PMP Practice Test

1. A project manager is calculating the estimate at completion (EAC) for a project that is expected to continue at its current cost performance rate. Which formula is most appropriate?

• A. EAC = AC + (BAC − EV)
• B. EAC = BAC / CPI
• C. EAC = AC + BAC
• D. EAC = EV − AC

2. A project manager is closing out a project phase and needs to formally document that deliverables meet the acceptance criteria agreed upon with the customer. Which process is being performed?

• A. Validate Scope
• B. Control Quality
• C. Define Scope
• D. Plan Scope Management

3. A project manager is using rolling wave planning on a multi-year infrastructure project. Which statement best describes why this approach was selected?

• A. It allows near-term work to be planned in detail while far-term work remains at a higher level until more information is available
• B. It requires all activities for the entire project to be fully detailed at the outset
• C. It eliminates the need for a work breakdown structure
• D. It is only applicable to purely adaptive projects and never to predictive ones

4. A project is using a predictive approach and the project manager is finalizing the WBS with the team. A team member argues that a work package is too large to estimate accurately. What is the best resolution?

• A. Accept the estimate as-is since the WBS has already been approved by the sponsor
• B. Decompose the work package further until each component can be estimated with reasonable confidence
• C. Assign an arbitrary duration to keep the schedule on track
• D. Remove the work package from the WBS entirely to simplify planning

5. A project manager discovers during monitoring that a approved change request was implemented but never updated in the schedule baseline. What is the most appropriate corrective action?

• A. Ignore the discrepancy since the work is already complete
• B. Update the schedule baseline through the integrated change control process to reflect the approved change
• C. Create an entirely new project schedule from scratch
• D. Instruct the team to revert the implemented change to match the outdated baseline

6. A project's cost performance index (CPI) is 0.85 and schedule performance index (SPI) is 1.05 at the midpoint of execution. What does this combination most likely indicate?

• A. The project is ahead of schedule but spending more than planned for the work completed
• B. The project is behind schedule and under budget
• C. The project is exactly on track for both cost and schedule
• D. The project has no earned value data available yet

7. A project manager wants to determine the most likely project duration by using three-point estimates (optimistic, most likely, pessimistic) for key activities. Which technique should be applied?

• A. Monte Carlo simulation using PERT-based three-point estimates
• B. A single-point analogous estimate based on a similar past project
• C. A fixed-price contract estimate from a vendor proposal
• D. A resource leveling heuristic

8. A team using an adaptive approach completes a two-week iteration and holds a session to reflect on what went well, what did not, and what to change. What is this session called and what is its primary purpose?

• A. A retrospective, used to continuously improve team process and collaboration
• B. A sprint review, used to demonstrate the product increment to stakeholders
• C. A daily standup, used to synchronize daily work
• D. A backlog refinement session, used to reprioritize upcoming work

9. A project manager is developing the risk management plan and needs to determine how the team will categorize and prioritize identified risks. Which tool is most appropriate for this purpose?

• A. A risk breakdown structure (RBS) combined with a probability and impact matrix
• B. A resource histogram showing team utilization over time
• C. A responsibility assignment matrix (RACI chart)
• D. A control chart tracking process variation

10. A project manager is defining acceptance criteria for a deliverable in a predictive project. The sponsor insists criteria be finalized only after the deliverable is complete, to 'stay flexible.' Why should the project manager push back on this approach?

• A. Acceptance criteria have no bearing on scope validation in predictive projects
• B. Defining acceptance criteria upfront ensures scope clarity and reduces the risk of disputes during scope validation
• C. Acceptance criteria are only relevant for adaptive projects, not predictive ones
• D. Finalizing criteria after completion speeds up the schedule with no drawbacks

11. During execution, a quality inspection reveals that a batch of deliverables fails to meet specifications due to a flawed manufacturing process. The project manager wants to identify the underlying cause rather than just the symptom. Which technique is most appropriate?

• A. A fishbone (Ishikawa) diagram to explore root causes across categories such as people, process, and equipment
• B. A Gantt chart to review the sequencing of manufacturing tasks
• C. A stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
• D. A resource calendar to check equipment availability only

12. A project team is deciding between a predictive and a hybrid approach for a product with well-understood requirements but an uncertain regulatory environment for one specific module. Which strategy best fits this situation?

• A. Use a fully predictive approach for the entire project since most requirements are well understood
• B. Use a hybrid approach: predictive planning for the well-understood scope and an adaptive approach for the uncertain regulatory module
• C. Use a fully adaptive approach for the entire project regardless of how well requirements are understood
• D. Avoid iterative techniques entirely since the project has any predictive elements at all

13. A risk is identified with high probability and high impact on a critical objective. Which response strategy eliminates the threat entirely?

• A. Avoid, by changing the plan so the risk's cause no longer applies to the project
• B. Mitigate, by reducing probability or impact
• C. Transfer, by shifting the impact to a third party
• D. Accept, by acknowledging it without action

14. A project's stakeholder identifies a requirement late in an adaptive project. How is it handled?

• A. Added to the backlog and prioritized against existing items, since accommodating change is expected and the constraint is capacity rather than the plan
• B. Rejected because the plan was already agreed
• C. Added to the current iteration immediately regardless of commitment
• D. Escalated to the sponsor for a formal change request

15. Earned value reporting shows a cost performance index of 0.85 and a schedule performance index of 1.05. What does this indicate?

• A. The project is over budget for the work completed but ahead of schedule
• B. The project is under budget and behind schedule
• C. The project is both over budget and behind schedule
• D. The project is both under budget and ahead of schedule

16. A schedule must be compressed without reducing scope. What distinguishes crashing from fast tracking?

• A. Crashing adds resources to critical activities increasing cost, while fast tracking overlaps activities previously sequential, increasing risk and potential rework
• B. Crashing overlaps activities and fast tracking adds resources
• C. Both reduce the project's scope
• D. Both reduce cost as well as duration

17. A change request is raised that would increase scope. What must occur before work begins on it?

• A. Assessment of the impact on schedule, cost, quality and risk, then a decision by the authorized body, with approved changes updating the baseline
• B. Immediate implementation, with documentation completed afterward
• C. Rejection by default, since scope changes are not permitted
• D. Approval by the requesting stakeholder alone

18. A team's velocity is measured over several iterations. What is it appropriate to use it for?

• A. Forecasting how much that team can complete in future iterations, not comparing teams or assessing individual productivity
• B. Comparing the productivity of different teams
• C. Setting individual performance targets
• D. Determining team members' compensation

19. Quality assurance and quality control are distinguished. What does each address?

• A. Assurance applies only after project closure
• B. Both inspect the same deliverables at different times
• C. Assurance inspects deliverables and control audits processes
• D. Assurance audits whether processes are adequate and being followed, while control inspects deliverables against requirements

20. A contingency reserve is established. What is it intended to cover?

• A. Identified risks that have been analysed, and it sits within the cost baseline under the project manager's authority
• B. Unknown risks outside the baseline, controlled by management
• C. Approved scope changes only
• D. Routine operating expenses of the project team

21. A risk register entry describes an opportunity rather than a threat. Which response strategies apply?

• A. Exploit, enhance, share, accept and escalate, mirroring the threat strategies with the intent of increasing rather than decreasing the effect
• B. Only accept, since opportunities require no management
• C. The same strategies as threats with identical names
• D. Only avoid and mitigate

22. A project is being closed. What must occur regardless of whether it completed successfully or was terminated early?

• A. Formal closure activities including releasing resources, closing procurements, obtaining acceptance where applicable and recording lessons learned
• B. Closure activities only where the project delivered its objectives
• C. Transfer of the project manager to a new project without further action
• D. Retention of all resources until the next project begins

23. A quality management approach distinguishes prevention from inspection. What is the practical implication?

• A. Preventing defects is generally less costly than detecting and correcting them, so quality is built in rather than inspected in
• B. Inspection eliminates the need for prevention activities
• C. Prevention and inspection cost the same
• D. Neither is necessary where the team is experienced

24. A project is executed in a predictive life cycle. What characterizes it relative to an adaptive one?

• A. Scope is defined early and changes are managed through a formal process, which suits stable requirements and known solutions
• B. Scope emerges through iterations with frequent re-prioritization
• C. No planning is performed before execution begins
• D. Change is prohibited entirely once the plan is baselined

25. A network diagram shows the critical path. What does it represent?

• A. The longest sequence of dependent activities determining the shortest possible project duration, where activities have zero float
• B. The sequence of the most expensive activities
• C. The sequence of activities assigned to the most senior staff
• D. The shortest path through the network

26. An adaptive team holds a retrospective at the end of each iteration. What is its purpose?

• A. Inspecting how the team worked and agreeing specific improvements to try next iteration, which is distinct from reviewing the product delivered
• B. Demonstrating completed work to stakeholders for feedback
• C. Planning the next iteration's scope
• D. Evaluating individual team members' performance

27. A project has a budget at completion of $500,000, has earned value of $200,000 and actual cost of $250,000. What is the cost variance?

• A. Negative $50,000, indicating the project has spent $50,000 more than the value delivered
• B. Positive $50,000, indicating a favourable position
• C. Negative $300,000, being budget at completion minus earned value
• D. Zero, since earned value and actual cost are both below budget

28. A definition of done is established by an adaptive team. What does it prevent?

• A. Work being reported as complete while testing, documentation or integration remain outstanding, which would accumulate as hidden unfinished work
• B. Stakeholders requesting changes to completed work
• C. The team estimating work inaccurately
• D. The project exceeding its budget

29. A control chart tracking weekly build-failure rates shows the last eight data points all falling below the mean, though every point remains inside the control limits. What should the quality lead conclude?

• A. The process is fine, because no point breached a control limit
• B. A run of this many consecutive points on one side of the mean signals a non-random pattern, so the process should be investigated for an underlying change
• C. The chart proves the product now meets all customer specifications
• D. The control limits should be widened to absorb the pattern

30. A delivery date must be pulled in by three weeks, scope cannot be reduced, and the organization has an absolute freeze on additional spending and staffing. Which schedule compression option remains available, and what is its principal risk?

• A. Crashing, which risks overloading the budget
• B. Fast tracking, performing normally sequential activities in parallel, at the cost of increased rework risk
• C. Resource leveling, which shortens the critical path automatically
• D. Scope reduction disguised as descoping of quality activities

31. An executive steering group complains that the project's detailed Gantt chart is unreadable at their level, though they still need to track major commitments. Which schedule presentation should the project manager bring to steering reviews instead?

• A. A milestone chart showing only major deliverable completions and key decision points against dates
• B. The full network logic diagram with every dependency arrow
• C. The raw activity list exported from the scheduling tool
• D. No schedule visual at all, since executives should trust verbal summaries

32. Mid-release, a cloud region hosting the project's build servers suffers an unforeseen multi-day outage that no risk register entry anticipated. The team improvises by shifting builds to a secondary region while the outage lasts. What is this improvised response called?

• A. A contingency plan executed as designed
• B. A risk transfer to the cloud provider
• C. A workaround, an unplanned response to an emergent problem that had no prepared response
• D. Passive acceptance of the outage

33. During a status meeting, a team member reports that the licensing vendor has already announced a price increase effective next month, affecting the project's committed purchases. Another member notes the vendor might also discontinue a needed module next year. How should the project manager record these two items?

• A. Both go in the issue log since they involve the same vendor
• B. The announced price increase is an issue, a present reality requiring action, and belongs in the issue log; the possible discontinuation is a risk, an uncertain future event, and belongs in the risk register
• C. Both go in the risk register as future uncertainties
• D. The price increase belongs in the risk register; the discontinuation is an issue

34. A project team of six is expanding to ten members, and the project manager warns the sponsor that communication overhead will grow much faster than headcount. What is the basis for this warning?

• A. Larger teams always miss deadlines regardless of communication
• B. The number of potential communication channels grows with the square of team size, rising here from fifteen channels to forty-five
• C. Adding members reduces channels because work is more distributed
• D. Communication overhead is constant regardless of team size

35. Early in planning, a team documents that a partner's data feed will be available by June, that only two test environments exist, and that the customer will supply bilingual content. Where should these entries live, and what must happen to them as the project proceeds?

• A. In the assumption log, where assumptions and constraints are recorded, revisited for validity, and converted into risks or issues when they prove uncertain or false
• B. In the assumption log, recorded once at kickoff and never revisited, since assumptions are fixed by definition
• C. In the final report, documented only after outcomes are known
• D. Nowhere formal; assumptions are conversational context, not artifacts

36. A project manager notices two team members have had escalating disagreements over task ownership for three sprints. The PM meets with both privately, then facilitates a joint session to redefine responsibilities. Which conflict resolution technique is this primarily?

• A. Withdraw/avoid, by delaying the discussion until tempers cool
• B. Collaborate/problem-solve, by incorporating multiple viewpoints into a mutually agreed solution
• C. Force/direct, by imposing one person's viewpoint at the expense of the other
• D. Smooth/accommodate, by emphasizing areas of agreement over disagreement

37. Two departments on a cross-functional project disagree on which vendor's data format to adopt, each citing valid technical constraints. The project manager convenes both leads to jointly evaluate options against shared project objectives. This reflects which principle of stakeholder engagement?

• A. Deferring the decision indefinitely until one department changes its position
• B. Delegating the decision entirely to the more senior department to avoid conflict
• C. Building consensus through collaborative decision-making aligned to shared objectives
• D. Selecting the option preferred by the department with the larger budget contribution

38. A distributed team spans four time zones and communicates primarily via chat and email. The project manager notices important decisions are being made informally and not reaching all team members. What should the project manager do first?

• A. Mandate that all team members work overlapping hours regardless of time zone
• B. Establish a documented communication plan that defines how and where decisions are recorded and shared
• C. Rely on the most active chat channel as the single source of truth without formal documentation
• D. Reduce the team size to eliminate coordination overhead

39. A project sponsor asks the project manager to bypass the change control process for a stakeholder-requested scope addition because the stakeholder is influential. What should the project manager do?

• A. Comply immediately since sponsors outrank change control boards
• B. Explain the risks of bypassing governance and recommend routing the request through the established change control process
• C. Quietly implement the change and update documentation retroactively
• D. Refuse to discuss the request and refer the sponsor to legal counsel

40. A project manager is building a team charter at project kickoff. Which element is most essential to include to prevent later disputes about how the team will operate?

• A. A detailed list of every stakeholder's salary and title
• B. Ground rules for communication, decision-making, and conflict resolution agreed upon by the team
• C. A fixed schedule of mandatory overtime for the duration of the project
• D. A complete technical architecture diagram for the deliverable

41. During a sprint, a developer identifies that a teammate is quietly struggling to keep pace due to a personal issue affecting focus. The project manager wants to address this with emotional intelligence. What is the best approach?

• A. Document the performance issue immediately in a formal write-up for HR
• B. Ignore the issue since personal matters are outside the project manager's scope
• C. Privately check in with empathy, acknowledge the situation, and collaboratively adjust workload if needed
• D. Publicly discuss the performance gap during the daily stand-up to ensure transparency

42. A project manager wants to assign clear accountability for each major deliverable so exactly one person is answerable for its completion, while others may still contribute or be consulted. Which tool is best suited for this?

• A. A RACI matrix, distinguishing Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed roles
• B. A burndown chart tracking remaining work over time
• C. A stakeholder power/interest grid
• D. A control chart with upper and lower control limits

43. A project manager is coaching a newly promoted team lead who tends to micromanage. Which coaching approach best supports the team lead's growth toward effective delegation?

• A. Take over the team lead's responsibilities to demonstrate the correct approach
• B. Ask guiding questions that help the team lead reflect on the impact of micromanagement and identify their own solutions
• C. Tell the team lead exactly what to do in every situation going forward
• D. Avoid the topic to prevent damaging the team lead's confidence

44. A project manager observes that a team member consistently delivers excellent technical work but avoids speaking up in retrospectives, potentially withholding valuable process improvement ideas. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Require the team member to present at every future retrospective regardless of comfort level
• B. Create a safer, lower-pressure channel (such as anonymous input or one-on-one conversations) to surface their insights
• C. Exclude the team member from retrospectives since they do not contribute verbally
• D. Note the behavior as a performance deficiency in the next formal review

45. A project team is co-located but morale has dropped after a difficult client escalation. The project manager wants to rebuild trust and cohesion before the next milestone review. Which servant leadership behavior best supports this goal?

• A. Assigning additional tasks to keep the team too busy to dwell on the incident
• B. Removing organizational impediments and actively listening to team concerns
• C. Escalating the morale issue directly to the sponsor for a decision
• D. Waiting until the retrospective at project close to address it

46. A new team member joins an established agile team mid-project and is unfamiliar with the team's working agreements. What should the project manager prioritize to support this individual's integration?

• A. Assign the most complex backlog item first to quickly assess their skill level
• B. Onboard them with team norms, working agreements, and pairing with an experienced member
• C. Have them shadow silently for the remainder of the project without active participation
• D. Skip onboarding since agile teams are expected to self-organize immediately

47. Two senior team members disagree publicly about a technical approach and the disagreement is stalling work. What is the project manager's most appropriate first response?

• A. Facilitate a structured discussion surfacing each position's reasoning and the criteria for deciding, so the team converges on a decision they can commit to
• B. Escalate immediately to the sponsor for a ruling
• C. Separate the two members so they no longer interact
• D. Decide the technical approach personally to end the delay

48. A stakeholder with high power and low interest is identified. What engagement approach fits?

• A. Keep satisfied, providing enough information to maintain support without demanding attention they have not offered
• B. Manage closely with frequent detailed updates
• C. Monitor with minimal effort
• D. Keep informed with regular detailed reporting

49. A team is newly formed and members are polite but not yet productive together. Which stage of team development is this and what does the leader provide?

• A. Forming, requiring clear direction, defined roles and explicit expectations while the team has not yet established its own norms
• B. Performing, requiring delegation and minimal intervention
• C. Norming, requiring the leader to step back entirely
• D. Adjourning, requiring closure activities

50. A project manager joins a team where members hesitate to raise problems. What action most directly addresses this?

• A. Building psychological safety by responding to raised problems without blame and acting on what is surfaced, so raising issues is demonstrably worthwhile
• B. Requiring team members to report problems in writing to the sponsor
• C. Introducing penalties for problems discovered late
• D. Reducing team meeting frequency to save time

51. A servant leadership approach is adopted. What does it emphasize?

• A. Removing impediments, providing what the team needs and developing its members, so the team can deliver rather than the leader directing every action
• B. The leader making all decisions to relieve the team of responsibility
• C. Minimizing communication with the team to avoid interruption
• D. Delegating accountability for outcomes entirely to team members

52. Midway through planning, a project manager discovers that the upcoming migration requires containerization skills that no current team member possesses, and the work begins in ten weeks. What is the best course of action?

• A. Say nothing and hope the team can learn on the job once the migration starts
• B. Immediately replace two team members with external contractors who have the skill
• C. Arrange targeted training now for selected team members, track the skill gap in the resource management approach, and reassess readiness before the work begins
• D. Descope the migration so the existing skill set is sufficient

53. To boost productivity, a program office proposes a quarterly award paying a significant bonus to the single team member who closes the most work items. The project manager objects. What is the strongest basis for the objection?

• A. Bonuses are never effective motivators for any kind of work
• B. The award is too small to change behavior
• C. A winner-take-all individual metric discourages collaboration, invites gaming of item counts, and undermines the shared accountability the team depends on
• D. Awards must always be decided by team vote to be valid

54. At the end of each quarter, a project manager evaluates how much the team's technical competencies, collaboration, and cross-training have improved, separate from whether deliverables are on schedule. Which purpose does this evaluation serve?

• A. It fulfills the organization's payroll compliance requirements
• B. It replaces earned value reporting for the quarter
• C. It determines contract penalties for underperforming vendors
• D. It assesses team effectiveness and development so the manager can target training, coaching, and team-building actions

55. A project manager leads a team of experienced research engineers who complain that rigid task assignments and detailed daily oversight are draining their enthusiasm. Which adjustment is most likely to improve their motivation?

• A. Introduce a bonus tied to hours logged each week
• B. Add a second daily check-in to catch problems earlier
• C. Give the engineers greater autonomy over how they accomplish outcomes, with opportunities to deepen expertise and a clear connection to project purpose
• D. Rotate all engineers to new task areas weekly to keep work novel

56. An organization is replacing its estimation spreadsheet with a new planning tool, and several team members are anxious and quietly reverting to the old spreadsheet. The project manager wants sustainable adoption rather than forced compliance. Which approach is most effective?

• A. Postpone adoption indefinitely until everyone feels ready
• B. Disable the old spreadsheet immediately so reversion is impossible
• C. Send a policy memo stating the new tool is mandatory as of Monday
• D. Run hands-on practice sessions with realistic scenarios, pair confident users with hesitant ones, and create a safe space to make mistakes while learning

57. A project team is distributed across three continents and struggles to choose tools for day-to-day collaboration. Some members have limited bandwidth, others work asynchronously, and decisions often need rapid input. What should most influence the project manager's selection of communication technology?

• A. The technology the project manager personally finds most efficient for status reporting
• B. Whichever platform the organization already licenses, regardless of fit
• C. The tool with the richest feature set, since more capability always improves collaboration
• D. Urgency of information needs, technology availability and ease of use, and the team's working environment

58. A project manager wants to develop a promising coordinator by delegating responsibility for the vendor-onboarding workstream. Which delegation approach gives the coordinator the best chance to grow while protecting the project?

• A. Define the outcome, boundaries, and check-in points, then let the coordinator decide how to achieve it while remaining available for support
• B. Hand over the workstream completely and avoid all involvement so the coordinator learns from unassisted failure
• C. Provide a detailed step-by-step script the coordinator must follow exactly
• D. Delegate only trivial administrative pieces and retain all decisions personally

59. A project charter for a regulatory remediation effort names a specific compliance attorney as a required project resource because her expertise was a condition of the initiative's approval. Which resource acquisition situation does this represent?

• A. Resource leveling, since her availability constrains the schedule
• B. Virtual team formation, since she may work remotely
• C. Pre-assignment, where a resource is designated in advance in the charter rather than acquired through negotiation
• D. Vendor procurement, since legal services are often contracted

60. A two-year program is delivering its final release next month, after which the dedicated team will disband and members will return to their departments or new assignments. What should the project manager plan for this transition?

• A. Nothing formal; teams naturally dissolve on their own
• B. Recognition of the team's accomplishments, capture of lessons and knowledge, and support for members' transitions to their next roles
• C. An extension of the team's funding so it can stay together indefinitely
• D. Immediate reassignment of all members the day the release ships

61. A team that struggled early in the year now resolves its own disagreements, redistributes work when someone is overloaded, and consistently meets commitments without prompting. What should the project manager's role look like at this stage of team development?

• A. Delegate broadly, focus on removing external obstacles and providing strategic context, and avoid reintroducing detailed oversight
• B. Reinstate daily task-level direction to maintain the momentum
• C. Step in to mediate every internal disagreement personally
• D. Rotate half the members out to spread the culture to other teams

62. A project manager must choose two developers from a pool of six internal candidates and wants the selection to be defensible rather than based on impressions. She scores each candidate on availability, relevant experience, cost rate, and collaboration skills, weighting each factor by importance. What tool is she using?

• A. A responsibility assignment matrix
• B. A resource histogram
• C. A stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
• D. Multicriteria decision analysis, which rates candidates against weighted selection factors

63. A project manager inherits a team where members carefully avoid admitting mistakes, pad their estimates defensively, and never challenge each other's designs. She concludes the core problem is absence of trust. Which action most directly begins rebuilding it?

• A. Model vulnerability herself by openly acknowledging her own uncertainties and mistakes, and respond constructively when others do the same
• B. Institute anonymous peer scoring so weaknesses are reported safely
• C. Announce that estimate padding will now be treated as a disciplinary issue
• D. Wait for trust to develop naturally as the schedule pressure increases

64. A project manager oversees two team members: a new hire who is enthusiastic but has never performed the upcoming integration task, and a veteran who has done it many times and works independently. How should the project manager adapt leadership style between them?

• A. Provide the new hire with specific direction and frequent check-ins while delegating the task to the veteran with minimal oversight
• B. Supervise both closely so neither feels singled out
• C. Delegate fully to both, since equal treatment builds fairness
• D. Pair them and manage them as a single unit with identical expectations

65. Two team leads each want the single available senior tester assigned fully to their workstream. After discussion, the project manager arranges for the tester to spend mornings with one workstream and afternoons with the other, and both leads accept the arrangement with some reluctance. Which conflict resolution outcome does this illustrate?

• A. Collaborating, since both leads participated in the discussion
• B. Forcing, since the manager dictated the split schedule
• C. Compromising, since each party gave up part of what they wanted to reach an acceptable middle ground
• D. Smoothing, since the manager minimized the disagreement

66. During system commissioning, an engineer reports that a pressure valve configuration could create a safety hazard if energized. Two leads disagree about whether the concern is valid, and the energization is scheduled within the hour. What conflict approach is most appropriate for the project manager right now?

• A. Withdraw from the disagreement and let the more senior lead decide
• B. Ask the leads to split the difference by energizing at reduced pressure
• C. Direct an immediate halt to energization until the safety concern is formally assessed, even though one lead objects
• D. Schedule a collaborative workshop for next week so both leads can fully explore the disagreement

67. In design workshops, one articulate senior member speaks first and at length, and the project manager notices later ideas rarely diverge from that member's opening position. The manager wants better input diversity without alienating the senior member. What technique should be tried?

• A. Use structured facilitation such as silent idea writing or round-robin input before open discussion, so all views surface prior to anchoring
• B. Let the pattern continue, since seniority usually correlates with the best answer
• C. Ask the senior member to stop attending workshops
• D. Hold a vote at the start of each workshop to settle the design immediately

68. A department head has exhausted direct discussion with a peer whose team keeps deprioritizing an interface the project needs; two negotiated agreements have already been broken, and the integration milestone is now at risk. When is escalation to the sponsor appropriate for the project manager?

• A. Never; escalation always signals a failed project manager
• B. Now, because resolution attempts within the manager's authority have been exhausted and the impact threatens project objectives
• C. Only after the milestone has actually been missed, so the impact is provable
• D. Immediately upon any disagreement, to save time

69. A project manager wants to recognize outstanding work by a delivery group whose members come from a culture that strongly values group harmony and views individual spotlighting as uncomfortable. What is the most appropriate recognition approach?

• A. Name a single most valuable performer at the all-hands meeting to set a visible example
• B. Recognize the group's collective achievement in a way that honors its shared effort, while offering any individual appreciation privately
• C. Skip recognition entirely to avoid any risk of cultural offense
• D. Apply the organization's standard individual-award template unchanged for consistency

70. A project manager observes a team member repeatedly interrupt colleagues and dismiss their ideas during design sessions, and other members have begun to stay silent. How should the project manager deliver feedback to the interrupting team member?

• A. Privately and promptly, describing the specific observed behavior and its effect on the team, and agreeing on a change
• B. During the next design session, so the whole team witnesses the correction
• C. In the annual performance review, where formal feedback belongs
• D. Anonymously through a note left on the team channel

71. A project manager is evaluating whether a proposed project aligns with organizational strategy. Which document should be reviewed first to make this determination?

• A. The project's detailed risk register
• B. The organization's strategic plan and business case for the project
• C. The team's daily stand-up notes
• D. The vendor's technical proposal

72. A company launches a project explicitly to comply with a new environmental regulation that takes effect in six months. Which category of business need does this project primarily address?

• A. A market demand opportunity
• B. A legal or regulatory requirement
• C. A customer request unrelated to compliance
• D. An internal process improvement with no external driver

73. A project manager learns midway through execution that a new corporate policy requires all vendor payments to route through a centralized procurement platform. Which type of organizational process asset (OPA) update does this represent?

• A. A change to project-specific technical specifications
• B. An update to organizational policies and procedures affecting how the project must operate
• C. A change to the project's individual risk register only
• D. A revision to the team's working agreements exclusively

74. An organization is deciding between two mutually exclusive projects using net present value (NPV) analysis. Project A has an NPV of $150,000 and Project B has an NPV of $95,000, with similar risk profiles. Which project should generally be prioritized based on this data alone?

• A. Project B, because a lower NPV indicates lower risk exposure
• B. Project A, because a higher NPV indicates greater expected value creation
• C. Neither project, because NPV cannot be used to compare mutually exclusive projects
• D. Both projects equally, since NPV should be ignored in project selection

75. A project manager is preparing a project charter and must identify the business justification for undertaking the work. Which of the following best belongs in this section?

• A. A detailed task-level schedule with resource assignments
• B. A summary of the business case, including why the project is being pursued and its expected value
• C. The full technical requirements specification
• D. A list of every individual risk with mitigation plans

76. A project manager is assessing whether continued investment in a struggling project is still justified after significant funds have already been spent. Which principle should guide this decision?

• A. Continue funding the project because of the amount already invested (the sunk cost fallacy)
• B. Evaluate the decision based on future costs and benefits only, since past costs are sunk and irrecoverable
• C. Always cancel any project that has exceeded its original budget
• D. Defer the decision indefinitely to avoid political conflict

77. A project manager reviewing a vendor contract notices ambiguous language about ownership of intellectual property created during the engagement. What is the best course of action before work begins?

• A. Proceed with the contract as-is and address IP disputes if they arise later
• B. Work with procurement and legal to clarify IP ownership terms in the contract before execution begins
• C. Assume the organization automatically owns all IP regardless of contract wording
• D. Let the vendor unilaterally decide IP ownership once deliverables are complete

78. A project manager calculates that a proposed initiative has a benefit-cost ratio (BCR) of 0.8. What does this indicate about the initiative's financial viability?

• A. The benefits exceed the costs, making it a strong investment
• B. The costs exceed the benefits, suggesting the initiative may not be financially justified
• C. The benefits and costs are exactly equal
• D. BCR cannot be used to evaluate project viability

79. A project manager is evaluating enterprise environmental factors (EEFs) that could influence project planning. Which of the following is the best example of an EEF?

• A. The organization's lessons learned repository from prior projects
• B. Government regulations and marketplace conditions relevant to the project's industry
• C. A standardized project charter template used across the organization
• D. The organization's historical risk register templates

80. A project manager is asked to justify a project using a return on investment (ROI) analysis. The finance team notes the project has a payback period of 4 years against an organizational threshold of 3 years. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

• A. The project automatically qualifies for approval since ROI was calculated at all
• B. The project exceeds the organization's payback threshold and may require further justification or rejection based on this criterion
• C. Payback period is irrelevant once ROI is calculated
• D. A longer payback period is always preferable to a shorter one

81. A stakeholder with high power and high interest is identified during stakeholder analysis. According to standard stakeholder engagement guidance, how should this stakeholder generally be managed?

• A. Monitor with minimal effort
• B. Manage closely with frequent, proactive engagement
• C. Keep informed with minimal engagement effort
• D. Ignore unless they raise concerns directly

82. During project initiation, the project manager and sponsor disagree on whether a proposed initiative should proceed given uncertain market conditions. Which artifact should primarily guide this go/no-go decision?

• A. The team's daily standup log
• B. The business case, updated with current assumptions and expected benefits
• C. The most recent sprint retrospective notes
• D. The project's communication management plan

83. A project manager identifies that a competitor recently released a similar product, changing the market landscape mid-project. What should the project manager do first in response to this external change?

• A. Assess the impact on the business case and consult the sponsor about whether project objectives still hold
• B. Immediately halt all project work without informing stakeholders
• C. Ignore external market changes since they are outside the project's control
• D. Unilaterally change the project's scope to match the competitor's product

84. An organization operates a project management office. Which type exerts the most control over projects?

• A. A directive office, which manages the projects directly, compared with controlling offices that require compliance and supportive offices that provide templates and advice
• B. A supportive office, which mandates methodology
• C. A controlling office, which manages projects directly
• D. All types exert identical control

85. A project manager becomes aware that a team member has misrepresented test results to meet a deadline. What is required?

• A. Address it directly and report it through the appropriate channel, since honesty and responsibility obligations do not yield to schedule pressure
• B. Allow it to stand if the deadline is genuinely critical
• C. Correct the record quietly without addressing the conduct
• D. Wait until the project completes before raising it

86. A contract is awarded as firm fixed price. Who bears the risk of cost overruns?

• A. The seller, which is why this type suits well-defined scope and typically carries a higher price reflecting the risk premium
• B. The buyer, who reimburses actual costs incurred
• C. The risk is shared equally regardless of scope definition
• D. Neither party, since overruns are prohibited by the contract

87. A project manager works in a weak matrix organization. What authority do they typically hold?

• A. Limited authority with resources controlled by functional managers, so influence and negotiation matter more than positional power
• B. Full authority over resources and budget
• C. The same authority as in a projectized organization
• D. No involvement in resource decisions of any kind

88. A project must demonstrate alignment with organizational strategy. What establishes this?

• A. The business case, which states the need, expected benefits and how they support strategic objectives, and which is revisited as conditions change
• B. The project schedule showing the delivery date
• C. The resource assignment matrix
• D. The risk register

89. A project faces a newly announced regulatory requirement affecting its deliverable. What is the appropriate response?

• A. Assess the impact on scope, schedule, cost and risk, and process it through change control, since compliance is not optional but its implementation must still be managed
• B. Implement the required changes immediately outside change control
• C. Defer consideration until the regulation is enforced
• D. Cancel the project

90. A benefits realization plan is prepared. What does it address that the project plan does not?

• A. How and when benefits will be measured and by whom after delivery, since benefits usually accrue after the project closes
• B. The sequence of project activities
• C. The assignment of team members to tasks
• D. The procurement of project materials

91. Two proposed initiatives compete for the same funds. Analysis shows the first returns a discount rate of eighteen percent at which its net present value equals zero, while the second reaches zero net present value at eleven percent. The organization's cost of capital is nine percent. Using this criterion alone, how should the initiatives be compared?

• A. The first initiative is preferred because its internal rate of return of eighteen percent exceeds the second's eleven percent, and both clear the nine percent cost of capital
• B. The second is preferred because lower discount rates are safer
• C. Neither is acceptable because both rates exceed the cost of capital
• D. The rates cannot be compared without knowing each project's duration in days

92. A two-year efficiency project promises to cut invoice processing costs by thirty percent, but the reduction will only be measurable in operations a year after the project team disbands. The sponsor asks who will track whether the promised benefit actually materializes. What arrangement addresses this?

• A. The benefits realization plan should designate an operational benefit owner who measures outcomes against targets after project closure
• B. No one; benefit tracking ends when the project closes
• C. The disbanded project team reconvenes annually to self-audit
• D. The vendor who supplied the software owns benefit measurement

93. Eight months into a twelve-month project justified by expansion into a market segment, the parent company announces it is exiting that segment entirely. The project itself is on schedule and on budget. What should the project manager do?

• A. Continue as planned, since delivery performance is strong
• B. Reassess the project's alignment with the changed strategy and present continue, redirect, or terminate options with their implications to the sponsor and governance board
• C. Unilaterally terminate the project and release the team
• D. Accelerate spending so the project finishes before anyone reconsiders it

94. A project manager delivering a two-year logistics platform sets a quarterly practice of scanning for market shifts, competitor moves, regulatory proposals, and emerging technologies that could affect the project's assumptions or value case. Why is this scanning worth the recurring effort?

• A. It replaces the need for a risk management process
• B. It is required before each invoice can be issued
• C. It guarantees the business case will never change
• D. External environment changes can invalidate project assumptions or erode the expected value, and early detection lets the project adapt or escalate before the impact compounds

95. A startup's founders debate whether to spend nine months building their complete product vision or to release a minimal version covering the core workflow within three months. The market is unproven and funding is limited. What is the strongest argument for the minimal release?

• A. Minimal versions are cheaper to market at launch events
• B. Nine-month builds always fail regardless of market conditions
• C. An early minimal release delivers value sooner and generates real usage feedback that validates or corrects the product direction before the remaining investment is committed
• D. Investors legally require quarterly product releases

96. A payments project must satisfy several regulatory regimes whose requirements overlap and occasionally conflict. The project manager wants confidence at any audit that every obligation is addressed by a control or deliverable. What practice provides this confidence?

• A. Trusting the development team's general awareness of regulations
• B. Addressing compliance in a single review at the end of the project
• C. Marking the project internal-only so regulations do not apply
• D. Maintaining a compliance register that maps each regulatory obligation to specific project controls and deliverables, reviewed with legal and compliance specialists throughout delivery

97. A project will deliver a new scheduling system to three thousand field technicians whose current paper process is deeply ingrained. The technology workstream is fully planned, but the sponsor asks what will make the technicians actually use the system. What should the project manager add to the plan?

• A. Nothing; a well-built system guarantees its own adoption
• B. A stronger firewall configuration for the new servers
• C. Organizational change management activities such as early technician involvement, role-based training, visible supervisor champions, and post-launch adoption support and measurement
• D. A clause transferring adoption risk to the software vendor

98. A consultancy proposes standing up two-week delivery iterations in a client organization where every decision historically routes through three management layers and written signoffs. The project manager anticipates friction. What does this scenario illustrate about delivery approaches?

• A. Organizational culture is irrelevant if the methodology is followed strictly
• B. Organizational culture and governance style are environmental factors that must shape how a delivery approach is tailored and introduced
• C. Hierarchical organizations cannot execute projects at all
• D. The client must replace its managers before the project can start

99. An engineering director can assign her only machine-learning specialist to one of two internal initiatives. She chooses the fraud-detection project, forgoing the recommendation-engine project that was projected to generate substantial value. When evaluating the true cost of the fraud-detection choice, what does the forgone recommendation-engine value represent?

• A. Direct cost, since the specialist draws a salary
• B. Contingency reserve, since the value might return later
• C. Opportunity cost, the value of the best alternative given up by committing the resource to the chosen initiative
• D. Sunk cost, since the value is already lost

100. At the end of a program's design phase, a governance board convenes to examine phase deliverables, reconfirm the business case against current conditions, and decide whether the program proceeds to build, changes direction, or stops. What is this governance mechanism called, and what makes it valuable?

• A. A daily standup, valuable for team synchronization
• B. A phase gate review, valuable because it forces an evidence-based continue, modify, or terminate decision before further investment is committed
• C. A retrospective, valuable for improving team process
• D. A bidder conference, valuable for procurement fairness