ServSafe Manager Practice Test

1. A food handler has been diagnosed with an illness caused by Norovirus. Which of the following is the required response?

• A. The handler must not work with food
• B. The handler may work if they avoid ready-to-eat items
• C. The handler may work after a single handwashing
• D. The handler may work if symptoms are mild

2. Which symptom, on its own, requires a food handler to be kept from working with food?

• A. A mild headache
• B. Seasonal sneezing without illness
• C. Muscle soreness
• D. Jaundice

3. A guest asks whether a dish is safe for a peanut allergy. Which grouping correctly reflects the major food allergens the staff should screen for?

• A. Milk, eggs, fish, shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, wheat, soy, and sesame
• B. Milk, eggs, corn, shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, wheat, soy, and sesame
• C. Milk, eggs, fish, shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, rice, soy, and mustard
• D. Milk, beef, fish, shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, wheat, soy, and sesame

4. After using the restroom, a cashier who also plates desserts skips the handwashing sink and applies hand sanitizer at the counter instead. Why is this insufficient for proper hygiene?

• A. Hand sanitizer counts as a wash only when it is rubbed in for at least 30 seconds and allowed to air dry before gloving
• B. Only staff who work behind the cook line must wash at a sink; front-of-house staff may use sanitizer at their station
• C. Handwashing after using the restroom is required only when the hands will next touch raw meat, poultry or seafood
• D. Handwashing must be done at a designated handwashing sink for at least 20 seconds with soap and warm running water

5. A line cook returns from the restroom and prepares to handle ready-to-eat salad greens. According to proper hygiene procedure, how long must the cook scrub during handwashing, and where?

• A. At least 20 seconds at a designated handwashing sink with soap and warm running water
• B. At least 10 seconds at the nearest three-compartment sink with soap and cold running water
• C. At least 20 seconds at the food-prep sink using an approved hand antiseptic instead of soap
• D. At least 5 seconds under running water of any temperature at a designated handwashing sink

6. Which combination correctly describes the minimum acceptable handwashing practice for a food handler?

• A. 30 seconds, food-prep sink, soap, warm standing water in a basin
• B. 20 seconds, designated handwashing sink, soap, warm running water
• C. 20 seconds, utility or mop sink, soap, cold running water
• D. 15 seconds, designated handwashing sink, hand sanitizer, warm water

7. A server tells a manager they have been vomiting since the morning shift. What is the correct action regarding their food-handling duties?

• A. They may continue as long as they wash hands every 30 minutes
• B. They may handle only packaged food until the shift ends
• C. They must not work with food while experiencing vomiting
• D. They may continue if they wear single-use gloves and a mask

8. Which set of practices is used to prevent cross-contamination in a food operation?

• A. Cooking all food to 165 degrees Fahrenheit, holding it above 135 degrees, and cooling it within six hours
• B. Using one color-coded cutting board for all tasks, wiping it with a dry cloth, and rinsing knives between uses
• C. Washing hands every 30 minutes, wearing the same gloves through a shift, and relying on cooking to kill pathogens
• D. Separating raw and ready-to-eat foods, using separate equipment, and cleaning and sanitizing surfaces

9. A prep cook has just cut raw chicken on a cutting board and now needs to slice lettuce for a salad. Which action best prevents cross-contamination?

• A. Use separate equipment for the lettuce and clean and sanitize the surface
• B. Slice the lettuce on the same board right away, since it will be served within four hours
• C. Rinse the board under cool running water for 30 seconds and reuse it immediately
• D. Wipe the board with a dry towel and flip it to the unused side before slicing

10. A bartender scoops ice into a glass with the designated scoop, then reaches into the garnish tray with bare fingers to drop in a lemon wedge and a sprig of mint. Which part of this sequence breaks the rule on ready-to-eat food?

• A. Both actions, since ice and cut garnishes present an identical hazard and neither one may be handled with a scoop or tongs that have been touched by the bartender's bare hands
• B. Neither action, because the bartender is working behind a service bar rather than in a food-preparation area of the kitchen, and garnishes are not treated as ready-to-eat food
• C. Adding the lemon wedge and mint by hand, because bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food is not permitted; tongs, deli tissue or single-use gloves must be used
• D. Only the use of the ice scoop, because ice must be dispensed by the machine directly into the glass without a scoop entering the bin, while garnishes may be placed by hand

11. A patron presents a driver's license that is clearly past its expiration date. Based on identification requirements, how should the server treat this ID?

• A. As acceptable, provided the photo still resembles the patron
• B. As unacceptable, because acceptable ID must be unexpired
• C. As acceptable, because a driver's license is always valid regardless of date
• D. As acceptable, because it is government-issued

12. Which of the following is an acceptable form of identification to verify a customer's age before serving alcohol?

• A. A photocopy of a birth certificate
• B. A student ID card from a university
• C. A credit card bearing the customer's name
• D. A valid, unexpired military ID

13. A server notices a patron speaking with slurred speech and struggling to keep their balance while walking to the bar. These observations are best described as:

• A. Signs of intoxication
• B. Symptoms that require food-handler exclusion
• C. Indicators that the patron's ID is fraudulent
• D. Evidence the patron's blood alcohol concentration has already returned to normal

14. Which behavior would NOT, on its own, be considered a sign of intoxication a server should watch for?

• A. Glassy or bloodshot eyes
• B. Lowered inhibitions or aggressive behavior
• C. Paying the bill with a credit card
• D. Impaired balance

15. A visibly intoxicated guest asks the server how they can sober up quickly before driving home. What is the most accurate response?

• A. Eating a large meal will lower their blood alcohol concentration
• B. Black coffee will lower their blood alcohol concentration
• C. Only the passage of time will lower their blood alcohol concentration
• D. Drinking several glasses of water will lower their blood alcohol concentration

16. An establishment continues serving drinks to a patron who is visibly intoxicated, and that patron later causes an injury. Under which type of law can the establishment be held legally liable?

• A. Exclusion laws
• B. Cooling-time laws
• C. Cross-contamination laws
• D. Dram shop laws

17. Which pair of circumstances can expose an establishment to liability under dram shop laws when a served patron later causes injury?

• A. The patron ordered food, or the patron used a rideshare
• B. The patron was a first-time guest, or the patron tipped poorly
• C. The patron paid in cash, or the patron sat at the bar
• D. The patron was visibly intoxicated, or the patron was a minor

18. A server offers a slightly impaired guest a plate of appetizers and a glass of water. What effect will this have on the guest's blood alcohol concentration?

• A. It will not lower the guest's blood alcohol concentration; only time can do that
• B. It will lower the guest's blood alcohol concentration within about 30 minutes
• C. It will raise the guest's blood alcohol concentration by holding alcohol in the stomach
• D. It will lower the concentration only if the food is high in protein and fat

19. A guest with glassy, bloodshot eyes and increasingly aggressive behavior insists on being served another drink and says a cup of coffee will "fix it." Which action reflects responsible alcohol service?

• A. Serve the drink because aggressive behavior alone is a personality trait rather than a recognized sign of intoxication
• B. Serve the drink because glassy or bloodshot eyes are a sign of intoxication only when the guest is also slurring words
• C. Recognize the signs of intoxication and understand that coffee will not lower the guest's blood alcohol concentration
• D. Serve the drink because a cup of black coffee will lower the guest's blood alcohol concentration within 30 minutes

20. A guest orders a beer and hands the server a passport as proof of age. Which characteristic is required for this passport to count as acceptable identification?

• A. It must be a government-issued photo ID that is unexpired
• B. It must have been issued within the last six months to count as current
• C. It must include the guest's current home address and a signature
• D. It must be issued by the same state or country as the establishment

21. A cook removes a large pot of beef stew from the stove at 135°F to begin cooling it. According to safe cooling practice, what is the maximum time allowed to bring the stew from 135°F down to 70°F?

• A. Six hours
• B. One hour
• C. Two hours
• D. Four hours

22. Which temperature range defines the danger zone, where pathogens grow most rapidly?

• A. 41°F to 165°F
• B. 70°F to 155°F
• C. 32°F to 100°F
• D. 41°F to 135°F

23. A tray of TCS food has spent time sitting out on a prep counter within the danger zone. What is the maximum total time it may remain in the danger zone before it must be discarded?

• A. Four hours
• B. Six hours
• C. Eight hours
• D. Two hours

24. A kitchen is preparing roasted chicken and a batch of ground-beef patties. Which cooking requirement is correct for these two items?

• A. Chicken to 155°F for 17 seconds; ground beef to 165°F for one second
• B. Chicken to 165°F for one second; ground beef to 155°F for 17 seconds
• C. Both to 165°F for one second
• D. Both to 155°F for 17 seconds

25. On a hot-holding line, at what minimum temperature must hot TCS food be held?

• A. 41°F or lower
• B. 70°F or higher
• C. 135°F or higher
• D. 165°F or higher

26. Following the two-stage cooling procedure correctly, what is the total maximum time allowed to cool cooked TCS food from 135°F all the way to 41°F?

• A. Eight hours
• B. Two hours
• C. Four hours
• D. Six hours

27. A cold-holding unit is checked during a routine line inspection. At what maximum temperature must the cold TCS food inside be held?

• A. 41°F or lower
• B. 32°F or lower
• C. 70°F or lower
• D. 55°F or lower

28. A chicken breast is being stuffed with a bread-and-herb filling. To what minimum internal temperature must this stuffed poultry item be cooked, and for how long?

• A. 155°F for 17 seconds
• B. 165°F for one second
• C. 70°F for two hours
• D. 135°F for four hours

29. A manager notices that the upper boundary of the temperature danger zone is the same value used as the minimum hot-holding temperature. What is that shared temperature?

• A. 41°F
• B. 70°F
• C. 135°F
• D. 165°F

30. A cook checks a batch of chili exactly two hours after it came off the heat and finds it sitting at 90 degrees Fahrenheit. What are the only acceptable ways to handle this batch?

• A. Keep cooling it, since the remaining four hours of the six-hour total are still available to bring it from 90 down to 41 degrees Fahrenheit
• B. Transfer it to the freezer at once, since freezing halts growth and the batch can then finish stage two within the four hours that remain
• C. Reheat it to 165 degrees Fahrenheit for less than one second (instantaneous) and begin the cooling process again from the start, or discard it
• D. Hold it at 90 degrees Fahrenheit on the line and reheat it to 165 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds immediately before service, then serve it

31. A kitchen keeps failing the first stage of the cooling process with large batches of stock left in the original stockpot. Which combination of changes will most directly fix the problem?

• A. Leave the stock in the original pots, cover them tightly to keep out contamination, and set them on the top shelf of the walk-in cooler overnight where the air is coldest
• B. Combine each hot batch with an equal quantity of already-chilled stock so that the two average out below 70 degrees Fahrenheit, then refrigerate the blended batch
• C. Move the pots to the coolest corner of the kitchen, stir them once an hour, and refrigerate them once they stop steaming so the walk-in temperature is not driven up
• D. Divide the stock into shallow pans, use an ice-water bath with stirring or an ice paddle, and leave containers loosely covered until chilled

32. A salad bar thermometer shows the chicken salad sitting at 46 degrees Fahrenheit an hour into lunch service. What does this reading require the manager to do?

• A. Nothing, because 46 degrees is within the acceptable range for a cold salad bar item
• B. Replace the ice bath or add ice until the chicken salad reads 41 degrees Fahrenheit or lower
• C. Move the chicken salad to hot holding at 135 degrees Fahrenheit until it can be recooled to 41 degrees
• D. Record the reading, recheck at the end of service, and discard the salad only if it has reached 70 degrees Fahrenheit

33. A pan of TCS soup sits out on a prep counter for three hours during breakfast prep, goes back into the cooler, and then comes back out for two more hours during lunch assembly. How much of its four-hour danger-zone allowance has it now used?

• A. Two hours, because only the most recent time out counts once it has been re-chilled
• B. Three hours, because the first stretch was the longest single exposure and the two-hour lunch interval falls under the limit
• C. Five hours, because all of its time above 41 degrees Fahrenheit adds together and it must now be discarded
• D. Zero hours, because returning it to the cooler in between resets the clock and the soup starts a fresh four-hour allowance

34. A five-gallon stockpot of hot soup needs to be cooled at the end of dinner service. Which first step gives the soup the best chance of meeting the two-stage cooling requirement?

• A. Leave the stockpot on a back shelf at room temperature to cool gradually for two hours before refrigerating it
• B. Divide the soup into shallow, smaller containers or use an ice-water bath or ice paddle before refrigerating
• C. Cover the stockpot tightly and place the whole pot directly into the walk-in cooler on the top shelf
• D. Place the whole covered pot into the walk-in freezer so it reaches 70 degrees Fahrenheit within the first two hours

35. A manager uses an infrared thermometer to sweep the surface of a whole roasted chicken coming out of the oven and gets a reading of 175 degrees Fahrenheit. Can this reading be used to confirm the chicken is fully cooked?

• A. Yes, since 175 degrees is well above the 165 degree poultry requirement and the surface of a roasted bird is always the last part to reach temperature in an oven
• B. No, because an infrared thermometer only measures surface temperature and cannot confirm that the innermost part of the chicken, near the bone, has reached temperature
• C. Yes, but only if the reading is taken from underneath the chicken instead of on top, since the underside of a roast is the coolest surface and reflects the interior
• D. No, because infrared thermometers are only accurate on liquids and packaged deliveries, never on solid food, and must be replaced by a thermocouple

36. A walk-in cooler's digital display shows 45 degrees Fahrenheit when a manager arrives in the morning, but there is no record of how long it has read that way overnight. What is the most defensible first step?

• A. Assume the unit only began drifting after the last employee left at close, because a compressor cycle limits any rise to one degree per hour, and use everything inside as normal
• B. Pull the cooler's temperature log and check TCS food with a calibrated thermometer to determine how long items have been above 41 degrees Fahrenheit before deciding what can be kept
• C. Discard every TCS item in the cooler immediately and every dry good in the building as well, because any reading above 41 degrees Fahrenheit with no log means the four-hour limit must be treated as passed
• D. Reset the thermostat and recheck the display in one hour, because a reading of 45 degrees Fahrenheit is within the plus or minus 3 degree tolerance the Food Code allows for a cooler's built-in air thermometer

37. A caterer cooks a tray of chicken thighs to 165 degrees Fahrenheit at 10:00 a.m., begins cooling it at 10:05 a.m., reaches 70 degrees Fahrenheit at 11:35 a.m., reaches 41 degrees Fahrenheit at 3:35 p.m., and then reheats it for hot holding at 5:00 p.m. Which statement correctly evaluates this timeline?

• A. Every step meets its requirement: stage one finished within two hours, stage two finished within the six-hour total, and reheating remains to be verified separately at 165 degrees Fahrenheit for less than one second (instantaneous) within two hours of starting
• B. Stage one failed, because 90 minutes passed between the start of cooling at 10:05 a.m. and reaching 70 degrees Fahrenheit at 11:35 a.m., and the first cooling stage allows only one hour to get from 135 degrees down to 70 degrees
• C. Stage two failed, because the four-hour second stage is counted from the start of cooling at 10:05 a.m. rather than from the 70 degree mark, so the 3:35 p.m. finish is 90 minutes past the 2:05 p.m. deadline
• D. The chicken never needed to be reheated at all, because it was fully cooked to 165 degrees at 10:00 a.m. and food that has completed both cooling stages correctly can be placed straight into a hot-holding unit at 135 degrees Fahrenheit or higher

38. A caterer runs both Time as a Public Health Control options during the same event: a hot chafing pan is pulled from holding at noon under the four-hour option, and a cold shrimp platter that started at 38 degrees Fahrenheit is pulled from the cooler at noon under the six-hour option. At 3:00 p.m., the shrimp platter reads 69 degrees Fahrenheit. What is the correct status of each item at that moment?

• A. Both items must be discarded at 3:00 p.m., because once any food held under Time as a Public Health Control passes three hours it has used its working allowance, and the last hour of each option is reserved as a safety margin
• B. The hot pan may remain out until 4:00 p.m. under its four-hour marked deadline, and the shrimp platter may continue under its six-hour deadline of 6:00 p.m. as long as it does not exceed 70 degrees Fahrenheit at any point
• C. The shrimp platter must be discarded now, because a reading of 69 degrees Fahrenheit is within the 2 degree Fahrenheit accuracy of the thermometer and the 70 degree ceiling must be treated as already reached
• D. The hot pan should be switched to the six-hour rule to match the shrimp platter, because items removed from temperature control at the same time must share one discard deadline on the written procedure, which here is 6:00 p.m.

39. Which of the following is identified as one of the three core methods for preventing cross-contamination in a food operation?

• A. Reheating ready-to-eat foods before service
• B. Cleaning and sanitizing surfaces
• C. Labeling every container with the supplier's name
• D. Freezing all incoming produce on delivery

40. During a shift, a food handler develops diarrhea. Beyond cleaning and sanitizing the station, what does exclusion guidance require for this worker?

• A. The worker must not work with food while experiencing that symptom
• B. The worker only needs to move to a different prep table
• C. The worker may continue as long as they wear gloves
• D. The worker may keep handling food after washing hands for 20 seconds

41. A kitchen mixes its chlorine solution to exactly the right strength, but staff spray a prep table and immediately wipe it dry with a paper towel so the next task can begin. Which of the five factors governing sanitizer effectiveness is being defeated?

• A. Concentration
• B. Contact time
• C. Water hardness
• D. The pH of the solution

42. A prep cook finishes cutting raw chicken on a cutting board and immediately wants to use the same board to slice fresh vegetables for a salad. According to the practices covered for preventing cross-contamination, what is the correct action before the board touches the ready-to-eat produce?

• A. Rinse the board under cold running water for at least 30 seconds and reuse it right away
• B. Clean and sanitize the board, or switch to separate equipment for the raw and ready-to-eat foods
• C. Wipe the board with a dry paper towel and flip it over to the unused side before slicing
• D. Let the board air-dry for at least 10 minutes, since pathogens cannot survive on a dry surface

43. A manager is training new staff on why surfaces must be cleaned AND sanitized (not just cleaned) between tasks. Which explanation is best supported by the food-safety practices covered?

• A. Cleaning with detergent at 110 degrees Fahrenheit makes a separate sanitizing step unnecessary
• B. Sanitizing is needed only on floors, walls and drains, never on food-contact surfaces
• C. Sanitizing surfaces is one of the recognized ways to prevent cross-contamination between foods
• D. Sanitizing is required only at closing, because cleaning alone removes pathogens between tasks

44. A line cook washes their hands correctly and then handles ready-to-eat food, but the prep table underneath was never sanitized after raw fish was portioned on it. Based on the covered prevention methods, what gap remains in the operation's practice?

• A. No gap remains, because correctly washed hands eliminate the need to sanitize any surface they touch
• B. The only remaining step is to extend the handwashing to 30 seconds before touching the ready-to-eat food
• C. The table needs to be sanitized only if the raw fish was left on it for more than four hours
• D. The food-contact surface still needs to be cleaned and sanitized to fully prevent cross-contamination

45. An operation plans to use one set of cutting boards and knives for raw poultry and a physically separate set for salad greens. Which prevention method does this practice represent?

• A. Cooling food from 135 to 70 degrees Fahrenheit within two hours
• B. Using separate equipment for raw and ready-to-eat foods
• C. Cooking poultry to 165 degrees Fahrenheit in its thickest part
• D. Holding hot food at 135 degrees Fahrenheit or higher

46. A trainee claims that as long as a food-contact surface is separated from raw foods, cleaning and sanitizing that surface is optional. How should this claim be evaluated against the covered practices?

• A. Correct — separation of raw and ready-to-eat foods alone removes any need to clean and sanitize the surface
• B. Incorrect — cleaning and sanitizing surfaces is itself a listed prevention method, not an optional add-on
• C. Correct — sanitizing applies only to utensils and equipment run through the dish machine, never to surfaces
• D. Incorrect — but only because handwashing for 20 seconds replaces the need to sanitize the surface

47. After portioning raw ground meat on a work surface, a cook wants to prepare a ready-to-eat sandwich on the same spot. Which single action most directly reduces the risk of transferring pathogens from the raw meat residue to the sandwich?

• A. Holding the finished sandwich at 41 degrees Fahrenheit or lower after assembly
• B. Extending the cook's handwashing to 30 seconds before building the sandwich
• C. Cooking the ground meat to 165 degrees Fahrenheit instead of 155 degrees
• D. Cleaning and sanitizing the work surface before using it for the sandwich

48. A food handler is diagnosed with Norovirus. Aside from cleaning and sanitizing the areas where they worked, what does the exclusion guidance direct regarding this person's food work?

• A. They may work with food after washing their hands for 20 seconds and putting on gloves
• B. They may work only with packaged or ready-to-eat foods until a doctor clears them
• C. They may keep working with food as long as they have been free of symptoms for 24 hours
• D. They must not work with food, because Norovirus is a diagnosis that triggers exclusion

49. A manager wants hoods, walk-in shelving and floor drains cleaned on a reliable cycle rather than whenever somebody happens to notice them. What must an effective master cleaning schedule specify?

• A. What must be cleaned, who is responsible for cleaning it, when it must be cleaned, and how it is to be cleaned
• B. The list of cleaning chemicals approved for use in the operation and the dilution rate for each of them
• C. The frequency at which each food-contact surface in the operation must be cleaned and then sanitized during service
• D. The order in which items pass through the three compartments of the manual warewashing sink and the air-drying rack

50. Two operations sanitize their prep surfaces with different chemicals, each mixed to the correct concentration and used at the correct water temperature. Which statement about the required contact time is accurate?

• A. Contact time applies only to heat sanitizing in a warewashing machine, where the 180 degree final rinse must last 10 seconds, not to chemical sanitizing on a work surface
• B. Contact time varies by chemical: chlorine requires the shortest of the three common sanitizers, while iodine and quats require longer
• C. Contact time is irrelevant so long as the concentration is correct, because a solution at 50 to 99 ppm or 200 ppm kills on contact and the surface may be wiped at once
• D. Every chemical sanitizer requires the same contact time of 30 seconds, regardless of which chemical the operation has chosen, because the Food Code sets one figure

51. A dish area uses a three-compartment sink to wash pots and pans by hand. Which sequence of steps is correct, and what is the minimum temperature for the detergent water?

• A. Scrape and pre-rinse, wash in detergent at least 75 degrees Fahrenheit, rinse in clean water, sanitize, then towel dry with a clean cloth
• B. Rinse in clean water, wash in detergent at least 180 degrees Fahrenheit, sanitize, then air dry on a drainboard
• C. Scrape and pre-rinse, wash in detergent at least 110 degrees Fahrenheit, rinse in clean water, sanitize, then air dry
• D. Scrape and pre-rinse, wash in detergent at least 110 degrees Fahrenheit, sanitize, rinse in clean water, then air dry

52. A server keeps one damp cloth tucked into an apron all shift and uses it both to wipe down dining tables and to wipe stray sauce off plate rims before running food. What is the correct practice for wiping cloths?

• A. One damp cloth per server per shift is acceptable, provided it is rinsed under running water of at least 100 degrees Fahrenheit once every hour and laundered at the end of the night
• B. Cloths may be carried in an apron pocket between uses, as long as every cloth is laundered at the end of the night and replaced every four hours
• C. Wiping cloths are prohibited outright on food-contact surfaces; only single-use paper towels dampened with sanitizer may be used there
• D. Cloths used on food-contact surfaces must sit in sanitizer at the correct concentration between uses, and separate cloths must serve nonfood-contact surfaces

53. A cook sprays sanitizer on a cutting board and wipes it dry with a paper towel almost immediately, worried about keeping the line moving. Why does this defeat the purpose of sanitizing?

• A. Sanitizer needs to stay wet on the surface for its full contact time to reduce pathogens to a safe level
• B. Paper towels contain bleaching agents that neutralize chlorine and quat sanitizers on contact
• C. Sanitizer must be applied at 68 degrees Fahrenheit or cooler, and wiping warms the surface
• D. Wiping the surface dry has no effect on the result, since sanitizer works instantly on contact

54. A manager tests a chlorine sanitizing bucket and confirms it reads within the correct 50 to 99 ppm range, then times a cook wiping down a prep table with a cloth from that bucket: the cloth touches the surface and is lifted away in about two seconds. What is the problem?

• A. The concentration is too low despite the strip result, because 50 to 99 ppm is the range for iodine, not chlorine
• B. Chlorine needs at least 7 seconds of contact time on the surface, and two seconds is not enough even at a correct concentration
• C. Chlorine sanitizer may only be applied by immersion in the third sink compartment, never with a cloth
• D. The bucket should have been retested with the strip after the wipe rather than before it

55. A supplier delivers a quaternary ammonium (quat) sanitizer, and a new employee assumes it should be mixed to the same 50 to 99 ppm used for the chlorine product it replaced. Why is this assumption a mistake?

• A. Quat sanitizer concentration is set by the manufacturer's label instructions, which can differ from chlorine's range, and must be verified with a test strip made for that product
• B. Quat sanitizer never needs to be tested with a strip, because it is sold pre-diluted and holds a stable 200 ppm as long as the water it is mixed with stays at 75 degrees Fahrenheit or warmer
• C. Quat sanitizer is always weaker than chlorine, so the employee should mix it at double the chlorine figure, 100 to 198 ppm, and confirm it with the same chlorine test strip used for the old product
• D. Quat sanitizer works only on nonporous food-contact surfaces such as glass and stainless steel, so the chlorine range is correct but the product cannot be used on cutting boards

56. A dish room lacks a working chemical dispenser, so the crew plans to sanitize by fully submerging washed utensils in a sink of hot water instead. What temperature must that water reach, and for how long?

• A. 165 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds, the figure used when reheating food for hot holding
• B. 171 degrees Fahrenheit or above, with the utensils fully immersed for at least 30 seconds
• C. 135 degrees Fahrenheit for at least four hours, matching the hot-holding minimum
• D. 212 degrees Fahrenheit for 10 seconds, matching the boiling-point calibration check

57. An inspector asks a manager for the operation's master cleaning schedule and the manager produces only a general statement that staff clean as needed at closing. What is missing from this approach?

• A. Nothing is missing, since the Food Code only requires food-contact surfaces to be cleaned and sanitized every four hours and leaves other cleaning to the manager
• B. A master cleaning schedule should specify what is cleaned, who cleans it, when it is cleaned, and how, so that no task depends on memory or is quietly skipped
• C. A master cleaning schedule only needs to list each chemical in the building with its dilution and contact time, because the who and the when are covered by the daily temperature log
• D. A master cleaning schedule is required only for operations that serve a highly susceptible population or run a HACCP plan, since those are the operations that must keep written records

58. A kitchen cooks a large batch of rice in the morning, holds it uncovered at room temperature until the dinner rush, and then stir-fries it to order. Guests report sudden vomiting one to five hours after eating. Which organism is most strongly associated with this pattern?

• A. Bacillus cereus
• B. Vibrio vulnificus
• C. Shigella species
• D. Campylobacter jejuni

59. A guest eating seared tuna develops flushing, a peppery or metallic taste in the mouth, headache and hives within minutes of the first bite. The kitchen confirms the tuna loin sat on a prep counter for several hours before it was portioned and cooked. What is the most likely cause?

• A. An allergic reaction to a protein naturally present in tuna
• B. Histamine formed by bacteria during time-temperature abuse of the fish
• C. Ciguatera toxin that accumulated in the fish before it was harvested
• D. Sanitizer residue left on the prep surface where the loin was portioned

60. A restaurant blends raw garlic into oil and keeps the jar on the cook line at room temperature so it is ready throughout the week. Which hazard does this create, and what control removes it?

• A. Bacillus cereus growth, controlled by discarding the mixture after four hours on the line and mixing a fresh batch
• B. Listeria growth, controlled by using commercially pasteurized garlic and heating the oil to 165 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Staphylococcus aureus growth, controlled by wearing single-use gloves while blending and keeping the jar covered on the line
• D. Clostridium botulinum growth, controlled by refrigerating the mixture and discarding it at the end of its date-marked life

61. A bartender stores a batch of freshly squeezed lemonade overnight in a galvanized tub, and a cook holds tomato sauce in an unlined copper pot. Why do both practices create a chemical hazard rather than a biological one?

• A. The metal reacts with residual chlorine sanitizer in the container to form a toxic compound
• B. Acidic foods can leach metals such as zinc and copper out of the container into the food
• C. Metal containers create the anaerobic conditions that Clostridium botulinum needs to produce toxin
• D. The metal neutralizes the acid, raising the pH so that pathogens can multiply to unsafe levels

62. A batch of fried rice made the previous day is reheated and served, and several guests develop vomiting within a few hours. The rice had been left out at room temperature for several hours after its original cooking before being refrigerated. Which organism is most consistent with this pattern?

• A. Bacillus cereus, which forms spores that survive cooking and can produce a toxin when cooked rice is held at room temperature
• B. Listeria monocytogenes, which grows at refrigeration temperatures in soft cheese and deli meat rather than in reheated rice
• C. E. coli O157:H7, which is carried by undercooked ground beef and causes bloody diarrhea rather than vomiting within hours
• D. Hepatitis A, which is spread by an infected handler and causes jaundice after an incubation period of two to seven weeks

63. A guest who has eaten scombroid fish like tuna becomes ill shortly after the meal with flushing, headache, and a burning sensation in the mouth, even though the fish was cooked to well above 145 degrees Fahrenheit. Why did proper cooking not prevent this illness?

• A. The illness is caused by histamine, a heat-stable toxin that forms when the fish is temperature-abused before cooking, and cooking does not destroy it
• B. The fish must not have actually reached 145 degrees Fahrenheit despite the reading, because a bimetallic stem inserted only to its tip averages the hot surface with the raw center
• C. Scombroid poisoning is caused by a live bacterium in the flesh of tuna that requires 165 degrees Fahrenheit to kill, the same as poultry, rather than the 145 degrees used for fish
• D. The illness must have come from a different ingredient in the dish, because a fish cooked past 145 degrees Fahrenheit cannot cause illness of any kind under the Food Code

64. An inspector cites an operation for inadequate lighting at the station where a cook operates a slicer. What lighting intensity is required in areas where employees work with food, utensils and equipment, and why is the requirement higher there than elsewhere?

• A. 10 foot-candles, the same as a walk-in cooler, because the equipment supplies its own task lighting
• B. 20 foot-candles, the same level required at handwashing and warewashing stations
• C. 50 foot-candles, so staff can see soil on surfaces and work safely with sharp equipment
• D. 100 foot-candles, matching the level required in dining rooms during service

65. The closing dish crew has been rinsing out the indoor garbage cans in the vegetable prep sink each night because it is the largest basin in the kitchen. What is wrong with this routine and where should the work be done?

• A. The cans do not require cleaning at all, as long as heavy-duty plastic liners are used and changed every night
• B. Garbage containers must be cleaned away from food, prep areas and clean equipment, in a designated area served by a utility sink
• C. Nothing is wrong, provided the vegetable prep sink is washed, rinsed and sanitized with a 50 to 99 ppm chlorine solution immediately after the cans are done each night
• D. The cans should be run through the high-temperature dish machine instead, since a 180 degree final rinse sanitizes more reliably than any manual scrubbing at a sink

66. An operation is considering four changes to its business. Which one most clearly requires it to obtain a variance from the regulatory authority and to submit a HACCP plan?

• A. Packaging fresh fish in reduced-oxygen packaging on site for retail sale
• B. Adding a house salad dressing made with commercially pasteurized eggs
• C. Extending hot-holding hours on the lunch buffet by one hour
• D. Installing a second high-temperature warewashing machine in the dish area

67. Which of the following is one of the five commonly cited risk factors that the FDA identifies as leading to foodborne illness in retail and foodservice operations?

• A. Using a menu that changes seasonally
• B. Poor personal hygiene among food handlers
• C. Purchasing food from a supplier located outside the state
• D. Operating a restaurant with more than one dining room

68. Three separate guests telephone within an hour to report illness after eating the same menu item yesterday evening. What should the manager do first?

• A. Discard all remaining product of that item immediately, clean and sanitize the station where it was prepared, record the complaints in the log and reopen as normal the following day
• B. Gather details from each caller, including exactly what was eaten and when symptoms began, segregate and label any suspect product so it is not thrown out, and contact the regulatory authority
• C. Wait for a fourth complaint before taking any action, since three reports arriving within an hour of each other could easily be a coincidence unrelated to the operation's food
• D. Interview the staff who worked that station during the shift in question and take no further action unless one of them admits to a mistake in cooking or holding temperatures

69. Active managerial control means designing the operation around the risk factors that actually cause illness. Which list correctly names the common risk factors identified as responsible for most foodborne illness?

• A. Practicing poor personal hygiene, providing too few handwashing sinks, storing chemicals near food, using unapproved suppliers, and thawing food at room temperature
• B. Purchasing food from unsafe sources, failing to cook food adequately, allergen cross-contact, pest infestation, and inadequate lighting in food-preparation areas
• C. Purchasing food from unsafe sources, failing to cook food adequately, holding food at incorrect temperatures, using contaminated equipment, and practicing poor personal hygiene
• D. Failing to date mark, failing to cool food correctly, failing to calibrate thermometers, failing to train staff, and failing to document procedures

70. An inspector arrives unannounced in the middle of lunch service and asks to see temperature logs and shellstock identification tags. How should the manager handle the visit?

• A. Hand over the records but decline to accompany the inspector, so as not to appear to influence the findings, and discuss any disagreements only in a written response
• B. Ask the inspector to come back after service, because an unannounced visit during a rush is not permitted and the operation is entitled to 24 hours' notice
• C. Cooperate and provide the records, but refuse to sign the report, since a signature amounts to agreeing with every finding and waives the right to appeal
• D. Cooperate, ask for identification, accompany the inspector throughout, take notes, provide the records requested, and sign the report at the end

71. A new manager is confused about which agency does what. Which statement correctly describes the respective roles of the FDA, the USDA, and state or local health departments?

• A. The FDA writes the Food Code as a recommendation, the USDA inspects meat, poultry and egg products, and state or local authorities adopt food regulations and inspect restaurants
• B. The FDA inspects restaurants directly through its regional offices, the USDA writes the Food Code, and state authorities license and certify individual food handlers and managers
• C. The USDA writes the Food Code and inspects retail food establishments, the FDA inspects meat and poultry plants, and the CDC sets the cooking temperatures the Code contains
• D. The CDC writes the Food Code and inspects restaurants after an outbreak, while the FDA and USDA regulate imported food and interstate shipments only, leaving domestic restaurants to local police powers

72. A cook forms fresh ground beef into patties and grills them to order. What minimum internal temperature and hold time must each patty reach before it can be served?

• A. 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds, the same as a whole steak
• B. 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds
• C. 165 degrees Fahrenheit for one second
• D. 135 degrees Fahrenheit, with no hold time required

73. A cook grills boneless chicken breasts for dinner service. What minimum internal temperature must the chicken reach before it can be served?

• A. 145 degrees Fahrenheit
• B. 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds
• C. 165 degrees Fahrenheit
• D. 135 degrees Fahrenheit

74. A cook needs to thaw a case of frozen boneless chicken breasts for service tomorrow and weighs four options. Which one is an acceptable thawing method?

• A. Leaving the case on a prep table overnight at room temperature, since the chicken will be cooked to 165 degrees
• B. Submerging the chicken in a sink of standing water held at 100 degrees Fahrenheit for no more than two hours
• C. Placing the chicken in the walk-in cooler, where the product stays at 41 degrees Fahrenheit or lower
• D. Setting the case beside the oven vent where the moving air is slightly warm, then cooking it within four hours

75. An operation thaws frozen fish fillets under running water in a designated prep sink. Which set of conditions makes this method acceptable?

• A. Water at 100 degrees Fahrenheit or higher to speed the thaw, with the sink drained and refilled every 30 minutes so particles do not accumulate, and the fish cooked within two hours
• B. Standing water at any temperature, provided the fillets go straight into the oven as soon as the last ice has gone from the center of the fish and never sit longer than four hours
• C. Water at 70 degrees Fahrenheit or lower in a sink that is filled once and then left undisturbed until the fillets have thawed through the center, with the water changed every hour
• D. Potable water at 70 degrees Fahrenheit or lower, flowing strongly enough to carry loose particles into the overflow, with the fish never above 41 degrees Fahrenheit longer than four hours

76. A cook uses a microwave oven to cook raw chicken pieces that will be plated and served immediately. Which requirements apply when TCS food is cooked in a microwave rather than a conventional oven?

• A. Cook to 165 degrees Fahrenheit, cover the food, rotate or stir it partway through, and let it stand at least two minutes after cooking
• B. Cook to 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds and serve it straight from the oven with no standing time, since chicken pieces are not whole poultry
• C. Cook to 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds, then hold at 135 degrees Fahrenheit until the order is called, stirring once during holding
• D. Cook to 165 degrees Fahrenheit uncovered, so that steam escapes and the heating stays even across the dish, then serve immediately

77. A restaurant wants to partially cook chicken during slow afternoon periods, chill it, and finish cooking it to order during the dinner rush. Which combination of controls makes this practice acceptable?

• A. It is never acceptable to interrupt the cooking of a TCS food, so the chicken must be cooked in one continuous step to 165 degrees Fahrenheit and then served or hot-held at 135 degrees Fahrenheit or higher until it is sold
• B. Written procedures approved by the regulatory authority, an initial heating step of no more than 60 minutes, immediate cooling, separate storage from ready-to-eat food, and final cooking to the required minimum internal temperature
• C. Par-cook the chicken to 145 degrees Fahrenheit, hold it at 135 degrees Fahrenheit through the afternoon, and finish it to 165 degrees Fahrenheit within four hours of the initial cook, with each pan labeled with its holding time
• D. Par-cook the chicken to any temperature, freeze the product immediately at 0 degrees Fahrenheit, thaw it in the cooler, and finish it to the required minimum internal temperature, with no written procedures needed because freezing halts growth

78. A menu offers steak tartare, a house Caesar dressing made with raw shell eggs, and hamburgers cooked to the temperature the guest requests. What must the operation provide, and what does that requirement not accomplish?

• A. A written waiver signed by each guest who orders one of these items, kept on file with the service records for that day and for 90 days afterward
• B. Nothing, because the guest is the one choosing the level of doneness and therefore accepts the risk that goes with it under the Food Code
• C. A consumer advisory containing both a disclosure and a reminder; it does not make these items acceptable to serve to a highly susceptible population
• D. A consumer advisory; once the advisory is printed on the menu, these items may be served on request to any guest in any setting, including a nursing home

79. A manager takes over foodservice at a nursing home and reviews a menu that includes a raw sprout salad, soft-poached eggs, fresh-squeezed unpasteurized orange juice and medium-rare roast beef. What menu change is required?

• A. No change is needed, provided every item reaches the standard minimum internal cooking temperature for its category
• B. Remove all raw produce from the menu, since every uncooked fruit and vegetable is prohibited for a highly susceptible population
• C. Post a consumer advisory with a disclosure and reminder and continue serving every current item as written
• D. Remove raw seed sprouts and any undercooked eggs, meat or seafood, and switch to pasteurized eggs and pasteurized juice

80. A kitchen roasts a whole beef top round and a sheet tray of bone-in pork chops in the same convection oven. Which minimum internal cooking requirement applies to each item?

• A. The roast to 145 degrees Fahrenheit for four minutes and the chops to 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds
• B. Both to 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds, since both are whole-muscle cuts of beef and pork with no injected marinade or tenderizer
• C. Both to 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds, since bone-in cuts are treated like ground meat
• D. The roast to 165 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds and the chops to 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds

81. During service a cook nests a container of hot soup in an ice bath to cool it, then scoops ice out of that same bath to fill a pitcher of iced tea for the dining room. What is the problem with this?

• A. The only issue is the resulting temperature of the tea, not the source of the ice, since ice cannot carry pathogens
• B. Ice used to cool food or food containers must never afterward be used as an ingredient
• C. There is no problem, provided the outside of the soup container was cleaned and sanitized first
• D. The ice should have been rinsed with potable water at 70 degrees or lower before it went into the pitcher

82. A prep cook scrubs whole cantaloupes under running water, cuts them into cubes, and leaves the full pan of cubes uncovered on the prep table for the afternoon. Which statement about this sequence is correct?

• A. Cut melon is a TCS food that must be held at 41 degrees Fahrenheit or lower, and washing the rind mattered because the knife carries surface contamination into the flesh
• B. Cut melon is not a TCS food, so leaving the pan at room temperature is acceptable for the afternoon, and washing the rind was the step that mattered most
• C. Washing the rind was unnecessary because the rind is discarded, and the cubes may be held at room temperature until service as long as they are covered
• D. The cubes require refrigeration only after four hours out of the cooler, and washing the rind matters only for melon that is served with the rind still attached

83. A caterer must move hot pans of lasagna and cold trays of shrimp cocktail 45 minutes by van to an outdoor event site. Which practice is required for this off-site service?

• A. Transport at any temperature, provided the food is served within four hours of leaving the kitchen, the pans stay covered in transit and each pan is labeled with the time it left the kitchen
• B. Transport in insulated containers holding 135 degrees Fahrenheit or higher and 41 degrees Fahrenheit or lower, label each container with holding instructions, and confirm the site has safe water
• C. Pack the hot and cold items into one insulated carrier so their temperatures average out during the drive, check them on arrival at the site and reheat anything below 135 degrees Fahrenheit
• D. Let every item come to room temperature before loading, so that it heats and chills evenly once the equipment is set up on site, and serve everything within four hours of leaving the kitchen

84. A breakfast operation cooks scrambled eggs two ways: one batch is plated to order and handed straight to the guest, and a second batch goes onto the steam table for a buffet. Which cooking requirement applies to each batch?

• A. Both batches to 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds, since the steam table's 135 degree hot-holding minimum, not a higher cooking standard, governs the eggs once they are cooked
• B. Both batches to 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds, since shell eggs are treated like ground meat wherever they are served
• C. Eggs for immediate service to 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds; eggs that will be hot-held to 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds
• D. Eggs for immediate service to 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds; eggs that will be hot-held to 165 degrees Fahrenheit

85. A pizzeria wants to keep pans of sliced pepperoni and shredded cheese on the make line without refrigeration during the lunch rush. Both products come out of a cooler at 41 degrees Fahrenheit. What must be in place for this to be permitted, and what happens to whatever is left over?

• A. Each pan may stay on the line all day if the product is stirred every hour to keep the temperature even, then must be returned to the cooler at 41 degrees Fahrenheit at the end of service
• B. Each pan must be labeled with the time it left the cooler and held no longer than eight hours, then thrown out at the end of that window
• C. Leftover product may be returned to the cooler and used the next day, provided it still reads below 70 degrees Fahrenheit when it goes back in
• D. Each pan must be labeled with the time it must be discarded, held no longer than six hours and never above 70 degrees Fahrenheit, then thrown out

86. A cook uses a microwave to cook raw chicken pieces for a quick lunch special. Besides reaching 165 degrees Fahrenheit, what additional steps does microwave cooking of raw animal food require?

• A. The food must be covered, rotated or stirred during cooking, and then allowed to stand covered for two minutes after cooking
• B. No additional steps are required beyond reaching 165 degrees at one point, because microwaves heat food from the inside out
• C. The food must be left uncovered so steam can escape and a thermometer can be inserted, then stand uncovered for 15 seconds
• D. The food may be cooked to 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds instead of 165, because a microwave cooks raw animal food faster than an oven

87. A cook is preparing a bone-in prime rib roast for a banquet using a conventional oven set well above 250 degrees Fahrenheit. What minimum internal temperature and hold time apply to this roast, and why is it different from a steak cut from the same animal?

• A. 165 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds, the same as poultry, because a bone-in roast cooked above 250 degrees develops the same surface-to-center temperature gap as a whole bird and carries the same risk
• B. 145 degrees Fahrenheit held for four minutes, because the longer holding time at a slightly lower temperature still destroys the same pathogens over a longer oven cooking process
• C. 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds, identical to a steak, because a roast and a steak come from the same muscle and the Food Code sets minimum temperatures by species rather than by the size of the cut
• D. 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds, the same as ground beef, because a bone-in roast is handled and trimmed on the same surfaces as ground product and must be cooked to the higher standard

88. A cook makes fresh ravioli stuffed with a mixture of raw Italian sausage and ricotta cheese. What minimum internal temperature must the finished ravioli reach?

• A. 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds, because the pasta shell is not a TCS food and the ricotta is already pasteurized
• B. 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds, matching the ground sausage inside, since the filling sets the standard
• C. 165 degrees Fahrenheit, because stuffed pasta containing raw meat must be cooked to the poultry-and-stuffed-item standard
• D. 135 degrees Fahrenheit, because the ravioli goes straight from the boiling water to the guest with no hot holding

89. A cook needs to thaw a bag of frozen shrimp quickly under running water instead of in the refrigerator. What conditions make this method acceptable?

• A. The water must be at least 100 degrees Fahrenheit so the shrimp thaws quickly enough to stay under two hours, because the danger-zone clock for thawing runs from the moment the bag leaves the freezer
• B. The water must run at 70 degrees Fahrenheit or below, moving fast enough to flush away loose particles, and the shrimp cannot stay above 41 degrees Fahrenheit for more than four cumulative hours
• C. The water may be any temperature and may stand in a filled sink as long as the shrimp is cooked immediately afterward, because immediate cooking is what makes the microwave method acceptable too
• D. Running-water thawing is acceptable only for seafood and only if the water is at least 41 degrees Fahrenheit and the shrimp is cooked within two hours of being placed in the sink

90. A bartender scoops ice from the ice bin using a glass that had just held a drink, planning to rinse the glass before the next use. What is wrong with this practice?

• A. Nothing, because ice held at 32 degrees Fahrenheit or below cannot support bacterial growth the way a liquid drink can, and a glass that will be rinsed and washed before its next use poses no risk to the rest of the bin
• B. A glass used for drinking should never be used to scoop ice, since it could chip into the ice or introduce contamination from the glass's rim; a dedicated scoop stored outside the bin should be used instead
• C. The only problem is that the glass should have been run through the dish machine before scooping rather than after, because a sanitized glass is an approved ice-dispensing utensil under the Food Code
• D. Ice scoops are required only in kitchens, because bar ice is dispensed for drinks rather than for food, and the bartender may use any clean glass as long as the ice bin lid is closed between uses

91. A supplier makes an overnight key drop delivery while the restaurant is closed, letting itself in and placing product directly into the walk-in cooler. When the manager arrives in the morning, what must be verified before this delivery can be accepted?

• A. Nothing may be accepted, because a delivery made while no employee of the operation is present can never satisfy the receiving requirements of the Food Code
• B. Only that the product temperatures are correct, since an approved supplier working under contract is responsible for everything before the drop
• C. That the food came from an approved supplier, was placed in the correct storage area, was protected from contamination, and shows no sign of tampering
• D. Only that the invoice matches the purchase order and that the delivery log was signed, since the paperwork is what an inspector asks to see

92. While checking in a case of canned tomatoes, a receiving clerk finds one can with a swollen end and one with a deep dent running along the side seam. What should the clerk do with these two cans?

• A. Accept both but label them for use within 24 hours, since the contents will be heated to 165 degrees
• B. Accept both, because the contents were commercially processed at 250 degrees Fahrenheit and remain sterile
• C. Accept the swollen can and reject only the dented one, since a dent on the seam breaks the hermetic seal
• D. Reject both, because swelling and seam damage each indicate the hermetic seal may be compromised

93. An inspector asks a manager to produce the identification tags for a lot of live oysters that the kitchen finished serving and discarded last week. How long must the operation keep those tags, and from what date is the clock counted?

• A. 30 days from the date the container was received at the operation
• B. 7 days from the date the container was first opened for service
• C. 90 days from the date the last shellfish was used from that container
• D. Only until the next routine inspection by the regulatory authority has been completed

94. A walk-in cooler has four shelves and must hold ready-to-eat pasta salad, raw salmon fillets, raw ground beef and whole raw chicken. Which top-to-bottom arrangement is correct, and what principle determines the order?

• A. Raw salmon, pasta salad, whole chicken, raw ground beef, ordered by the delivery date of each item, oldest on top
• B. Pasta salad, raw ground beef, raw salmon, whole chicken, ordered by how quickly each item spoils
• C. Whole chicken, raw ground beef, raw salmon, pasta salad, ordered by the weight of each package
• D. Pasta salad, raw salmon, raw ground beef, whole chicken, ordered by minimum internal cooking temperature

95. A manager walks through the dry storage room and finds sacks of flour and cases of canned goods stacked directly on the floor along the back wall. What clearance is required beneath stored food and what is the main reason for the rule?

• A. Six inches, so that the floor can be cleaned and pests have nowhere to shelter
• B. Twelve inches, so that air can circulate freely around the product and keep it dry
• C. No clearance is required as long as the floor is sealed, cleanable and mopped nightly
• D. Two inches, so that spills can be mopped up quickly without moving the product

96. A cook pours sanitizer solution into an unlabeled clear squeeze bottle identical to the one used for cooking oil, and transfers bulk salt from its original sack into an unmarked deli container. Which statement evaluates both actions correctly?

• A. Only the sanitizer is a violation, since salt is not a hazardous ingredient and any cook can identify it by sight or taste before it goes into a recipe
• B. Both are violations: chemical working containers and food removed from its original package must be labeled with the common name of the contents
• C. Neither is a violation, provided the same cook uses both containers during a single shift and both are emptied and washed at closing
• D. Only the salt is a violation, since chemical working containers used up within one shift are exempt from the labeling requirement

97. A manager needs additional dry storage and considers three candidate locations: the space under an open stairwell, a room crossed by an exposed water line that drips occasionally, and a lockable room whose door opens onto the corridor beside the restrooms. Which assessment is correct?

• A. All three are acceptable as long as the food is kept in sealed containers at least six inches off the floor
• B. Only the stairwell is unacceptable, because of the dust and foot traffic passing overhead; the dripping line is fine if food is covered
• C. The stairwell and the room with the dripping line are unacceptable; the lockable room off the corridor may be used
• D. All three are unacceptable, because dry food may only be stored inside the kitchen itself or in a room with no plumbing

98. A regular guest offers to sell the restaurant jars of home-canned pickled vegetables, and a neighbor offers eggs from an uninspected backyard flock at half the wholesale price. How should the manager respond to these two offers?

• A. Accept both, because neither pickled vegetables nor shell eggs is a time and temperature control for safety food requiring an inspected source
• B. Accept the pickles only, because the vinegar makes them shelf stable, while the eggs must come from a USDA-inspected flock
• C. Accept both if the manager personally inspects the guest's kitchen and the neighbor's farm and keeps notes of the visit on file
• D. Decline both, because food must be purchased from approved, reputable suppliers inspected under an applicable regulatory program

99. A case of fresh whole fish arrives on ice. Which single observation gives the receiving clerk the strongest grounds to reject the case?

• A. Dull, sunken eyes and flesh that holds an indentation when pressed
• B. Bright red gills and shiny, tightly attached scales on both sides
• C. Flesh that springs back immediately when pressed firmly with a fingertip
• D. A mild, faintly briny smell close to the gills and belly cavity

100. A cooler holds three identical pans of the same sauce, bearing discard dates of the 12th, the 9th and the 14th. A cook takes the pan closest to the door, which is the one dated the 14th. What is wrong with this and what rule corrects it?

• A. Nothing is wrong, because any pan still within its discard date may be used and the pan nearest the door is the freshest
• B. Product with the earliest discard date must be used first, so shelving should be arranged to bring that pan forward
• C. The newest product should be used first so it does not sit in the cooler past four days and lose quality
• D. The three pans should be combined into a single pan and given a fresh seven-day discard date from today