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QUESTION 1 / 38HardwareEasy
A technician needs to install RAM into a modern desktop that uses dual-channel memory. To enable dual-channel operation with two identical modules, how should the modules be installed?
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Pass rate
Reported by CompTIA
90
Scored questions
1h 30m time limit
Core 1 (220-1201): 675 on a scale of 900; Core 2 (220-1202): 700 on a scale of 900
Passing score
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Frequently asked questions

Do I have to pass two exams to earn CompTIA A+, and can I take them in either order?

Yes. CompTIA A+ certification requires passing two separate exams: Core 1 (220-1201) and Core 2 (220-1202). Candidates may take the two A+ exams in any order. Because Core 1 focuses on hardware and networking while Core 2 focuses on operating systems and security, many candidates schedule them close together but sequence them around whichever domain set they feel more prepared for first.

What score do I need to pass each A+ exam, and are the passing marks the same for both?

No, the two cutoffs differ. The passing score for A+ Core 1 is 675 on a scale of 900, while the passing score for A+ Core 2 is 700 on a scale of 900. Because both exams are scored out of 900, Core 2 requires a slightly higher raw performance to pass, so don't assume a comfortable Core 1 result guarantees the same margin on Core 2.

How many questions are on each A+ exam and how long do I get?

Each A+ exam contains a maximum of 90 questions and allows 90 minutes per exam. That works out to roughly one minute per question if the exam is at its maximum length, so budget your time on performance-based items and flag longer questions to revisit rather than stalling on them.

Once I earn A+, how long is it valid and do I have to retake the exams to keep it?

CompTIA A+ certification is valid for three years from the certification date, and the Continuing Education renewal cycle is three years from the date the certification is earned. You do not have to sit the exams again: A+ may be renewed by earning Continuing Education Units (CEUs) without retaking the exam. Plan to accumulate CEUs across the three-year window rather than scrambling near expiration.

Browse all questions & answers

  1. 1. A technician needs to install RAM into a modern desktop that uses dual-channel memory. To enable dual-channel operation with two identical modules, how should the modules be installed?

    • A. Both modules placed in adjacent slots regardless of color
    • B. In the matched (usually same-colored) slots specified by the motherboard manual
    • C. One module per channel is impossible; dual-channel requires four modules
    • D. Both modules in the two slots farthest from the CPU socket
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Dual-channel requires a matched pair populated in the correct paired slots, which motherboards typically color-code and document in the manual, so B is correct. Adjacent slots (A) are often the SAME channel and give only single-channel. Dual-channel works with two modules, not four (C). A fixed 'farthest from CPU' rule (D) is not universal and ignores the board's specific pairing.

  2. 2. A user reports that their laptop runs fine on AC power but the battery drains within minutes and the reported charge percentage jumps erratically. Which component is the most likely cause?

    • A. A failing/degraded battery that can no longer hold an accurate charge
    • B. A corrupted GPU driver
    • C. A failing Wi-Fi antenna
    • D. An overheating CPU
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Rapid drain plus erratic percentage readings are classic symptoms of a worn lithium-ion battery whose cells and fuel-gauge calibration have degraded, so A is correct. A GPU driver (B) affects display, not charge behavior. A Wi-Fi antenna (C) affects connectivity. An overheating CPU (D) causes throttling/shutdowns, not erratic charge reporting.

  3. 3. A workstation on a /24 subnet has IP 192.168.1.50 with mask 255.255.255.0. Which of the following addresses is on the SAME local subnet and reachable without a router?

    • A. 192.168.2.50
    • B. 192.168.1.200
    • C. 10.0.1.50
    • D. 192.168.0.50
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    With mask 255.255.255.0 the network is 192.168.1.0/24, so only hosts whose first three octets are 192.168.1.x share the subnet — 192.168.1.200 (B) qualifies. 192.168.2.50 (A) and 192.168.0.50 (D) differ in the third octet, and 10.0.1.50 (C) is an entirely different network; all three require a router.

  4. 4. A remote user cannot reach an internal web server by its hostname, but pinging the server's IP address succeeds. Which service should the technician troubleshoot first?

    • A. DHCP
    • B. DNS
    • C. NAT
    • D. SMTP
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The IP works but the name does not, so name-to-address resolution is failing — that is DNS (B). DHCP (A) assigns addresses and here the host already has connectivity. NAT (C) translates addresses for internet traffic, not name resolution. SMTP (D) is for email delivery and is unrelated.

  5. 5. Which port and protocol pairing is correct for secure, encrypted remote command-line administration of a Linux server?

    • A. Telnet over TCP 23
    • B. SSH over TCP 22
    • C. RDP over TCP 3389
    • D. HTTPS over TCP 443
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    SSH (Secure Shell) on TCP 22 provides encrypted command-line access, so B is correct. Telnet on 23 (A) is command-line but unencrypted. RDP on 3389 (C) is a graphical remote desktop protocol, typically for Windows. HTTPS on 443 (D) secures web traffic, not shell sessions.

  6. 6. A small office wants wireless clients to authenticate against a central RADIUS server rather than sharing a single passphrase. Which Wi-Fi security mode should be configured?

    • A. WPA2-Personal (PSK)
    • B. WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise
    • C. WEP
    • D. Open with MAC filtering
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Enterprise mode uses 802.1X with a RADIUS server so each user authenticates with individual credentials, making B correct. Personal/PSK (A) uses one shared passphrase. WEP (C) is obsolete and easily cracked. Open with MAC filtering (D) provides no real authentication and MACs are easily spoofed.

  7. 7. A company wants to run several isolated server operating systems directly on a single bare-metal host with no underlying host OS, for maximum performance and density. Which technology fits best?

    • A. A Type 2 (hosted) hypervisor
    • B. A Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor
    • C. Application containers on a desktop OS
    • D. A dual-boot configuration
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on hardware without a host OS, offering the best performance for multiple production VMs, so B is correct. A Type 2 hypervisor (A) runs atop an existing OS, adding overhead. Containers (C) share one kernel and are not full isolated OSes. Dual-boot (D) runs only one OS at a time.

  8. 8. A customer wants a cloud model where they can rapidly scale storage and compute up during busy periods and pay only for what they consume. Which cloud characteristic does this describe?

    • A. Resource pooling
    • B. Rapid elasticity with measured (metered) service
    • C. High availability
    • D. Data sovereignty
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Scaling on demand and paying per use combine rapid elasticity and measured service, so B is correct. Resource pooling (A) describes shared multi-tenant infrastructure, not the pay-per-use scaling itself. High availability (C) is about uptime/redundancy. Data sovereignty (D) concerns where data is legally stored.

  9. 9. A desktop powers on, fans spin, but there is no video output and the system emits a repeating beep code. What is the most appropriate FIRST step consistent with the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

    • A. Immediately replace the motherboard
    • B. Identify the problem by consulting the beep-code reference and checking recent changes
    • C. Reinstall the operating system
    • D. Document the outcome and close the ticket
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The methodology begins with identifying the problem, which here means interpreting the beep code and asking what changed, so B is correct. Replacing the board (A) skips theory/testing and may be wrong. Reinstalling the OS (C) is pointless with no POST/video. Documenting and closing (D) is the final step, not the first.

  10. 10. Several users on one floor intermittently lose network connectivity while users on other floors are unaffected. All affected users connect through the same switch. Following the methodology, what is the best next action after identifying the pattern?

    • A. Replace every user's network cable simultaneously
    • B. Establish a theory of probable cause, such as a failing switch or its uplink
    • C. Rebuild all affected computers from a backup image
    • D. Escalate to the vendor before doing any analysis
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    After identifying that the common factor is one switch, the next methodology step is establishing a theory of probable cause (B). Mass cable replacement (A) is scattershot and ignores the shared-switch clue. Rebuilding PCs (C) is unrelated to a shared network device. Escalating first (D) skips your own analysis.

  11. 11. A newly built PC displays 'No bootable device' after passing POST. The technician confirms the SATA SSD spins up and is detected in firmware. Which is the MOST likely cause?

    • A. The boot order lists a device without an OS ahead of the SSD, or the SSD has no OS installed
    • B. The power supply wattage is too low
    • C. The RAM is running in single-channel mode
    • D. The CPU is not compatible with the chipset
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    POST passing and the drive being detected point to a boot-configuration issue: either an empty/incorrect boot order or a drive without an OS, so A is correct. Low PSU wattage (B) or CPU incompatibility (D) would prevent POST. Single-channel RAM (C) affects performance, not boot device detection.

  12. 12. A laser printer produces pages with a repeating faint ghost image of previous content appearing at regular intervals down the page. Which component is the most likely cause?

    • A. The imaging drum failing to fully discharge/clean between rotations
    • B. A clogged inkjet nozzle
    • C. A misaligned print head
    • D. Low toner only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Repeating ghost images at a fixed interval correspond to the drum's circumference; a worn or improperly cleaned imaging drum retains residual charge/toner, so A is correct. Inkjet nozzles (B) and print heads (C) belong to inkjet printers, not laser. Simply low toner (D) causes faded, not ghosted, output.

  13. 13. A technician suspects a failing hard drive causing slow reads and occasional read errors on a Windows PC. Which built-in tool most directly checks and repairs file-system and bad-sector issues on the volume?

    • A. sfc /scannow
    • B. chkdsk /r
    • C. ipconfig /all
    • D. diskpart clean
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    chkdsk /r scans for and attempts to recover data from bad sectors and fixes file-system errors, making B correct. sfc /scannow (A) repairs protected OS files, not disk sectors. ipconfig (C) is a networking tool. diskpart clean (D) erases the disk's partition data — destructive, not diagnostic.

  14. 14. A monitor connected by HDMI shows an image that flickers and occasionally drops to a black screen, but a second known-good cable resolves it. Which troubleshooting step did this action represent?

    • A. Establishing a plan of action
    • B. Testing the theory to determine the cause
    • C. Documenting findings
    • D. Verifying full system functionality
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Swapping in a known-good cable to confirm the suspected faulty cable is testing the theory (B). Establishing a plan of action (A) comes after the theory is confirmed. Documentation (C) is the final step. Verifying full functionality (D) happens after the fix is applied and confirmed working.

  15. 15. A technician wants to power a device such as a wireless access point using the same cable that carries its network data, avoiding a separate electrical outlet. Which technology enables this?

    • A. USB-C Power Delivery
    • B. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
    • C. Wake-on-LAN
    • D. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    PoE delivers electrical power and data over a single Ethernet cable, ideal for APs and IP cameras, so B is correct. USB-C PD (A) powers over USB, not Ethernet. Wake-on-LAN (C) remotely powers on a PC but does not supply operating power. A UPS (D) provides battery backup, not power over the network cable.

  16. 16. A user's smartphone gets very hot, drains quickly, and uses far more data than usual, even when idle. Which is the most likely explanation a technician should investigate first?

    • A. A rogue or malicious app running in the background
    • B. The screen brightness set too high
    • C. A cracked screen protector
    • D. Bluetooth being enabled
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Simultaneous overheating, fast battery drain, and unexpected background data are hallmark signs of a malicious or misbehaving app, so A is correct. High brightness (B) drains battery but does not spike data usage. A screen protector (C) is cosmetic. Bluetooth alone (D) uses minimal power and no cellular data.

  17. 17. A technician is asked to connect a laptop to an external 4K display and also charge the laptop through a single cable on a modern ultrabook. Which port supports video output, data, and power delivery simultaneously?

    • A. USB-C with DisplayPort Alt Mode and Power Delivery
    • B. RJ45
    • C. Legacy VGA
    • D. 3.5mm TRS
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    USB-C supporting DisplayPort Alt Mode plus Power Delivery carries video, data, and charging over one connector, so A is correct. RJ45 (B) is Ethernet only. VGA (C) is analog video only and cannot carry power or data. A 3.5mm TRS jack (D) is for audio.

  18. 18. When configuring corporate email on employee mobile devices, the IT team wants the ability to remotely wipe only company data if a device is lost. Which approach best meets this requirement?

    • A. Enrolling devices in a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution with containerization
    • B. Emailing each user the company password policy
    • C. Disabling Wi-Fi on all devices
    • D. Requiring users to back up to a personal cloud account
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    MDM with a managed container lets IT enforce policy and selectively wipe corporate data without touching personal data, so A is correct. Emailing a policy (B) enforces nothing technically. Disabling Wi-Fi (C) harms usability and doesn't protect lost-device data. Personal cloud backups (D) increase, not reduce, corporate-data exposure.

  19. 19. A technician must choose a Windows file system for a 64 GB USB flash drive that will be used to transfer large 8 GB video files between Windows and macOS computers. Which file system is the best fit?

    • A. FAT32
    • B. exFAT
    • C. NTFS
    • D. ext4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    exFAT supports files larger than 4 GB and is read/write compatible with both Windows and macOS, so B is correct. FAT32 (A) caps single files at 4 GB, blocking the 8 GB videos. NTFS (C) is natively read-only on macOS. ext4 (D) is a Linux file system not natively supported by Windows or macOS.

  20. 20. A Windows administrator needs to apply a security setting to every computer in a domain automatically, without visiting each machine. Which tool is designed for this?

    • A. Group Policy (via Active Directory)
    • B. Task Manager
    • C. Device Manager
    • D. Disk Management
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Group Policy centrally pushes configuration and security settings to domain-joined computers and users, so A is correct. Task Manager (B) monitors and ends local processes. Device Manager (C) manages hardware drivers on one machine. Disk Management (D) handles local partitions and volumes.

  21. 21. A technician needs to view real-time CPU, memory, disk, and network utilization and identify which process is consuming the most memory on a Windows 11 PC. Which utility is the most direct choice?

    • A. Task Manager
    • B. Registry Editor
    • C. System Restore
    • D. msconfig Boot tab
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Task Manager shows live resource utilization per process, letting you spot the top memory consumer, so A is correct. Registry Editor (B) edits configuration keys, not live performance. System Restore (C) rolls back system state. The msconfig Boot tab (D) controls startup options, not real-time monitoring.

  22. 22. A user with a standard (non-administrator) account needs to install a printer driver that requires elevated privileges. What is the correct, secure way to complete this task?

    • A. Permanently add the user to the local Administrators group
    • B. Use 'Run as administrator' and supply valid administrator credentials via UAC
    • C. Disable User Account Control (UAC) entirely
    • D. Boot into Safe Mode to bypass permissions
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Elevating just the install task with admin credentials through UAC follows least privilege, so B is correct. Permanently granting admin rights (A) over-privileges the user. Disabling UAC (C) removes a key security control. Safe Mode (D) does not grant a standard user administrative rights and is not the intended mechanism.

  23. 23. A technician needs to remotely connect to a Windows workstation's full graphical desktop to assist a user. Which built-in Windows feature is intended for this?

    • A. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
    • B. SSH
    • C. FTP
    • D. SNMP
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    RDP provides a full graphical remote-desktop session to Windows, so A is correct. SSH (B) gives an encrypted command line, not a Windows GUI by default. FTP (C) transfers files. SNMP (D) monitors and manages network device metrics, not interactive desktops.

  24. 24. A macOS user needs a utility to schedule automatic backups to an external drive so they can restore previous file versions. Which native tool should they use?

    • A. Time Machine
    • B. Disk Utility
    • C. Keychain Access
    • D. Spotlight
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Time Machine is the built-in macOS backup tool for automatic, versioned backups to an external drive, so A is correct. Disk Utility (B) formats and repairs disks. Keychain Access (C) stores credentials. Spotlight (D) is the search feature, not a backup tool.

  25. 25. A user calls saying a pop-up claims their PC is 'infected' and instructs them to call a phone number for paid support. The user has not run any scan. What should the technician suspect and advise?

    • A. It is a legitimate antivirus alert; the user should call the number
    • B. It is likely a social-engineering/scareware scam; do not call, close the browser and scan
    • C. The hard drive is failing and must be replaced
    • D. The pop-up means Windows Update is running
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Unsolicited 'infected — call this number' pop-ups are classic scareware/tech-support scams, so B is correct: don't call, close the browser, and run a legitimate scan. It is not a real AV alert (A). It has nothing to do with drive failure (C) or Windows Update (D), which never demand a phone call.

  26. 26. A company wants to require a fingerprint plus a one-time code from an authenticator app before granting access to a sensitive system. Which security concept does this implement?

    • A. Single sign-on (SSO)
    • B. Multifactor authentication (MFA)
    • C. Least privilege
    • D. Data-at-rest encryption
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Combining something you are (fingerprint) with something you have (authenticator code) is multifactor authentication, so B is correct. SSO (A) lets one login access many systems but is not inherently multifactor. Least privilege (C) limits access rights. Data-at-rest encryption (D) protects stored data, not the login method.

  27. 27. An organization is disposing of old hard drives that stored confidential data and must guarantee the data cannot be recovered, but the drives will be donated for reuse. Which method is most appropriate?

    • A. Deleting the files and emptying the Recycle Bin
    • B. A standard quick format
    • C. A secure multi-pass wipe/overwrite (drive sanitization)
    • D. Physically shredding the drives
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    A secure overwrite/sanitization renders data unrecoverable while keeping the drive usable for donation, so C is correct. Deleting files (A) and quick format (B) leave data recoverable. Physical shredding (D) does destroy the data but also destroys the drive, contradicting the reuse requirement.

  28. 28. To protect against unauthorized access to data if a company laptop is stolen, the technician wants the entire system drive encrypted so it cannot be read without the correct key or credentials. Which Windows feature provides this?

    • A. BitLocker
    • B. Windows Defender Firewall
    • C. User Account Control
    • D. Windows Update
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    BitLocker provides full-disk encryption, protecting data at rest on a stolen laptop, so A is correct. Windows Defender Firewall (B) filters network traffic. UAC (C) controls privilege elevation. Windows Update (D) patches software; none of these encrypt the drive.

  29. 29. Users report that after clicking a link in an email, their browser homepage changed, ads appear constantly, and searches redirect to unfamiliar sites. Which malware category best describes this behavior?

    • A. Ransomware
    • B. Rootkit
    • C. Browser hijacker / adware (PUP)
    • D. Logic bomb
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Changed homepage, constant ads, and search redirection are signature behaviors of a browser hijacker/adware, so C is correct. Ransomware (A) encrypts files and demands payment. A rootkit (B) hides itself for stealthy access. A logic bomb (D) triggers a payload on a condition, not persistent ad redirection.

  30. 30. A Windows PC is confirmed infected with malware. Per the CompTIA best-practice malware-removal steps, what should be done BEFORE running remediation tools?

    • A. Immediately reinstall Windows from scratch
    • B. Quarantine the infected system and disable System Restore before remediation
    • C. Enable System Restore to create more restore points
    • D. Connect the machine to the corporate network to update it
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The best-practice sequence quarantines the system (to stop spread) and disables System Restore (so malware isn't preserved in restore points) before remediating, so B is correct. Reinstalling immediately (A) is a last resort, not the required prior step. Enabling more restore points (C) can preserve the infection. Reconnecting to the network (D) risks spreading it.

  31. 31. An Android user reports that a specific app repeatedly crashes on launch after a recent update, while other apps work fine. What is the most appropriate first troubleshooting step?

    • A. Factory reset the entire device
    • B. Clear the app's cache/data, then update or reinstall the app
    • C. Replace the device battery
    • D. Flash a custom ROM
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    For a single misbehaving app, clearing its cache/data and reinstalling addresses corrupt app files with the least disruption, so B is correct. A factory reset (A) is drastic for one app. A battery swap (C) is unrelated to app crashes. Flashing a custom ROM (D) is risky, voids warranties, and is not a support step.

  32. 32. When a technician arrives at a customer's desk to work on their computer, which behavior best reflects CompTIA's professionalism and communication expectations?

    • A. Use technical jargon to demonstrate expertise
    • B. Set and meet expectations, communicate in clear terms the user understands, and avoid distractions
    • C. Take a personal phone call while working to stay reachable
    • D. Access the user's personal files out of curiosity
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Professional conduct means communicating clearly, setting/meeting expectations, and avoiding distractions, so B is correct. Using jargon (A) confuses the customer. Taking personal calls (C) is a distraction and unprofessional. Browsing personal files (D) violates privacy and confidentiality.

  33. 33. A data center technician must handle sensitive circuit boards and memory modules during an upgrade. Which precaution most directly prevents electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage to components?

    • A. Wearing an anti-static wrist strap connected to a proper ground
    • B. Wearing rubber-soled shoes on carpet
    • C. Increasing the room's heating to keep components warm
    • D. Holding boards firmly by their gold edge connectors
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A grounded anti-static wrist strap safely equalizes charge between the technician and equipment, preventing ESD, so A is correct. Rubber soles on carpet (B) can build static charge. Higher heat (C) does not prevent ESD (low humidity actually worsens it). Touching gold edge connectors (D) can contaminate/damage contacts and does not prevent ESD.

  34. 34. An organization wants a documented process so that all proposed modifications to production systems are reviewed, approved, and can be rolled back if they cause problems. Which operational practice does this describe?

    • A. Change management
    • B. Incident response
    • C. Asset tagging
    • D. End-user acceptance testing only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A formal review/approval/rollback process for system changes is change management, so A is correct. Incident response (B) handles security events after they occur. Asset tagging (C) tracks inventory. Acceptance testing alone (D) is one activity, not the governing approval-and-rollback process.

  35. 35. Earning the CompTIA A+ certification requires which of the following?

    • A. Passing a single 90-minute exam
    • B. Passing two separate exams, Core 1 (220-1201) and Core 2 (220-1202), which may be taken in any order
    • C. Passing Core 1 before Core 2 in a required order
    • D. Completing an unproctored online course only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    A+ requires passing both Core 1 and Core 2, and candidates may take them in any order, so B is correct. It is not a single exam (A). The order is not fixed — Core 1 need not precede Core 2 (C). It is not earned by a course alone (D); exams are required.

  36. 36. A candidate wants to keep their CompTIA A+ certification current. How long is the certification valid, and how can it be renewed without retaking the exam?

    • A. Valid for one year; renew by re-sitting both exams
    • B. Valid for three years; renew by earning Continuing Education Units (CEUs) without retaking the exam
    • C. Valid for five years; renewal is automatic
    • D. Valid for life; no renewal needed
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    A+ is valid for three years and can be renewed via Continuing Education Units without retaking the exam, so B is correct. It is not one year with re-sitting exams (A), not five years automatic (C), and not a lifetime credential (D).

  37. 37. Regarding the A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam format, which statement about the number of questions and time limit is correct?

    • A. A maximum of 90 questions with 90 minutes to complete the exam
    • B. A maximum of 60 questions with 120 minutes
    • C. Exactly 100 questions with 60 minutes
    • D. A maximum of 90 questions with 45 minutes
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Core 1 contains a maximum of 90 questions and candidates are given 90 minutes, so A is correct. The other options misstate either the question count or the time limit and contradict the published exam objectives.

  38. 38. On the A+ Core 1 exam, which content domain carries the greatest weight, and approximately what percentage is it?

    • A. Hardware, at 25%
    • B. Networking, at 23%
    • C. Hardware and network troubleshooting, at 28%
    • D. Virtualization and cloud computing, at 11%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Hardware and network troubleshooting is the highest-weighted Core 1 domain at 28%, so C is correct. Hardware is 25% (A), Networking is 23% (B), and Virtualization and cloud computing is only 11% (D) — all lower than troubleshooting.