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STUDY GUIDE · SERIES 7

General Securities Representative Exam (Series 7) Study Guide

Verified against the FINRA content outline 9 sections
Written by Every Exam Prep Editorial TeamSource and review policyPublished July 6, 2026Updated September 9, 2026
Questions
125
Time limit
3h 45m
Passing score
72%
Exam fee
$395
Governing body
FINRA

How the questions are written

The Series 7 does not ask you to define things. Almost every item in our bank starts with a person: a customer who wants something, a representative who did something, an issuer with a financing problem. Your job is to identify which rule or calculation the situation triggers and apply it. That is why stems run long and why the correct choice often carries a reason clause. Read the reason as part of the answer, because distractors on this exam love to pair a true conclusion with a false reason.

Three stem shapes to recognize

  • Apply-the-rule scenarios. A fact pattern followed by what must the firm do or how is this treated. Find the one detail that decides it: the head count, the holding period, the account registration.
  • Arithmetic with a built-in wrong turn. Options breakevens, margin deposits, accrued interest, taxable-equivalent yield. Every distractor is a plausible miscalculation, so compute before you look at the choices.
  • EXCEPT, LEAST and BEST forms. A NOT-required stem inverts the search, so you hunt the outlier among true statements; a BEST stem offers several defensible choices and wants the tightest fit to the constraint the customer stated.

Scored versus pretest, and what it does to pacing

You answer 130 items: 125 scored and 5 unscored pretest questions. Pretest items are not flagged, so an oddly worded question is not evidence that it does not count. The clock is 225 minutes, and the passing score is 72, reached through equating rather than a fixed raw count. Never skip a hard calculation on the theory that it is a pretest item, and never let one hard item eat the time budget of several ordinary ones.

How to use this bank

Our bank holds 200 published questions across 7 study categories, and this guide maps those categories onto FINRA's four job functions. First pass: work one function section at a time and read every explanation, including the ones you answered correctly, because each explanation names distractor logic you will meet again. Second pass: mixed, timed sets from the practice page, since the live exam interleaves functions and switching context costs time.

Seeks business

Seeking business for the broker-dealer is the first job function: 9 scored questions, 7% of the exam, the smallest slice and the cheapest points, because each item turns on a single fact. In our bank it draws from the New Issues, Regulations and Business Conduct category (communications, gifts, restricted persons) and from Suitability and Customer Accounts (the relationship summary that precedes any recommendation). Three patterns recur: the head-count classification, the dollar-cap-per-person rule for gifts, and the restricted-person screen.

Worked example: the head-count classification

A representative drafts a market commentary piece and intends to email it to 60 retail customers over the course of a single month. How is that communication classified, and what approval does it require before it goes out?

  1. Correspondence, subject only to post-use review under the firm's supervisory procedures
  2. An institutional communication, which requires no principal approval at any stage
  3. Correspondence, but requiring principal approval before it is sent
  4. A retail communication, requiring approval by a registered principal before first use

Answer: A retail communication, requiring approval by a registered principal before first use

What decides it is how many retail investors receive the piece inside the counting window, not that they are existing customers or that the medium is email. Choice A tempts because a note to your own customers feels like correspondence, and post-use review is how correspondence is supervised. Choice C keeps the correspondence label while adding an approval step that label never requires. Choice B fails on its face: retail customers are not an institutional audience.

Worked example: the restricted-person screen

A registered representative's spouse wants to buy shares in a common stock IPO through her own account. What does FINRA's new-issue rule say?

  1. She is a restricted person by family relation — the purchase is barred
  2. Spouses may always buy new issues
  3. She may buy up to 100 shares
  4. Only the SEC can approve her purchase

Answer: She is a restricted person by family relation — the purchase is barred

The new-issue rule bars industry insiders and their immediate family, spouses included, from buying an equity IPO at the offering price, and a separate account changes nothing. Choice B tempts because the spouse has no industry job of her own; the restriction follows the household. Choice C invents a small-share allowance the rule does not contain. Choice D tempts because a regulator sounds like the right gatekeeper, but no regulator grants exceptions to a member rule.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • A retail communication needs registered-principal approval before first use; correspondence is reviewed under supervisory procedures afterward.
  • Gifts tied to the recipient's employer's business are capped per person per year; entertainment the representative attends is judged separately.
  • Restricted persons include associated persons of any member firm, their immediate family, finders and fiduciaries to the deal, and portfolio managers buying personally.
  • The relationship summary is delivered at or before the earliest of a recommendation, an account opening, or an order.
  • A traditional private placement cannot be advertised; a newspaper ad kills the exemption even if every buyer is accredited.

Trap to avoid

Candidates read the new-issue rule as covering only employees of the firm running the deal. It reaches associated persons of every member firm and their households, and a retail customer whose account sits at a syndicate member is not restricted. When the stem asks who may buy at the offering price, pick the buyer with no industry connection at all.

Opens accounts

Opening accounts after obtaining and evaluating the customer profile is the second job function: 11 scored questions, 9% of the exam. In our bank it draws from the Suitability and Customer Accounts category, specifically the account-opening and account-type items; the recommendation items from that category appear under the third function. Three patterns recur: identity versus profile, who holds authority (a corporate resolution, a written discretionary grant, a guardian, an executor), and what happens at death or majority, where the registration alone decides where assets go.

Worked example: identity versus profile

A representative is opening a new individual cash account. Which set of information must the firm obtain and verify in order to satisfy its customer identification program?

  1. Name, date of birth, a residential or business street address, and a taxpayer identification number
  2. Name, employer, annual income, and approximate net worth
  3. Name, investment objective, risk tolerance, and time horizon
  4. Name, outside bank account number, prior brokerage relationships, and estimated tax bracket

Answer: Name, date of birth, a residential or business street address, and a taxpayer identification number

Identification asks who the customer is, and the four items in the correct choice are the ones a firm can check against documents. Choice C tempts because every item on it must in fact be collected, but for suitability, not identity; a risk tolerance proves nothing about who is across the desk. Choice B mixes one identity item with financial facts that belong to the profile. Choice D pads a name with things no identification program calls for.

Worked example: what happens at death

One of two tenants-in-common dies holding 60% of their account. Where does that interest go?

  1. To the deceased tenant's estate — not to the survivor
  2. To the surviving tenant automatically
  3. To the state as unclaimed property
  4. It is split equally regardless of ownership shares

Answer: To the deceased tenant's estate — not to the survivor

Tenancy in common preserves separate, unequal shares, and each share passes through its owner's estate. Choice B tempts because automatic survivorship is the feature most candidates learn first, but it belongs to joint tenants with right of survivorship, not to tenants in common. Choice D tempts because joint sounds like equal, yet tenants in common exists precisely to hold unequal interests. Choice C confuses a death with abandoned property; an estate is not unclaimed.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • Discretion must be granted in writing before it is used, and it is bounded by the scope of the grant; a permissive remark on the phone is not authority.
  • A corporate account needs a resolution naming who may trade, plus the charter or bylaws showing margin or options trading is permitted.
  • A custodial account has one custodian and one minor, the gift is irrevocable, margin is barred, and control passes to the former minor at majority.
  • Withdrawal checks from a joint account are payable to all holders, whichever one asked.
  • On notice of death: cancel open orders, mark the account deceased, wait for the legal documents.
  • A customer who refuses to give a profile may open the account for unsolicited orders but receives no recommendations.

Trap to avoid

The trusted contact person is the distinction candidates keep missing. Naming one lets the firm call that person about suspected exploitation or an unreachable customer, and lets the firm place a temporary hold on a suspicious disbursement while it investigates. It confers no power to trade, withdraw or inherit. A choice that hands the trusted contact authority is wrong; so is one that demands a court order before the firm may call.

Provides information equity and debt

Providing investment information, making recommendations, transferring assets and maintaining records is the third job function: 91 scored questions, 73% of the exam. It is the exam. Our bank spreads it across four categories; this section covers the largest, Equity and Debt Securities (39 questions in our bank), plus the primary-market items in New Issues (underwriting types, shelf registration, the green shoe, lock-ups). Four patterns recur: convention-matching, yield ordering, structure-picking (a stated worry points to one tranche, preferred class or bond), and phantom income.

Worked example: convention-matching

On the same day, a customer buys $50,000 face amount of a corporate debenture and $50,000 face amount of a Treasury note. The representative notes that accrued interest is computed differently on the two confirmations. Which statement is accurate?

  1. Both accrue on an actual/actual calendar because both pay interest semiannually
  2. The debenture accrues actual/actual and the Treasury note accrues 30/360
  3. Both accrue on a 30/360 calendar; only municipal issues use actual days
  4. The debenture accrues 30/360 and the Treasury note accrues actual/actual

Answer: The debenture accrues 30/360 and the Treasury note accrues actual/actual

The convention follows the issuer. Corporate and municipal bonds count 30-day months on a 360-day year; direct Treasury notes and bonds count actual elapsed days over the actual days in the coupon period. Choice B is the classic reversal: candidates recall that two conventions exist and assign them backward. Choice A tempts because both securities pay semiannually, but payment frequency has nothing to do with day count. Choice C reserves actual days for municipals, which accrue exactly like corporates.

Worked example: yield ordering

A customer buys a 6% corporate bond at a price of 108 that the issuer may call at par in three years. The customer asks which of the four yields shown on the confirmation will be the lowest number.

  1. Nominal yield
  2. Yield to call
  3. Current yield
  4. Yield to maturity

Answer: Yield to call

At a premium the holder pays more than she will get back, and that loss is spread over her holding period. Yield to maturity spreads it over the full life; yield to call spreads the same loss over the shorter period to the call date, so it is the smallest figure. Nominal yield is the coupon alone. Current yield accounts for price but not for losing the premium. Choice D tempts because premium bonds do yield less to maturity than the coupon, but a near call compresses the loss further.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • Discount bond: nominal, current, yield to maturity, yield to call, each higher than the last; a premium bond runs the ladder in reverse.
  • Longer maturity and lower coupon mean bigger price swings; a zero-coupon bond has the longest duration for its maturity.
  • Direct Treasury interest is federally taxable and state-exempt; agency pass-through interest is taxable at every level, and only Ginnie Mae carries the full faith and credit guarantee.
  • TIPS principal accretion and zero-coupon accretion are reported as income in the year they accrue.
  • Liquidation order: secured bonds, straight debentures with the general creditors, subordinated debentures, preferred, common.
  • A firm commitment fixes the issuer's proceeds and leaves unsold shares with the syndicate; best efforts leaves demand risk with the issuer; standby backs a rights offering.

Trap to avoid

Ginnie Mae is the distinction this area misses most. Its certificates carry the government guarantee, and candidates transfer that guarantee onto tax treatment, concluding the interest must be state-exempt like a Treasury. It is pass-through mortgage interest, taxable at every level. When a stem asks for federally taxable but state-exempt income, the answer is a direct Treasury obligation, and every agency choice is the decoy.

Provides information municipal securities

Municipal Securities is the second category inside the third job function, with 23 questions in our bank. Four patterns recur: name the note by its repayment source, where a tax, revenue or bond anticipation note is identified by the cash that retires it; tax-backed versus self-supporting, where general obligation debt brings a referendum and a debt limit while revenue debt brings a feasibility study, a rate covenant, a flow of funds and an additional bonds test; basis arithmetic at redemption, where premium and discount get opposite treatment; and who does what, where the MSRB writes rules that FINRA, the SEC and the bank regulators enforce, and bond counsel opines on validity and tax status, never on credit.

Worked example: tax-backed versus self-supporting

A state agency's bonds carry a provision that if reserves run short, the legislature MAY appropriate funds — but is not required to. What backing is this?

  1. A moral obligation — a non-binding legislative backstop
  2. A full faith and credit pledge
  3. Federal insurance
  4. A double-barreled pledge

Answer: A moral obligation — a non-binding legislative backstop

The word MAY is the whole question. A legislature that is permitted but not required to appropriate funds gives the bondholder a reputational backstop and nothing enforceable, which is what moral obligation means. Choice B tempts because state involvement sounds like a taxing-power pledge, but full faith and credit is a binding obligation approved by voters. Choice D tempts because a double-barreled bond also has two sources, yet both of its sources are legally enforceable. Choice C has no federal role at all.

Worked example: basis arithmetic at redemption

A customer buys a municipal bond in the secondary market at a price of 92 and holds it until redemption at par. How is the eight-point difference treated when the bond matures?

  1. As ordinary income, because market discount on a municipal bond is not exempt interest
  2. As tax-exempt interest, because all income produced by a municipal bond is exempt
  3. As long-term capital gain, taxed at the customer's applicable capital gains rate
  4. As a return of capital that reduces the basis of the customer's other municipal holdings

Answer: As ordinary income, because market discount on a municipal bond is not exempt interest

The federal exemption covers interest the issuer pays. A discount created by secondary-market trading is not issuer interest, so its accretion is ordinary income at maturity or sale. Choice B is the trap every candidate feels, because municipal income is supposed to be tax free, and that instinct is exactly what the item tests. Choice C tempts because the gain looks like appreciation, but market discount is treated as interest, not capital gain. Choice D describes return of capital, irrelevant to a bond bought below par.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • A premium is amortized down to par, so no loss exists at maturity; original issue discount on a new municipal issue accretes as exempt interest, unlike market discount.
  • Net revenue pledge: operation and maintenance first, then debt service, then reserves and surplus; a gross pledge pays bondholders first.
  • Syndicate priority: presale, group net, designated, member. Serial maturities quote on a yield basis; term maturities quote as dollar prices.
  • A disqualifying political contribution by a municipal finance professional bars the dealer, not just the individual, from negotiated business with that issuer for two years.
  • Private activity bond interest can be an alternative minimum tax preference item; public-purpose general obligation interest is not.
  • Disclosure is an official statement on the MSRB's EMMA system; there is no prospectus because municipal issues are exempt from registration.

Trap to avoid

Exemption from registration is not exemption from the antifraud provisions. A municipal issuer files no registration statement and prints no prospectus, yet every statement in the official statement and every secondary-market representation sits under the antifraud rules. Any choice that reasons from no prospectus to no disclosure duty, or from exempt security to exempt conduct, is wrong.

Provides information options and margin

Options and Margin is the third category inside the third job function, and at 38 questions it is the second-largest category in our bank, which matches its reputation on the live exam. Four patterns recur: breakeven and maximum-gain arithmetic, where straddles add premiums, spreads net them, and a covered call stops at the strike; floor versus percentage, where the Regulation T percentage, the minimum equity floor and the maintenance percentage compete; adjustment and assignment mechanics; and what must be delivered when, meaning the disclosure document before approval and the signed agreement after it.

Worked example: breakeven arithmetic

Expecting a pending court ruling to move a stock violently without knowing which way, a customer buys 1 LMN 70 call at 4 and 1 LMN 70 put at 3. At expiration, at what underlying prices does the combined position begin to show a profit?

  1. Above 74 only
  2. Between 67 and 74
  3. Above 77 or below 63
  4. Above 73 or below 66

Answer: Above 77 or below 63

Only one leg can finish in the money, so that leg alone must earn back the cost of both: the call premium plus the put premium, which is how far the stock must travel beyond the strike in either direction. Choice D is the frequent error, adding the put premium on the upside and subtracting the call premium on the downside, pairing each leg with its own cost. Choice A forgets the put exists. Choice B is the range between the breakevens, where the position loses.

Worked example: floor versus percentage

A customer wants to short $1,500 of stock in a new margin account. Reg T at 50% would call for $750. What must she actually deposit?

  1. $2,000 — the minimum equity floor for short accounts
  2. $750 — half the short value
  3. $1,500 — the full short value
  4. Nothing until the position moves against her

Answer: $2,000 — the minimum equity floor for short accounts

The percentage requirement and the minimum equity floor compete, and the larger figure governs; because a short loss has no ceiling, the floor applies to short accounts whatever their size. Choice B tempts because the Regulation T arithmetic is correct, just not binding. Choice C tempts by demanding full value, which is what a cash account would require. Choice D describes a maintenance call, which arrives after the position moves, never in place of the opening deposit.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • Regulation T is 50% of a purchase or a short sale; SMA buys twice its amount of marginable stock, and SMA does not evaporate on a later decline.
  • On a long position the debit never changes as the stock falls; shorts carry a higher maintenance percentage than longs.
  • Treasuries sit outside Regulation T; listed options expiring within nine months have no loan value.
  • Ordinary cash dividends do not adjust a listed option; an uneven split changes the strike and the deliverable within one contract.
  • The Options Clearing Corporation issues, guarantees and assigns at random to a member firm, which allocates by random selection, first-in first-out, or any fair, disclosed method.
  • Position limits aggregate the same side of the market: long calls with short puts, long puts with short calls.

Trap to avoid

Uncovered call versus uncovered put risk. An uncovered call writer faces unlimited loss because a share price has no ceiling; an uncovered put writer's worst case is the strike less the premium, because a stock stops at zero. Distractors borrow the formula from the other position. Before answering any writer-risk item, name which option was sold and which direction hurts.

Provides information packaged products retirement and suitability

The last slice of the third job function draws from two bank categories: Packaged Products, Annuities and Retirement Plans (26 questions in our bank) and the recommendation items within Suitability and Customer Accounts (29 questions in our bank, shared with the account-opening function). Four patterns recur: share class by horizon and size, compare to the assumed rate for variable annuity payouts, which wrapper for which employer, and the whole profile, not the one fact, where a yield that serves one objective cannot cure a liquidity mismatch and a casual remark cannot override a documented objective.

Worked example: compare to the assumed rate

A customer receives monthly income from a variable annuity carrying a 4% assumed interest rate. In the most recent month the separate account earned a net return of 3%. What happens to the customer's next monthly payment?

  1. It increases, because the separate account produced a positive return
  2. It decreases, because the return fell short of the assumed interest rate
  3. It remains unchanged, because the return was positive rather than negative
  4. It remains unchanged, because payments are fixed once annuitization has occurred

Answer: It decreases, because the return fell short of the assumed interest rate

A variable annuity check is repriced each period against the assumed interest rate, not against zero. When the separate account earns less than that assumption, the next payment falls even though the account made money. Choice A traps candidates who read the sign of the return instead of comparing it with the benchmark. Choice C repeats the same error in different words. Choice D confuses a variable payout with a fixed annuity, where payments do hold constant after annuitization.

Worked example: the whole profile, not the one fact

Two share classes of the same fund would both serve a retail customer's objective, but one costs meaningfully more over her expected holding period. Under Regulation Best Interest, what must the recommending representative weigh?

  1. Costs — recommending the pricier class needs a reason grounded in her interest, not the firm's
  2. Nothing; cost is the customer's problem to research
  3. Only whether the fund itself is suitable
  4. The firm's payout grid

Answer: Costs — recommending the pricier class needs a reason grounded in her interest, not the firm's

The care obligation adds cost and reasonably available alternatives to the analysis, so recommending the costlier class needs a reason rooted in the customer's interest. Choice C tempts because the fund is suitable, and suitability used to be the whole test. Choice A pushes cost outside the representative's duty, which the best-interest standard rejects. Choice D names the very conflict the rule subordinates: the payout grid is the firm's interest and can never justify a customer paying more.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • Forward pricing: purchases fill at the next net asset value plus the sales charge; redemptions at the next net asset value less any redemption charge.
  • A letter of intent is non-binding and may be backdated to capture a recent purchase; steering a purchase just under a breakpoint without disclosing it is breakpoint selling.
  • Long horizon and a large purchase favor Class A shares with breakpoints; a short horizon favors the level charge.
  • At annuitization, accumulation units become a fixed number of annuity units whose value keeps fluctuating; straight life pays the largest check.
  • Random withdrawals from a non-qualified annuity come out earnings first as ordinary income, with a penalty before the retirement age.
  • A Roth owner has no lifetime required distributions; a direct trustee-to-trustee transfer avoids withholding; a fund-family exchange is a taxable sale.

Trap to avoid

One matching attribute against the whole profile. A distribution rate can genuinely serve a stated income need while the product's illiquidity defeats a stated near-term cash need; a remark about wanting higher returns cannot outrank a documented objective of preserving capital. When a choice justifies a recommendation by the one attribute that fits, it is the trap; the correct choice names the constraint the recommendation violated.

Processes transactions

Obtaining and verifying customer instructions and processing transactions is the fourth job function: 14 scored questions, 11% of the exam. In our bank it draws from Trading, Settlement and Prohibited Activities (26 questions in our bank) and from the insider-trading and structuring items in New Issues, Regulations and Business Conduct. Four patterns recur: which side of the market the order sits on, elected, then what, count from settlement, and label the violation, distinguishing marking the close, trading ahead, churning and undisclosed riskless principal compensation.

Worked example: elected, then what

A sell stop at 38 rests on the book. The stock prints 38.00, then 37.90, then 38.10. At which print did the order become live, and what did it become?

  1. The 38.00 print elected it, converting it into a market order to sell
  2. The 37.90 print elected it as a limit order at 38
  3. The 38.10 print elected it
  4. Stops activate only at the close

Answer: The 38.00 print elected it, converting it into a market order to sell

A stop is elected by the first print at or through its price, and the first such print is 38.00 itself. Election converts it into a market order that fills at the next available price, favorable or not. Choice B tempts because the lower print feels like the trigger and because candidates confuse a stop with a stop-limit, which would become a limit order. Choice C waits for a print above the stop, which is backward for a sell stop. Choice D describes no order type at all.

Worked example: count from settlement

A stock's record date for a dividend is Thursday. With regular-way settlement at T+1, what is the last day to BUY and still receive the dividend?

  1. Wednesday — a Wednesday trade settles Thursday, making the buyer a holder of record
  2. Thursday — buying on the record date always qualifies
  3. Monday — three days ahead is required
  4. Friday — the day after record

Answer: Wednesday — a Wednesday trade settles Thursday, making the buyer a holder of record

Ownership for dividend purposes is fixed by settlement, not by trade date. A purchase on Wednesday settles on Thursday, the record date, so the buyer is a holder of record. Choice B tempts because the record date sounds like the deadline, but a Thursday trade settles Friday, one day too late. Choice C carries over the older, longer settlement cycle. Choice D is the day after record, when the shares already trade without the dividend attached.

Numbers and rules the bank keeps testing

  • A sell stop rests below the market to protect a long; a buy stop rests above it to protect a short; a limit placed on that same side fills at once.
  • Open buy limits and sell stops are reduced by the dividend on the ex-date unless marked do-not-reduce.
  • Immediate-or-cancel takes partial fills and cancels the rest; fill-or-kill wants everything now or nothing; all-or-none wants everything but will wait.
  • Before a short sale the firm locates the stock and documents it; a long mark requires ownership and deliverability by settlement.
  • Regular way for corporate securities is T+1; cash settlement, agreed at the time of the trade, settles the same day; an exercised equity option settles like any stock trade.
  • Confirmations go out at or before completion and state agent or principal capacity; a riskless principal markup is disclosed like a commission.
  • Tender only a net long position; a tipper who profits nothing still faces insider-trading liability.

Trap to avoid

A sell limit below the market is the most common order-type error. The customer wants to protect a gain if the stock reverses, and a sell limit at the lower price sounds protective; in fact a limit to sell executes at its limit or better, so it fills at once at the current higher price and liquidates the position she wanted to keep. The protective order is the sell stop, dormant until the stock trades down to the trigger.

Two week plan

The order below follows the weights: the third job function holds 91 of the 125 scored questions, so it owns most of the calendar, while the other three functions share a combined three days. Every session uses the Series 7 practice bank, filtered to the named category, followed by the cheat sheet for the rules you missed.

Week one: build the third function

  • Monday and Tuesday: Equity and Debt Securities, half the category each day. Write the yield ladder and the accrual conventions from memory before Tuesday's set.
  • Wednesday: Municipal Securities in one sitting. Afterward, list each note type with the cash that retires it and each revenue-bond protection with whom it protects.
  • Thursday and Friday: Options and Margin, spread over two days because it is the arithmetic-heavy category. Work every breakeven by hand before reading the choices; Friday closes with the margin items only.
  • Saturday: Packaged Products, Annuities and Retirement Plans, then the recommendation items from Suitability and Customer Accounts.
  • Sunday: A mixed, timed set drawn from all third-function categories. Log every miss by pattern name, not by topic.

Week two: the other functions, then everything mixed

  • Monday: Account opening, from Suitability and Customer Accounts. Registrations, authority documents, custodial and death rules.
  • Tuesday: Seeking business, from New Issues, Regulations and Business Conduct: communications, gifts, restricted persons, private placements.
  • Wednesday: Processing transactions, all of Trading, Settlement and Prohibited Activities. Draw the four order types on a price line before you start.
  • Thursday: Return to the two third-function categories with the most logged misses. Reread the explanations before retrying.
  • Friday: A full-length mixed set under the 225-minute clock, no pauses. Score it against 72 and note where the clock ran short.
  • Saturday: Cheat sheet only. Rebuild the outline weights and the numbers table on paper, then reread the if-then rules aloud.
  • Sunday: Rest. A short evening review of your miss log, nothing new.

Series 7 flashcards

34 cards on the highest-yield terms and rules. Grading uses spaced repetition and saves in this browser.

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  1. How much time are you given for the Series 7 exam?

    225 minutes (3 hours and 45 minutes).

  2. What score is required to pass the Series 7?

    72%.

  3. What is the Series 7 exam fee?

    $300.

  4. What rights does a call option give the holder?

    The right to BUY the underlying stock at the strike price. Buyers are bullish; sellers (writers) are bearish.

  5. What rights does a put option give the holder?

    The right to SELL the underlying stock at the strike price. Buyers are bearish; sellers (writers) are bullish.

  6. What is the difference between a primary and secondary market?

    Primary market: issuer sells new securities to raise capital (IPOs). Secondary market: investors trade existing securities among themselves (exchanges, OTC).

  7. What is a municipal bond's key tax advantage?

    Interest is exempt from federal income tax (and often state/local tax for in-state residents). Capital gains are still taxable.

  8. What happens to a bond's price when interest rates rise?

    Bond prices fall (inverse relationship). Longer maturities and lower coupons are more sensitive to rate changes.

  9. Distinguish systematic from unsystematic risk.

    Systematic (market) risk affects the whole market and can't be diversified away. Unsystematic (specific) risk is company/industry-specific and can be reduced through diversification.

  10. What is the Securities Act of 1933 primarily concerned with?

    The primary market — registration and full disclosure of new securities issues (prospectus requirements). Often called the 'paper act.'

  11. What does the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 regulate?

    The secondary market — it created the SEC and regulates exchanges, broker-dealers, insider trading, and market manipulation.

  12. How many scored questions are on the Series 7 exam?

    125 scored questions.

  13. What is the difference between a market order and a limit order?

    A market order executes immediately at the best available price. A limit order executes only at a specified price or better, but may not fill.

  14. What is a prospectus and when must it be delivered?

    A prospectus is a formal disclosure document detailing an issuer's business, financials, and risks. It must be delivered to every prospective investor prior to or with the confirmation of sale.

  15. Define 'short selling' and explain the risks.

    Short selling involves borrowing stock and selling it, hoping to buy it back cheaper. Risks include unlimited loss potential, forced buyback, and margin interest costs.

  16. What is a dividend and how are qualified dividends taxed?

    A dividend is a cash or stock distribution from corporate earnings to shareholders. Qualified dividends (held >60 days around ex-date) are taxed at capital gains rates; nonqualified are taxed as ordinary income.

  17. Explain the difference between convertible bonds and straight bonds.

    Convertible bonds can be converted into the issuer's stock at a predetermined price; straight bonds cannot. Convertibles typically offer lower coupon rates in exchange for conversion optionality.

  18. What is a stock split and how does it affect an investor's position?

    A stock split divides existing shares into a greater number of shares (e.g., 2-for-1 split doubles share count and halves price). The total value and ownership percentage remain unchanged.

  19. Define 'basis point' and give an example.

    A basis point is 1/100 of 1% (0.01%). For example, a 25 basis point move in an interest rate is a change from 3.50% to 3.75%.

  20. What is the difference between a bull market and a bear market?

    A bull market features rising prices and investor optimism. A bear market features falling prices (down 20%+ from recent highs) and pessimism.

  21. Explain the concept of 'yield to maturity' (YTM) on a bond.

    YTM is the total return an investor receives if holding a bond to maturity, accounting for purchase price, coupon payments, and principal repayment. It equals the discount rate that equates the bond's cash flows to its market price.

  22. What is a corporate bond's 'spread' over Treasuries?

    The spread is the additional yield a corporate bond offers above a comparable Treasury bond, reflecting the corporate issuer's credit risk. Wider spreads indicate higher perceived default risk.

  23. Define 'par value' and explain its role in bonds and stocks.

    Par is the face value of a security. For bonds, it's the amount repaid at maturity; par bonds trade at 100. For stocks, it's an arbitrary stated value used for accounting but no longer economically meaningful.

  24. What is a 'junk bond' and what credit rating threshold defines it?

    A junk bond is a high-yield corporate bond with a credit rating below investment grade (below BBB- by S&P or Baa3 by Moody's). It carries elevated default risk but offers higher yield.

  25. Explain the inverse relationship between bond duration and interest rates.

    Duration measures a bond's price sensitivity to interest rate changes. Longer duration bonds fall more sharply when rates rise and gain more when rates fall.

  26. What is 'seasoning' in the context of a new security issuance?

    Seasoning refers to the minimum holding period (typically 30+ days) before restricted securities can be resold. It ensures limited secondary market availability initially.

  27. Define 'accrued interest' and who receives it at settlement.

    Accrued interest is the coupon interest earned since the last coupon payment date. The bond buyer pays accrued interest to the seller as part of the settlement price (added above the quoted 'clean' price).

  28. What is an 'at-the-money' (ATM) option and how does it differ from in/out-of-the-money?

    ATM: the strike price equals the stock's current price. ITM (in-the-money): has intrinsic value (calls above stock price, puts below). OTM (out-of-the-money): has only time value.

  29. Explain the role of the 'offering price' vs. the 'ask price' in secondary markets.

    The offering price (ask) is what sellers ask for a security. In primary offerings, the offering price is set by the underwriter; in secondary markets, it's determined by supply and demand.

  30. What is 'margin' and what is the minimum initial margin requirement?

    Margin is a loan from a broker allowing an investor to buy more securities than cash reserves permit. The minimum initial margin is set by the Federal Reserve (typically 50% for stocks).

  31. Define 'breakeven point' on a call and put option.

    Call breakeven = strike price + premium paid. Put breakeven = strike price − premium paid. At these prices, the option holder neither gains nor loses on an intrinsic basis.

  32. What is the 'ex-dividend date' and how does it affect option holders?

    The ex-date is the cutoff date to own stock and receive an upcoming dividend. On the ex-date, the stock price typically drops by the dividend amount. Option holders don't receive dividends unless exercised before the ex-date.

  33. Explain the difference between 'revenue bonds' and 'general obligation bonds'.

    Revenue bonds are backed by specific project revenues (e.g., tolls, utility fees). General obligation bonds are backed by the issuer's full taxing authority and creditworthiness — generally considered safer.

  34. What is a 'suitability' standard and how does it apply to recommendations?

    Suitability requires that recommendations be appropriate for a customer's financial situation, investment objectives, and risk tolerance. It is the minimum standard for recommending securities or strategies to clients.

Series 7 glossary

The General Securities Representative Exam (Series 7) is FINRA's qualification examination for individuals seeking to register as a General Securities Representative, who must pass both the SIE and the Series 7 to obtain that registration. It measures competence across four major job functions using 125 scored questions in 225 minutes, with 72% required to pass.

29 terms the Series 7 exam tests, defined in plain English.

Abusive Distribution Practice
A prohibited trading technique where broker-dealers or representatives misappropriate client funds or engage in excessive trading for the purpose of generating commissions rather than serving the client's investment objectives. The Series 7 specifically tests awareness of suitability and fair-dealing obligations.
Accredited Investor
An individual or entity that meets SEC income or net-worth thresholds and is therefore permitted to invest in certain private, unregistered securities offerings. The status reflects a presumed ability to bear greater financial risk.
Arbitration Clause
A provision in a customer agreement that requires disputes between the client and broker to be resolved through binding arbitration rather than litigation. Most brokerage agreements mandate arbitration, and representatives must disclose this before opening an account.
Away Trade
A transaction executed by a registered representative at a firm other than the one employing them, or directly with another party outside their firm. Away trades are prohibited unless the firm has explicitly authorized them in writing and maintains oversight.
Best Execution
A regulatory obligation requiring broker-dealers to execute customer orders in a manner that is most favorable to the client in terms of price, speed, and certainty of settlement. Failure to achieve best execution can result in fines and arbitration awards.
Blue Sky Laws
State-level securities regulations designed to protect investors from fraud by requiring registration and disclosure for offerings sold within that state. They operate alongside federal securities laws.
Breakeven Point (Options)
The stock price at which an option buyer recovers the premium paid (for a call: strike + premium; for a put: strike – premium). Understanding breakeven helps candidates evaluate risk and profit potential on the Series 7 options questions.
Call Option
A contract giving the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to purchase an underlying security at a set strike price before expiration. Buyers are bullish, expecting the price to rise above the strike.
Churning
Excessive, unnecessary trading by a representative in a customer's account motivated primarily by the desire to earn commissions. It violates fiduciary duty and suitability requirements, and is a common Series 7 violation scenario.
Common Stock
A security representing ownership (equity) in a corporation, giving the holder voting rights and a residual claim on assets and earnings after creditors and preferred shareholders are paid. Common stockholders are last in line during a liquidation but benefit most from a company's growth.
Conflict of Interest
A situation where a representative's personal financial interests (such as bonuses or incentives) may conflict with the client's best interests. The series 7 requires representatives to disclose and manage conflicts rather than ignore them.
Continuous Net Settlement
A clearinghouse mechanism that nets trades daily, reducing the amount of securities and cash that must physically move between parties. It is the standard settlement process for most securities traded in U.S. markets.
Diversification
An investment strategy of spreading money across different securities, sectors, or asset classes to reduce the impact of any single holding's poor performance. It lowers unsystematic (company-specific) risk but not systematic (market-wide) risk.
Dividend Reinvestment Plan (DRIP)
An arrangement where dividends paid by a company are automatically used to purchase additional shares (fractional or whole) rather than being paid out in cash to the shareholder. It is a way to compound returns and reduce transaction costs.
Ex-Dividend Date
The date on which an investor must own a stock to be entitled to receive the upcoming dividend payment—one business day before the record date. A buyer on or after the ex-dividend date does not receive the next dividend.
Federal Funds Rate
The interest rate at which banks lend reserve balances to each other overnight, set as a target range by the Federal Reserve. Changes in the Fed Funds Rate influence broader interest rates and market activity, making it foundational to macroeconomic questions.
Good Faith Estimate
A broker-dealer's written estimate of the costs and commissions associated with a securities transaction or loan, provided to the customer before execution or settlement. It must be accurate and transparent to comply with anti-fraud rules.
Hedge
A defensive investment or strategy used to offset or reduce the risk of an existing position. Common hedges include buying put options to protect against stock declines or using bonds to offset equity volatility.
Insolvency
A legal state in which an individual or entity cannot meet their debt obligations as they come due. In the context of a brokerage firm, insolvency can trigger SIPC protection for customer accounts.
Limit Order
An instruction to buy or sell a security at no worse than a specified price, but the order will only execute at that price or better. Unlike a market order, a limit order may never be filled if the specified price is not reached.
Markdown and Markup
Pricing adjustments used in over-the-counter (OTC) transactions. A markup is added to the market price when a broker sells from inventory; a markdown is subtracted when a broker buys from a customer. Fair markups and markdowns are typically 5% or less.
Municipal Bond
A debt security issued by a state, city, or local government to fund public projects, whose interest is generally exempt from federal income tax. The two main types are general obligation bonds (backed by taxing power) and revenue bonds (backed by project income).
Mutual Fund
An open-end investment company that pools money from many investors to buy a diversified portfolio of securities, with shares priced daily at net asset value (NAV). Investors buy and redeem shares directly from the fund rather than trading them on an exchange.
Passive Income (Taxable vs. Tax-Exempt)
Income earned from investments (dividends, interest, rental proceeds) as opposed to active earned income from wages. Series 7 candidates must distinguish between taxable interest (bonds, CDs) and tax-exempt interest (municipals) for portfolio suitability.
Preferred Stock
An equity security that pays a fixed dividend and has priority over common stock for dividend payments and asset distribution in a liquidation, but typically carries no voting rights. It behaves partly like a bond because of its fixed income stream.
Prospectus
A formal legal document filed with the SEC that discloses material facts about a securities offering, including the company's financials, risks, and use of proceeds. It must be delivered to investors in a new-issue (primary market) offering.
Put Option
A contract giving the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to sell an underlying security at a set strike price before expiration. Buyers are bearish, expecting the price to fall below the strike.
Restricted Security
A security that cannot be immediately traded in the open market because it carries resale limitations, typically imposed by the SEC on unregistered or privately-placed shares. Restricted securities are often subject to a holding period and Rule 144 conditions before resale.
Yield to Maturity (YTM)
The total annualized return an investor earns if a bond is held until it matures, accounting for the purchase price, coupon payments, and the difference between price and par value. It is the most comprehensive measure of a bond's yield.

Frequently asked questions

How does the Series 7 guide on this site organize FINRA's job functions?

The guide follows FINRA's four scored job functions in weight order: seeking business carries 9 questions (7%), opening accounts carries 11 (9%), providing investment information and recommendations carries 91 (73%), and processing transactions carries 14 (11%). Each section names the stem patterns tied to that function and links to the matching slice of our 200-question practice bank.

Why does the guide's two-week study plan spend so many days on one topic?

One job function, providing investment information, recommendations, asset transfers and records, holds 91 of the 125 scored questions, so the plan gives it most of the calendar and splits the remaining days across the other three functions. Every session pairs a category from our practice bank with the matching page of our cheat sheet.

What does a 72 passing score mean if FINRA equates every exam form?

FINRA sets the cut score at 72 out of the 125 scored items and adjusts scoring slightly by form so no version of the exam is easier to clear than another. That means your raw count of correct answers is never published and does not translate into a fixed number you must miss or answer correctly.

Do I need a sponsoring firm before I can use this guide, or only before the exam?

Only before the exam. Candidates must be associated with and sponsored by a FINRA or applicable SRO member firm to sit for the Series 7 itself, but nothing stops you from studying this guide and our practice bank first, then testing once a firm has hired and sponsored you.

Sources

  1. 1.Series 7 Content Outline, October 2025FINRA (accessed Sep 9, 2026)
  2. 2.Series 7 Exam OverviewFINRA (accessed Sep 9, 2026)

Official sources

Primary documents used to verify the exam details shown on this page.

Last verified against the FINRA content outline: