commission)
The primary federal regulator of the U.S. securities markets, created by the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. It enforces securities laws, requires public-company disclosure, and oversees SROs such as FINRA and the exchanges.
Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Exam
An entry-level FINRA exam that assesses basic knowledge of the securities industry, including products, risks, market structure, and regulatory bodies. It can be taken without firm sponsorship and is a prerequisite to the top-off qualification exams.
Suitability
The regulatory requirement that broker-dealers recommend securities and investment strategies appropriate for a customer's financial situation, investment objectives, and risk tolerance. Firms must document the basis for their recommendations and ensure advice aligns with what they know about the customer, not just what generates commissions.
Systemic Risk
The risk that the failure or distress of one financial institution could trigger a cascade of failures across the broader financial system, threatening overall market stability. Regulators monitor systemically important firms closely and require higher capital reserves to contain this risk. Understanding systemic risk is key to grasping why certain firms are "too big to fail."
Underwriting
The process by which an investment bank or securities firm agrees to purchase new securities from an issuer and sell them to the public, bearing the risk of any unsold inventory. In firm commitment underwriting, the underwriter buys all securities upfront; in best efforts, it sells as much as it can. Underwriters earn fees and potential profit from the spread between acquisition and selling prices.

Frequently asked questions

What makes this site's SIE guide different from a standard content outline?

Instead of restating FINRA's four domains, the guide groups each domain's scored questions into the recurring patterns test-writers reuse, such as a which-actor setup in Capital Markets or a where-does-the-risk-sit setup in Products, then closes with a two-week study plan ordered by scored weight.

How does the guide divide the largest SIE domain into sections?

Understanding Products and Their Risks carries 33 of the 75 scored questions, the heaviest single domain, so the guide splits it into two sections: stocks and bonds first, then funds, exchange-traded products, options, annuities, and alternatives second, rather than covering it in one pass.

Does the guide explain the pretest items mixed into the SIE?

Yes. It notes that the exam seats 80 items but scores only 75, with 5 unidentified pretest questions added since October 27, 2025 replaced the earlier 10-item pretest count, and it advises treating every item on screen as though it counts toward your score.

How is the guide's two-week study plan ordered?

By scored weight rather than domain order: Understanding Products and Their Risks gets the most days because it holds 33 of the 75 scored questions, Trading gets the next block at 23, Capital Markets follows at 12, and the Regulatory Framework closes the plan at 7.

Sources

  1. 1.Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) Content OutlineFINRA (accessed Sep 9, 2026)
  2. 2.FINRA Forward Rule Modernization ContinuesFINRA (accessed Sep 9, 2026)
  3. 3.SIE Exam OverviewFINRA (accessed Sep 9, 2026)
  4. 4.FINRA SIE ExamFINRA (accessed Sep 9, 2026)
  5. 5.FINRA Rule 1210 — Registration Requirements (SIE Eligibility)FINRA (accessed Sep 9, 2026)
  6. 6.Series 7 — General Securities Representative ExamFINRA (accessed Sep 9, 2026)
  7. 7.Schedule an ExamFINRA (accessed Sep 9, 2026)

Official sources

Primary documents used to verify the exam details shown on this page.

Last verified against the FINRA content outline: