CompTIA A+ Practice Test

1. A technician needs to install RAM into a modern desktop that uses dual-channel memory. To enable dual-channel operation with two identical modules, how should the modules be installed?

• A. Both modules placed in adjacent slots regardless of color
• B. In the matched (usually same-colored) slots specified by the motherboard manual
• C. One module per channel is impossible; dual-channel requires four modules
• D. Both modules in the two slots farthest from the CPU socket

2. A technician must install RAM in a dual-channel motherboard with four slots. What placement is generally required to enable dual-channel operation?

• A. Matched modules in the slot pairs the board designates for each channel, typically alternating slots rather than adjacent ones
• B. Both modules in the two slots nearest the CPU regardless of colour coding
• C. Any two slots, since the board configures channels automatically
• D. All four slots populated, since dual-channel requires four modules

3. A technician replaces a mechanical hard drive with a solid-state drive. Which practice should be avoided on the new drive?

• A. Running a traditional defragmentation routine, which adds write wear without improving performance on flash storage
• B. Enabling TRIM support
• C. Keeping the firmware updated
• D. Leaving some free space unallocated for over-provisioning

4. A printer produces pages with a repeating smudge at consistent intervals down the page. What does this indicate on a laser printer?

• A. A defect on a rotating component such as the drum or a roller, with the interval corresponding to its circumference
• B. An incorrect paper size setting in the driver
• C. A network connectivity problem
• D. An outdated printer driver

5. A technician is installing a new NVMe SSD into a laptop's M.2 slot and notices two keying notches align differently from the socket. Which factor determines compatibility between the M.2 module and the socket?

• A. The connector key type (e.g., M-key vs B-key) must match the socket wiring for the module to fit and function correctly.
• B. The color of the printed circuit board must match the motherboard chipset color scheme.
• C. The physical length of the module in millimeters is irrelevant as long as the connector is present.
• D. Any M.2 module works in any M.2 slot as long as the screw hole is present.

6. A technician is upgrading a desktop's graphics card to a model that requires an 8-pin PCIe power connector, but the existing power supply only has 6-pin PCIe connectors available. What should the technician do?

• A. Force the 6-pin connector into the 8-pin socket since two of the pins are only for grounding.
• B. Replace the power supply with one that provides a native 8-pin PCIe connector rated for the card's power draw.
• C. Connect two 6-pin connectors together with electrical tape to create an 8-pin connector.
• D. Power the card from a SATA power connector using a generic splitter regardless of current rating.

7. A user reports that their laptop runs fine on AC power but the battery drains within minutes and the reported charge percentage jumps erratically. Which component is the most likely cause?

• A. A failing/degraded battery that can no longer hold an accurate charge
• B. A corrupted GPU driver
• C. A failing Wi-Fi antenna
• D. An overheating CPU

8. A user's smartphone gets very hot, drains quickly, and uses far more data than usual, even when idle. Which is the most likely explanation a technician should investigate first?

• A. A rogue or malicious app running in the background
• B. The screen brightness set too high
• C. A cracked screen protector
• D. Bluetooth being enabled

9. A technician is asked to connect a laptop to an external 4K display and also charge the laptop through a single cable on a modern ultrabook. Which port supports video output, data, and power delivery simultaneously?

• A. USB-C with DisplayPort Alt Mode and Power Delivery
• B. RJ45
• C. Legacy VGA
• D. 3.5mm TRS

10. When configuring corporate email on employee mobile devices, the IT team wants the ability to remotely wipe only company data if a device is lost. Which approach best meets this requirement?

• A. Enrolling devices in a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution with containerization
• B. Emailing each user the company password policy
• C. Disabling Wi-Fi on all devices
• D. Requiring users to back up to a personal cloud account

11. A user reports their laptop battery drains quickly and the chassis is unusually warm. What should be checked before replacing the battery?

• A. Whether a runaway process is consuming CPU continuously, since sustained load explains both symptoms
• B. The screen resolution setting
• C. The number of files on the desktop
• D. Whether the keyboard backlight is enabled

12. A mobile device user reports that the touchscreen responds in the wrong locations. What should be attempted before hardware replacement?

• A. Removing any screen protector or case interfering with the digitizer, and restarting the device to clear a software fault
• B. Reinstalling every application individually
• C. Replacing the battery
• D. Changing the device's language settings

13. A company issues mobile devices and wants to enforce encryption, passcode policy and the ability to wipe a lost device. What technology provides this?

• A. Mobile device management, which enrolls devices and applies and enforces policy centrally
• B. A group policy object applied from the domain controller
• C. The device manufacturer's consumer find-my-device service
• D. An antivirus application installed on each device

14. While replacing a cracked screen, a technician notices the smartphone's battery is visibly swollen and pushing against the case. What is the safest immediate action?

• A. Continue the repair as planned since a swollen battery still functions normally.
• B. Puncture the battery to release trapped gas before continuing the repair.
• C. Stop work, avoid puncturing or bending the battery, and replace it following safe lithium-ion handling procedures.
• D. Charge the device fully first to verify the battery still holds a charge.

15. A laptop has three individual keys that no longer register keystrokes, while the rest of the keyboard works normally. What is the most likely repair approach on most consumer laptops?

• A. Reflow the solder joints on the motherboard beneath the affected keys.
• B. Reinstall the operating system to restore the keyboard driver for those specific keys.
• C. Swap the laptop's RAM modules, since faulty memory commonly causes isolated key failures.
• D. Replace the entire keyboard or top case assembly, since individual keys are typically not sold as separate field-replaceable parts.

16. A tablet fails to charge when plugged into its charging cable, but the same cable successfully charges another identical tablet model. What should the technician check first?

• A. Inspect and clean the tablet's charging port for lint, debris, or corrosion that could block the connector.
• B. Replace the tablet's battery immediately, since a battery is the only possible cause.
• C. Reinstall the tablet's operating system to fix the charging circuit.
• D. Assume the wall outlet is faulty even though the same outlet charges other devices normally.

17. A user wants more memory installed in a thin laptop that has one user-accessible memory slot. Which module form factor should the technician order for this upgrade?

• A. SODIMM
• B. Full-size desktop DIMM
• C. Registered ECC server DIMM
• D. SIMM

18. A technician is upgrading storage in a laptop whose M.2 slot supports PCIe. Which drive type will deliver the fastest performance in that slot?

• A. An M.2 SATA SSD
• B. An NVMe SSD that communicates over PCIe lanes
• C. An mSATA SSD with an adapter
• D. A 7200 rpm 2.5-inch hard drive

19. A workstation on a /24 subnet has IP 192.168.1.50 with mask 255.255.255.0. Which of the following addresses is on the SAME local subnet and reachable without a router?

• A. 192.168.2.50
• B. 192.168.1.200
• C. 10.0.1.50
• D. 192.168.0.50

20. A remote user cannot reach an internal web server by its hostname, but pinging the server's IP address succeeds. Which service should the technician troubleshoot first?

• A. DHCP
• B. DNS
• C. NAT
• D. SMTP

21. Which port and protocol pairing is correct for secure, encrypted remote command-line administration of a Linux server?

• A. Telnet over TCP 23
• B. SSH over TCP 22
• C. RDP over TCP 3389
• D. HTTPS over TCP 443

22. A small office wants wireless clients to authenticate against a central RADIUS server rather than sharing a single passphrase. Which Wi-Fi security mode should be configured?

• A. WPA2-Personal (PSK)
• B. WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise
• C. WEP
• D. Open with MAC filtering

23. A technician wants to power a device such as a wireless access point using the same cable that carries its network data, avoiding a separate electrical outlet. Which technology enables this?

• A. USB-C Power Delivery
• B. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
• C. Wake-on-LAN
• D. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS)

24. A workstation on a corporate network cannot reach any internal or external resource, and shows an address beginning 169.254. What does this indicate?

• A. The client failed to obtain an address from DHCP and self-assigned a link-local address
• B. The client received a valid address from the corporate DHCP server
• C. The client is using a static address configured by the administrator
• D. The client's firewall is blocking outbound traffic only

25. A workstation can communicate with other devices on its local subnet but cannot reach any external websites, even though DNS resolves names correctly. The IP configuration shows a subnet mask and IP address that appear correct. What should the technician check next?

• A. Verify that the DNS server address matches the subnet mask exactly.
• B. Verify that the default gateway address is correctly configured and reachable.
• C. Change the workstation's MAC address to resolve the routing conflict.
• D. Disable the local subnet's DHCP server to force a new IP lease.

26. A company needs to connect network switches in two buildings located 2 kilometers apart, beyond the maximum distance supported by copper Ethernet cabling. Which solution is most appropriate?

• A. Use a longer Cat 6 copper cable run between the buildings with a signal repeater every 50 meters.
• B. Use a standard RJ45 patch cable rated for outdoor use to span the distance.
• C. Use fiber optic cabling with SFP transceivers installed in each switch to bridge the connection.
• D. Use a wireless access point configured in ad hoc mode between the two switches.

27. A new branch office firewall blocks all outbound traffic by default. Users report they can reach websites by typing IP addresses but every hostname fails to load. Which port should be opened to restore name resolution?

• A. TCP 80
• B. UDP 69
• C. TCP 445
• D. UDP 53

28. An e-commerce administrator wants the public web storefront reachable only over encrypted connections. Which default port should remain open to the internet on the web server?

• A. 443
• B. 8080
• C. 80
• D. 21

29. Employees can receive email in their desktop mail client, but sending through the company server with authentication times out from a hotel network. Which outbound port is the hotel most likely blocking?

• A. 143
• B. 110
• C. 53
• D. 587

30. A technician configures a mail client to keep folders synchronized with the server over an encrypted connection using secure IMAP. Which port should the client profile specify?

• A. 995
• B. 143
• C. 993
• D. 25

31. A company wants to run several isolated server operating systems directly on a single bare-metal host with no underlying host OS, for maximum performance and density. Which technology fits best?

• A. A Type 2 (hosted) hypervisor
• B. A Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor
• C. Application containers on a desktop OS
• D. A dual-boot configuration

32. A customer wants a cloud model where they can rapidly scale storage and compute up during busy periods and pay only for what they consume. Which cloud characteristic does this describe?

• A. Resource pooling
• B. Rapid elasticity with measured (metered) service
• C. High availability
• D. Data sovereignty

33. A technician sets up a virtual machine on a workstation. Which hardware feature must generally be enabled in firmware?

• A. CPU virtualization extensions, which the hypervisor requires to run guest instructions efficiently
• B. Secure boot, which validates the boot chain
• C. Wake-on-LAN, which permits remote power-on
• D. Fast startup, which shortens boot time

34. An organization moves from on-premises servers to a cloud provider's infrastructure as a service offering. What remains the organization's responsibility?

• A. The guest operating system, applications, configuration and data, while the provider maintains the physical infrastructure and hypervisor
• B. Nothing, since the provider assumes full responsibility
• C. Only the physical security of the data centre
• D. Only the network cabling within the facility

35. A software developer wants to run an isolated test operating system inside a window on their existing Windows desktop, without dedicating separate physical hardware. Which solution is most appropriate?

• A. Install a bare-metal hypervisor directly on the desktop's hardware in place of Windows.
• B. Configure the desktop to dual-boot into a second operating system at startup.
• C. Install the test operating system on a USB drive and boot from it using legacy BIOS.
• D. Install a type 2 hypervisor application within the existing Windows OS to host the virtual machine.

36. A company subscribes to a web-based email and productivity suite where the vendor manages the servers, operating systems, application code, and updates entirely, leaving the company responsible only for user accounts and data. Which cloud service model does this describe?

• A. Software as a Service (SaaS)
• B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
• C. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
• D. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) limited to virtual desktop delivery only

37. A desktop powers on, fans spin, but there is no video output and the system emits a repeating beep code. What is the most appropriate FIRST step consistent with the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

• A. Immediately replace the motherboard
• B. Identify the problem by consulting the beep-code reference and checking recent changes
• C. Reinstall the operating system
• D. Document the outcome and close the ticket

38. Several users on one floor intermittently lose network connectivity while users on other floors are unaffected. All affected users connect through the same switch. Following the methodology, what is the best next action after identifying the pattern?

• A. Replace every user's network cable simultaneously
• B. Establish a theory of probable cause, such as a failing switch or its uplink
• C. Rebuild all affected computers from a backup image
• D. Escalate to the vendor before doing any analysis

39. A newly built PC displays 'No bootable device' after passing POST. The technician confirms the SATA SSD spins up and is detected in firmware. Which is the MOST likely cause?

• A. The boot order lists a device without an OS ahead of the SSD, or the SSD has no OS installed
• B. The power supply wattage is too low
• C. The RAM is running in single-channel mode
• D. The CPU is not compatible with the chipset

40. A laser printer produces pages with a repeating faint ghost image of previous content appearing at regular intervals down the page. Which component is the most likely cause?

• A. The imaging drum failing to fully discharge/clean between rotations
• B. A clogged inkjet nozzle
• C. A misaligned print head
• D. Low toner only

41. A technician suspects a failing hard drive causing slow reads and occasional read errors on a Windows PC. Which built-in tool most directly checks and repairs file-system and bad-sector issues on the volume?

• A. sfc /scannow
• B. chkdsk /r
• C. ipconfig /all
• D. diskpart clean

42. A monitor connected by HDMI shows an image that flickers and occasionally drops to a black screen, but a second known-good cable resolves it. Which troubleshooting step did this action represent?

• A. Establishing a plan of action
• B. Testing the theory to determine the cause
• C. Documenting findings
• D. Verifying full system functionality

43. A technician is called to a workstation that will not power on. Following the standard troubleshooting methodology, what comes after identifying the problem?

• A. Establish a theory of probable cause, questioning the obvious first
• B. Implement the solution immediately
• C. Document the findings and outcome
• D. Verify full system functionality

44. A desktop powers on briefly then shuts down repeatedly. Which cause should be investigated first?

• A. Overheating from a failed cooling fan or degraded thermal paste triggering thermal shutdown protection
• B. A corrupted user profile in the operating system
• C. An expired software licence
• D. An incorrect display resolution setting

45. A workstation displays a blinking cursor with no operating system found message. Which check is most productive first?

• A. The boot order and whether the boot drive is detected in firmware setup
• B. The monitor's brightness setting
• C. Whether the network cable is connected
• D. The installed amount of system memory

46. A laptop repeatedly disconnects from Wi-Fi every few minutes while wired devices in the same room remain connected. After confirming the theory that the wireless adapter driver is outdated, the technician updates the driver but the problem persists. According to the standard troubleshooting methodology, what should happen next?

• A. Declare the issue resolved since a plausible cause was already addressed.
• B. Re-establish a new theory of probable cause and test again.
• C. Escalate immediately to the ISP without further local testing.
• D. Replace the laptop's motherboard as the next logical step.

47. Multiple users in an office report they cannot print to a shared network printer, though the print server itself responds to ping and is powered on. What should the technician check first on the print server?

• A. Whether the office's internet connection is functioning.
• B. Whether each user's monitor is displaying correctly.
• C. Whether the print spooler service is running on the print server.
• D. Whether the printer's toner cartridge is more than half full.

48. A desktop computer runs fine at idle but shuts down unexpectedly whenever the user runs a demanding application like video editing software. The technician opens the case and finds the CPU heatsink packed with dust. What is the most likely cause of the shutdowns?

• A. The power supply is undersized for idle workloads only.
• B. The video editing software has a licensing conflict that forces a shutdown.
• C. The RAM is failing only when the CPU is under high load.
• D. The CPU is overheating under heavy load due to restricted airflow from the dust buildup, triggering thermal protection shutdown.

49. A technician uses a cable tester on a newly made patch cable and sees that pins 3 and 6 show as open (no continuity) while the other pins test fine. What does this most likely indicate?

• A. The RJ45 connector was crimped with those two wires not properly seated or terminated.
• B. The cable is using the wrong category rating for the network speed required.
• C. The switch port the cable will connect to is faulty.
• D. The cable is too long and exceeds maximum distance specifications.

50. A technician must choose a Windows file system for a 64 GB USB flash drive that will be used to transfer large 8 GB video files between Windows and macOS computers. Which file system is the best fit?

• A. FAT32
• B. exFAT
• C. NTFS
• D. ext4

51. A Windows administrator needs to apply a security setting to every computer in a domain automatically, without visiting each machine. Which tool is designed for this?

• A. Group Policy (via Active Directory)
• B. Task Manager
• C. Device Manager
• D. Disk Management

52. A technician needs to view real-time CPU, memory, disk, and network utilization and identify which process is consuming the most memory on a Windows 11 PC. Which utility is the most direct choice?

• A. Task Manager
• B. Registry Editor
• C. System Restore
• D. msconfig Boot tab

53. A user with a standard (non-administrator) account needs to install a printer driver that requires elevated privileges. What is the correct, secure way to complete this task?

• A. Permanently add the user to the local Administrators group
• B. Use 'Run as administrator' and supply valid administrator credentials via UAC
• C. Disable User Account Control (UAC) entirely
• D. Boot into Safe Mode to bypass permissions

54. A technician needs to remotely connect to a Windows workstation's full graphical desktop to assist a user. Which built-in Windows feature is intended for this?

• A. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
• B. SSH
• C. FTP
• D. SNMP

55. A macOS user needs a utility to schedule automatic backups to an external drive so they can restore previous file versions. Which native tool should they use?

• A. Time Machine
• B. Disk Utility
• C. Keychain Access
• D. Spotlight

56. A Windows workstation must have a specific service stopped and prevented from restarting after reboot. Which approach accomplishes this?

• A. Stopping the service and setting its startup type to disabled in the services management console
• B. Ending the process in task manager only
• C. Deleting the service's program files
• D. Removing the user's permission to view the service

57. A technician needs to compare NTFS and FAT32 for a drive that will store files larger than 8 GB on a Windows system. Which applies?

• A. NTFS, because FAT32 imposes a maximum individual file size of 4 GB
• B. FAT32, because NTFS cannot store files above 4 GB
• C. Either, since neither imposes a file size limit
• D. FAT32, because it supports file-level permissions

58. A user's files must be preserved while the operating system is reinstalled on the same drive. What distinguishes an in-place upgrade from a clean install here?

• A. An in-place upgrade retains applications, settings and files, while a clean install removes them and requires restoring from backup
• B. A clean install retains user files automatically
• C. An in-place upgrade requires reformatting the drive
• D. Neither approach affects user data

59. A macOS user needs to force-quit an unresponsive application. Which utility is appropriate?

• A. The Force Quit dialog or Activity Monitor, which lists running processes and their resource use
• B. Disk Utility, which manages storage volumes
• C. Time Machine, which manages backups
• D. Keychain Access, which manages stored credentials

60. A Linux administrator must change a file's permissions so the owner can read, write and execute while the group and others can only read. Which numeric mode applies?

• A. 744
• B. 777
• C. 644
• D. 755

61. A Windows 11 PC has several system files reported as corrupted, causing intermittent application crashes. The technician wants to scan for and repair corrupted system files using a built-in command-line tool. Which command should be run?

• A. diskpart clean
• B. sfc /scannow
• C. ipconfig /flushdns
• D. chkdsk /x only

62. An administrator wants a backup script to run automatically every night at 2 AM on a Windows Server without any manual intervention. Which built-in tool should be used to configure this?

• A. Task Scheduler
• B. Local Users and Groups
• C. Device Manager
• D. Disk Management

63. An organization requires that every laptop's system drive be encrypted using Windows' native full-disk encryption feature. Which consideration determines whether a given Windows 11 laptop can use this feature natively?

• A. The laptop must have at least four USB ports available for encryption keys.
• B. The laptop must be disconnected from any domain or Microsoft account.
• C. The laptop must be running an edition of Windows that includes BitLocker, such as Pro or Enterprise, rather than Home.
• D. The laptop must have a mechanical hard drive rather than a solid-state drive.

64. A Linux administrator needs to view a real-time, continuously updating list of running processes along with their CPU and memory usage from the command line. Which command is designed for this purpose?

• A. top
• B. ls -la
• C. mkdir
• D. chmod 755

65. A Windows user wants to revert recent system changes and driver installations that caused instability, while keeping their personal files, installed applications, and settings intact. Which built-in recovery option best matches this goal?

• A. Reset this PC with the 'Remove everything' option
• B. System Restore to a restore point created before the changes
• C. A clean installation of Windows from bootable media
• D. Formatting the system drive and reinstalling all applications manually

66. A MacBook user wants automatic, ongoing backups of the whole system to an external drive using software already included with macOS. What should the technician set up?

• A. Boot Camp
• B. Disk Utility's First Aid
• C. Mission Control
• D. Time Machine

67. A user calls saying a pop-up claims their PC is 'infected' and instructs them to call a phone number for paid support. The user has not run any scan. What should the technician suspect and advise?

• A. It is a legitimate antivirus alert; the user should call the number
• B. It is likely a social-engineering/scareware scam; do not call, close the browser and scan
• C. The hard drive is failing and must be replaced
• D. The pop-up means Windows Update is running

68. A company wants to require a fingerprint plus a one-time code from an authenticator app before granting access to a sensitive system. Which security concept does this implement?

• A. Single sign-on (SSO)
• B. Multifactor authentication (MFA)
• C. Least privilege
• D. Data-at-rest encryption

69. An organization is disposing of old hard drives that stored confidential data and must guarantee the data cannot be recovered, but the drives will be donated for reuse. Which method is most appropriate?

• A. Deleting the files and emptying the Recycle Bin
• B. A standard quick format
• C. A secure multi-pass wipe/overwrite (drive sanitization)
• D. Physically shredding the drives

70. To protect against unauthorized access to data if a company laptop is stolen, the technician wants the entire system drive encrypted so it cannot be read without the correct key or credentials. Which Windows feature provides this?

• A. BitLocker
• B. Windows Defender Firewall
• C. User Account Control
• D. Windows Update

71. A workstation displays browser pop-ups and redirects even when no browser is open. What is the most likely cause and appropriate first step?

• A. Malware, which should be addressed by isolating the system from the network before beginning remediation
• B. An incorrect default browser setting, corrected in system preferences
• C. A failing hard drive, addressed by replacing the drive
• D. An outdated graphics driver, addressed by updating it

72. A technician must securely dispose of drives containing sensitive data before recycling the hardware. Which method provides the strongest assurance?

• A. Physical destruction such as shredding or degaussing for magnetic media, with a certificate of destruction retained
• B. Deleting the files and emptying the recycle bin
• C. Performing a quick format of the volume
• D. Renaming the files to obscure their contents

73. A user needs to run a single application that requires administrative rights, on an account that is a standard user. What is the appropriate approach?

• A. Elevate that specific application when needed, keeping the account a standard user for everyday work
• B. Add the user to the local administrators group permanently
• C. Disable user account control so no prompt appears
• D. Share the built-in administrator account credentials with the user

74. An employee receives an urgent email appearing to be from the company's CEO, demanding an immediate wire transfer and instructing the employee not to discuss it with anyone else first. Which social engineering technique does this scenario best illustrate?

• A. A brute-force attack against the employee's email password.
• B. A denial-of-service attack against the company's mail server.
• C. Business email compromise using urgency and authority impersonation to pressure quick action.
• D. A man-in-the-middle attack intercepting the employee's network traffic.

75. A network administrator configures a firewall to deny all inbound traffic by default and only explicitly allow the specific ports required for approved services. Which security principle does this configuration best demonstrate?

• A. Non-repudiation, by ensuring actions can be traced to a specific user.
• B. Redundancy, by providing a backup path if the primary firewall fails.
• C. Load balancing, by distributing traffic across multiple servers.
• D. Least privilege, by minimizing exposed attack surface to only what is necessary.

76. A business wants visiting guests to access the internet over Wi-Fi without being able to reach internal file servers or printers on the corporate network. Which approach best achieves this separation?

• A. Place guest Wi-Fi on a separate VLAN isolated from the internal corporate network segments.
• B. Give guests the same SSID and password as employees but a slower bandwidth cap.
• C. Disable DHCP on the guest network so devices cannot obtain an IP address.
• D. Require guests to install the corporate VPN client before connecting.

77. Users report that after clicking a link in an email, their browser homepage changed, ads appear constantly, and searches redirect to unfamiliar sites. Which malware category best describes this behavior?

• A. Ransomware
• B. Rootkit
• C. Browser hijacker / adware (PUP)
• D. Logic bomb

78. A Windows PC is confirmed infected with malware. Per the CompTIA best-practice malware-removal steps, what should be done BEFORE running remediation tools?

• A. Immediately reinstall Windows from scratch
• B. Quarantine the infected system and disable System Restore before remediation
• C. Enable System Restore to create more restore points
• D. Connect the machine to the corporate network to update it

79. An Android user reports that a specific app repeatedly crashes on launch after a recent update, while other apps work fine. What is the most appropriate first troubleshooting step?

• A. Factory reset the entire device
• B. Clear the app's cache/data, then update or reinstall the app
• C. Replace the device battery
• D. Flash a custom ROM

80. A user's applications launch slowly and the drive activity light is constantly lit on a system with a mechanical hard drive. What should be checked?

• A. Available free space, drive health indicators and whether excessive paging is occurring due to insufficient memory
• B. The monitor's refresh rate
• C. The keyboard layout setting
• D. The number of installed fonts

81. A recently updated application fails to launch on a Windows 10 PC, showing an error that it requires a newer version of the operating system. Reinstalling the application does not resolve the issue. What is the most appropriate next troubleshooting step?

• A. Run the application in compatibility mode for an older Windows version.
• B. Check whether the application actually requires a Windows version or feature not present on this PC, and update Windows or use a supported application version.
• C. Disable the PC's antivirus software permanently to allow the application to run.
• D. Replace the PC's power supply to resolve the software error.

82. A user's web browser has become noticeably slow to load pages and occasionally freezes, despite a fast internet connection and no other applications running. What should the technician try first?

• A. Reinstall the entire operating system to fix the browser's performance.
• B. Replace the computer's network interface card.
• C. Clear the browser's cache and disable or remove unnecessary extensions and add-ons.
• D. Increase the monitor's refresh rate setting.

83. When a technician arrives at a customer's desk to work on their computer, which behavior best reflects CompTIA's professionalism and communication expectations?

• A. Use technical jargon to demonstrate expertise
• B. Set and meet expectations, communicate in clear terms the user understands, and avoid distractions
• C. Take a personal phone call while working to stay reachable
• D. Access the user's personal files out of curiosity

84. A data center technician must handle sensitive circuit boards and memory modules during an upgrade. Which precaution most directly prevents electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage to components?

• A. Wearing an anti-static wrist strap connected to a proper ground
• B. Wearing rubber-soled shoes on carpet
• C. Increasing the room's heating to keep components warm
• D. Holding boards firmly by their gold edge connectors

85. An organization wants a documented process so that all proposed modifications to production systems are reviewed, approved, and can be rolled back if they cause problems. Which operational practice does this describe?

• A. Change management
• B. Incident response
• C. Asset tagging
• D. End-user acceptance testing only

86. Earning the CompTIA A+ certification requires which of the following?

• A. Passing a single 90-minute exam
• B. Passing two separate exams, Core 1 (220-1201) and Core 2 (220-1202), which may be taken in any order
• C. Passing Core 1 before Core 2 in a required order
• D. Completing an unproctored online course only

87. Regarding the A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam format, which statement about the number of questions and time limit is correct?

• A. A maximum of 90 questions with 90 minutes to complete the exam
• B. A maximum of 60 questions with 120 minutes
• C. Exactly 100 questions with 60 minutes
• D. A maximum of 90 questions with 45 minutes

88. On the A+ Core 1 exam, which content domain carries the greatest weight, and approximately what percentage is it?

• A. Hardware, at 25%
• B. Networking, at 23%
• C. Hardware and network troubleshooting, at 28%
• D. Virtualization and cloud computing, at 11%

89. Toner has spilled inside a laser printer. How should it be cleaned?

• A. With a standard office vacuum cleaner
• B. With a vacuum rated for toner, using cold water if it contacts skin or clothing, since heat fuses the particles
• C. With hot water and detergent
• D. By blowing it out with compressed air indoors

90. A technician is about to work inside a desktop computer. Which practice addresses electrostatic discharge?

• A. Using an anti-static wrist strap connected to a proper ground, and handling boards by their edges
• B. Working on a carpeted floor to insulate the components
• C. Wearing rubber gloves to prevent any conduction
• D. Increasing the room temperature to reduce humidity

91. A workstation must be disposed of and contains a lithium-ion battery and a CRT monitor. What governs disposal?

• A. Local regulations and the manufacturer's safety data sheet, since both items are regulated waste that cannot go to general refuse
• B. Standard office waste procedures, since the equipment is obsolete
• C. The organization's internal preference alone
• D. No requirements apply once data has been erased

92. A user calls about an issue while the technician is finishing another task. What is the appropriate professional conduct?

• A. Acknowledge the user, set a realistic expectation for when the issue will be addressed, and follow through
• B. Promise immediate attention regardless of current commitments
• C. Avoid responding until the current task is complete
• D. Redirect the user to solve the issue themselves

93. A technician discovers apparently illegal content while servicing a user's computer. What is the correct action?

• A. Preserve the device state, report through the organization's defined chain of custody process, and avoid further examination
• B. Delete the content and continue the repair
• C. Investigate further to confirm what was found
• D. Discuss the finding with colleagues before deciding

94. A technician documents a completed repair. Why does this step matter beyond the individual ticket?

• A. Because it builds a knowledge base that shortens future diagnosis and reveals recurring patterns across the estate
• B. Because documentation is required to close the billing record only
• C. Because it transfers responsibility for the fault to the user
• D. Because it is required only for warranty claims

95. A change to a production system is proposed. What should a change request include before approval?

• A. The purpose and scope, a risk analysis, the implementation plan and a rollback plan if the change fails
• B. Only the name of the technician performing the change
• C. Only the scheduled date and time
• D. Only confirmation that a backup exists

96. A technician resolves a recurring hardware issue using a novel workaround not found in existing documentation. Beyond closing the ticket, what should the technician do to benefit future support staff facing the same issue?

• A. Keep the solution informal and share it verbally only if asked.
• B. Delete the ticket once resolved to keep the system uncluttered.
• C. Wait for a supervisor to independently discover and document the same solution.
• D. Document the issue and resolution in the knowledge base so other technicians can reference it for similar future problems.

97. A technician needs to move a heavy tower server from a lower rack position to a higher one by hand. Which practice best reduces the risk of personal injury during this task?

• A. Bend at the knees, keep the load close to the body, and get help or use a lift for heavy items.
• B. Lift quickly using the back to minimize the time spent in a bent position.
• C. Twist at the waist while lifting to place the server directly into position in one motion.
• D. Lift the server using one hand while holding cables with the other for balance.

98. A technician needs to know the specific first-aid response and safe handling precautions for a chemical cleaning solvent used in the shop before using it on a repair. Where should the technician look for this information?

• A. The device manufacturer's warranty terms.
• B. The Safety Data Sheet (SDS) for that specific chemical product.
• C. The operating system's event viewer logs.
• D. The company's general employee handbook table of contents.

99. While repairing a customer's computer, a technician discovers files that appear to be evidence of illegal activity. After reporting it through proper channels, what is essential regarding how the device is subsequently handled?

• A. Immediately delete the suspicious files to protect the customer's privacy.
• B. Return the device to the customer right away so they are not without their computer.
• C. Continue using the device normally for further repair work since the report has already been filed.
• D. Maintain a documented chain of custody, limiting access to the device until authorities have addressed the matter.

100. A server room's temperature and humidity monitoring system alerts that humidity has dropped significantly below the recommended range during winter. What risk does excessively low humidity primarily introduce to the equipment?

• A. Increased risk of corrosion from condensation forming on circuit boards.
• B. Increased risk of mold growth on cabling and connectors.
• C. Increased risk of the equipment's fans running too loudly.
• D. Increased risk of electrostatic discharge damaging sensitive components.