CompTIA A+ Practice Test

303 free CompTIA A+ practice questions with answers and explanations. No signup required. The CompTIA A+ exam is administered by CompTIA, with 90 questions and a time limit of 1 hour 30 minutes.

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Question 1 of 303 · SecurityEasy0/0

To protect against unauthorized access to data if a company laptop is stolen, the technician wants the entire system drive encrypted so it cannot be read without the correct key or credentials. Which Windows feature provides this?

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Security

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1. To protect against unauthorized access to data if a company laptop is stolen, the technician wants the entire system drive encrypted so it cannot be read without the correct key or credentials. Which Windows feature provides this?
- A. BitLocker
- B. Windows Defender Firewall
- C. User Account Control
- D. Windows Update
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
BitLocker provides full-disk encryption, protecting data at rest on a stolen laptop, so A is correct. Windows Defender Firewall (B) filters network traffic. UAC (C) controls privilege elevation. Windows Update (D) patches software; none of these encrypt the drive.
2. An organization is disposing of old hard drives that stored confidential data and must guarantee the data cannot be recovered, but the drives will be donated for reuse. Which method is most appropriate?
- A. Deleting the files and emptying the Recycle Bin
- B. A standard quick format
- C. A secure multi-pass wipe/overwrite (drive sanitization)
- D. Physically shredding the drives
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A secure overwrite/sanitization renders data unrecoverable while keeping the drive usable for donation, so C is correct. Deleting files (A) and quick format (B) leave data recoverable. Physical shredding (D) does destroy the data but also destroys the drive, contradicting the reuse requirement.
3. A company wants to require a fingerprint plus a one-time code from an authenticator app before granting access to a sensitive system. Which security concept does this implement?
- A. Single sign-on (SSO)
- B. Multifactor authentication (MFA)
- C. Least privilege
- D. Data-at-rest encryption
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Combining something you are (fingerprint) with something you have (authenticator code) is multifactor authentication, so B is correct. SSO (A) lets one login access many systems but is not inherently multifactor. Least privilege (C) limits access rights. Data-at-rest encryption (D) protects stored data, not the login method.
4. A user calls saying a pop-up claims their PC is 'infected' and instructs them to call a phone number for paid support. The user has not run any scan. What should the technician suspect and advise?
- A. It is a legitimate antivirus alert; the user should call the number
- B. It is likely a social-engineering/scareware scam; do not call, close the browser and scan
- C. The hard drive is failing and must be replaced
- D. The pop-up means Windows Update is running
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Unsolicited 'infected — call this number' pop-ups are classic scareware/tech-support scams, so B is correct: don't call, close the browser, and run a legitimate scan. It is not a real AV alert (A). It has nothing to do with drive failure (C) or Windows Update (D), which never demand a phone call.
5. A user needs to run a single application that requires administrative rights, on an account that is a standard user. What is the appropriate approach?
- A. Elevate that specific application when needed, keeping the account a standard user for everyday work
- B. Add the user to the local administrators group permanently
- C. Disable user account control so no prompt appears
- D. Share the built-in administrator account credentials with the user
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Per-application elevation preserves least privilege while satisfying the requirement, whereas permanent administrator membership means every process the user runs, including malware, inherits those rights. Disabling the elevation prompt and sharing built-in credentials both remove accountability along with the control.
6. A technician must securely dispose of drives containing sensitive data before recycling the hardware. Which method provides the strongest assurance?
- A. Physical destruction such as shredding or degaussing for magnetic media, with a certificate of destruction retained
- B. Deleting the files and emptying the recycle bin
- C. Performing a quick format of the volume
- D. Renaming the files to obscure their contents
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Deletion and quick formatting remove file system references while leaving the data recoverable, so neither constitutes sanitization. Degaussing works on magnetic media but not on solid-state drives, which require cryptographic erase or physical destruction, and the certificate provides the evidence that disposal actually occurred.
7. A workstation displays browser pop-ups and redirects even when no browser is open. What is the most likely cause and appropriate first step?
- A. Malware, which should be addressed by isolating the system from the network before beginning remediation
- B. An incorrect default browser setting, corrected in system preferences
- C. A failing hard drive, addressed by replacing the drive
- D. An outdated graphics driver, addressed by updating it
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Activity continuing with no browser running indicates resident malicious software rather than a browser configuration issue. Quarantining the system first prevents spread and stops the malware communicating outward while remediation proceeds, and the remediation sequence continues with scanning in a safe environment, cleaning, updating and educating the user.

Hardware

7 of 36 questions loaded

8. A technician needs to install RAM into a modern desktop that uses dual-channel memory. To enable dual-channel operation with two identical modules, how should the modules be installed?
- A. Both modules placed in adjacent slots regardless of color
- B. In the matched (usually same-colored) slots specified by the motherboard manual
- C. One module per channel is impossible; dual-channel requires four modules
- D. Both modules in the two slots farthest from the CPU socket
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Dual-channel requires a matched pair populated in the correct paired slots, which motherboards typically color-code and document in the manual, so B is correct. Adjacent slots (A) are often the SAME channel and give only single-channel. Dual-channel works with two modules, not four (C). A fixed 'farthest from CPU' rule (D) is not universal and ignores the board's specific pairing.
9. A printer produces pages with a repeating smudge at consistent intervals down the page. What does this indicate on a laser printer?
- A. A defect on a rotating component such as the drum or a roller, with the interval corresponding to its circumference
- B. An incorrect paper size setting in the driver
- C. A network connectivity problem
- D. An outdated printer driver
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Regularly spaced defects map to a rotating part, and measuring the interval identifies which component since each has a distinct circumference. Driver and network issues produce garbled output, incorrect formatting or failed jobs rather than a physical mark repeating at a fixed pitch.
10. A technician replaces a mechanical hard drive with a solid-state drive. Which practice should be avoided on the new drive?
- A. Running a traditional defragmentation routine, which adds write wear without improving performance on flash storage
- B. Enabling TRIM support
- C. Keeping the firmware updated
- D. Leaving some free space unallocated for over-provisioning
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Flash storage has no seek penalty, so rearranging data provides no benefit while consuming a finite write endurance budget. TRIM tells the drive which blocks are no longer in use so garbage collection can operate efficiently, which is the maintenance mechanism that actually matters for solid-state drives.
11. A technician must install RAM in a dual-channel motherboard with four slots. What placement is generally required to enable dual-channel operation?
- A. Matched modules in the slot pairs the board designates for each channel, typically alternating slots rather than adjacent ones
- B. Both modules in the two slots nearest the CPU regardless of colour coding
- C. Any two slots, since the board configures channels automatically
- D. All four slots populated, since dual-channel requires four modules
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Dual-channel requires one module per channel, and boards indicate the correct pairs through colour coding or silkscreen labels, commonly meaning slots one and three rather than one and two. Populating the wrong pair leaves the system working in single-channel mode with reduced memory bandwidth and no error message to indicate it.
12. A technician is upgrading a desktop's graphics card to a model that requires an 8-pin PCIe power connector, but the existing power supply only has 6-pin PCIe connectors available. What should the technician do?
- A. Force the 6-pin connector into the 8-pin socket since two of the pins are only for grounding.
- B. Replace the power supply with one that provides a native 8-pin PCIe connector rated for the card's power draw.
- C. Connect two 6-pin connectors together with electrical tape to create an 8-pin connector.
- D. Power the card from a SATA power connector using a generic splitter regardless of current rating.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
A GPU requiring an 8-pin PCIe connector needs the correct pin count and current-carrying capacity that a properly rated power supply provides natively; improvised adapters or forcing mismatched connectors risk insufficient power delivery, overheating connectors, or damaging the card and power supply, so replacing the supply with a compatible unit is the correct and safe approach.
13. A technician is installing a new NVMe SSD into a laptop's M.2 slot and notices two keying notches align differently from the socket. Which factor determines compatibility between the M.2 module and the socket?
- A. The connector key type (e.g., M-key vs B-key) must match the socket wiring for the module to fit and function correctly.
- B. The color of the printed circuit board must match the motherboard chipset color scheme.
- C. The physical length of the module in millimeters is irrelevant as long as the connector is present.
- D. Any M.2 module works in any M.2 slot as long as the screw hole is present.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The M-key/B-key notch configuration on an M.2 module indicates which bus (SATA vs PCIe/NVMe) and pin layout the module supports, so a mismatched key will not align with the socket's corresponding pins; length matters for the standoff screw position but does not by itself guarantee electrical compatibility, and PCB color has no functional bearing.
14. A customer hands a technician a newly purchased CPU and an older motherboard from a different platform generation, asking for a build. What should the technician verify before attempting the installation?
- A. That the board's socket, chipset, and firmware all support this exact processor
- B. That the power supply cables are the same color as the board headers
- C. That the case has at least three fans
- D. That the board's SATA ports match the CPU brand
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
CPUs only work in boards with the matching physical socket, and even then the chipset and firmware version must list that specific model as supported, so checking the vendor's compatibility list comes first. Cable colors carry no meaning for compatibility, fan count affects cooling rather than whether the chip runs, and SATA ports are storage connections with no relationship to the processor brand.

Networking

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15. A small office wants wireless clients to authenticate against a central RADIUS server rather than sharing a single passphrase. Which Wi-Fi security mode should be configured?
- A. WPA2-Personal (PSK)
- B. WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise
- C. WEP
- D. Open with MAC filtering
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Enterprise mode uses 802.1X with a RADIUS server so each user authenticates with individual credentials, making B correct. Personal/PSK (A) uses one shared passphrase. WEP (C) is obsolete and easily cracked. Open with MAC filtering (D) provides no real authentication and MACs are easily spoofed.
16. A technician wants to power a device such as a wireless access point using the same cable that carries its network data, avoiding a separate electrical outlet. Which technology enables this?
- A. USB-C Power Delivery
- B. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
- C. Wake-on-LAN
- D. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
PoE delivers electrical power and data over a single Ethernet cable, ideal for APs and IP cameras, so B is correct. USB-C PD (A) powers over USB, not Ethernet. Wake-on-LAN (C) remotely powers on a PC but does not supply operating power. A UPS (D) provides battery backup, not power over the network cable.
17. A workstation on a /24 subnet has IP 192.168.1.50 with mask 255.255.255.0. Which of the following addresses is on the SAME local subnet and reachable without a router?
- A. 192.168.2.50
- B. 192.168.1.200
- C. 10.0.1.50
- D. 192.168.0.50
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
With mask 255.255.255.0 the network is 192.168.1.0/24, so only hosts whose first three octets are 192.168.1.x share the subnet — 192.168.1.200 (B) qualifies. 192.168.2.50 (A) and 192.168.0.50 (D) differ in the third octet, and 10.0.1.50 (C) is an entirely different network; all three require a router.
18. Which port and protocol pairing is correct for secure, encrypted remote command-line administration of a Linux server?
- A. Telnet over TCP 23
- B. SSH over TCP 22
- C. RDP over TCP 3389
- D. HTTPS over TCP 443
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
SSH (Secure Shell) on TCP 22 provides encrypted command-line access, so B is correct. Telnet on 23 (A) is command-line but unencrypted. RDP on 3389 (C) is a graphical remote desktop protocol, typically for Windows. HTTPS on 443 (D) secures web traffic, not shell sessions.
19. A remote user cannot reach an internal web server by its hostname, but pinging the server's IP address succeeds. Which service should the technician troubleshoot first?
- A. DHCP
- B. DNS
- C. NAT
- D. SMTP
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The IP works but the name does not, so name-to-address resolution is failing — that is DNS (B). DHCP (A) assigns addresses and here the host already has connectivity. NAT (C) translates addresses for internet traffic, not name resolution. SMTP (D) is for email delivery and is unrelated.
20. A workstation on a corporate network cannot reach any internal or external resource, and shows an address beginning 169.254. What does this indicate?
- A. The client failed to obtain an address from DHCP and self-assigned a link-local address
- B. The client received a valid address from the corporate DHCP server
- C. The client is using a static address configured by the administrator
- D. The client's firewall is blocking outbound traffic only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The 169.254 range is automatic private addressing assigned when no DHCP response arrives, so the fault lies between the client and the DHCP service rather than in the client's IP stack. Cable, switch port, VLAN assignment, DHCP scope exhaustion and a failed relay are the usual causes to check in that order.
21. A company needs to connect network switches in two buildings located 2 kilometers apart, beyond the maximum distance supported by copper Ethernet cabling. Which solution is most appropriate?
- A. Use a longer Cat 6 copper cable run between the buildings with a signal repeater every 50 meters.
- B. Use a standard RJ45 patch cable rated for outdoor use to span the distance.
- C. Use fiber optic cabling with SFP transceivers installed in each switch to bridge the connection.
- D. Use a wireless access point configured in ad hoc mode between the two switches.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Copper Ethernet has a maximum practical segment distance of around 100 meters, far short of 2 kilometers, while fiber optic cabling paired with SFP transceivers supports distances of several kilometers with minimal signal loss, making it the appropriate choice; repeating copper that far is impractical, outdoor-rated copper doesn't change its distance limitation, and ad hoc Wi-Fi is not designed for reliable building-to-building switch interconnects.

Operating Systems

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22. A technician must copy a large departmental folder tree to a new file server, preserving NTFS permissions and automatically resuming if the network drops mid-transfer. Which built-in Windows command-line tool best fits?
- A. the basic copy command
- B. robocopy with switches for security attributes and retries
- C. xcopy
- D. the format command
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Robocopy was designed for exactly this migration scenario: it copies subdirectory trees with their security descriptors, retries failed files, and can restart interrupted jobs. The basic copy command handles single files with no permissions or resume support, xcopy is an older tool with weaker retry and security copying behavior, and format erases volumes rather than copying anything.
23. A technician must choose a Windows file system for a 64 GB USB flash drive that will be used to transfer large 8 GB video files between Windows and macOS computers. Which file system is the best fit?
- A. FAT32
- B. exFAT
- C. NTFS
- D. ext4
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
exFAT supports files larger than 4 GB and is read/write compatible with both Windows and macOS, so B is correct. FAT32 (A) caps single files at 4 GB, blocking the 8 GB videos. NTFS (C) is natively read-only on macOS. ext4 (D) is a Linux file system not natively supported by Windows or macOS.
24. Listing a directory on a Linux server, a technician sees an entry whose mode string begins with -rwxr-x followed by r and two dashes. How should this permission string be read?
- A. Everyone on the system has full control of the file
- B. The file is a directory writable by its group
- C. The owner can read, write, and execute; the group can read and execute; others can only read
- D. Only the root account can open the file
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The mode string groups permissions in threes after the type character: rwx for the owner, r-x for the group, and r-- for everyone else, exactly as the correct reading states. Full control for everyone would appear as rwx repeated three times, a directory would begin with the letter d rather than a dash, and nothing in the string restricts access to the root account alone.
25. A technician needs to remotely connect to a Windows workstation's full graphical desktop to assist a user. Which built-in Windows feature is intended for this?
- A. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
- B. SSH
- C. FTP
- D. SNMP
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
RDP provides a full graphical remote-desktop session to Windows, so A is correct. SSH (B) gives an encrypted command line, not a Windows GUI by default. FTP (C) transfers files. SNMP (D) monitors and manages network device metrics, not interactive desktops.
26. A manager wants to connect from a home PC directly into an office desktop using the remote desktop feature built into Windows. The office machine runs Windows 11 Home, and the option to allow incoming connections is nowhere to be found. Why?
- A. The firewall permanently blocks that feature on all editions
- B. The office PC lacks a dedicated graphics card
- C. The Home edition cannot act as a remote desktop host
- D. The manager's account is not a member of the local administrators group
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Hosting incoming remote desktop sessions is reserved for Pro and higher editions, while Home can only run the client side, which is why the hosting toggle simply does not exist on that machine. The firewall can be configured to allow the service when an edition supports it, no graphics card requirement applies to hosting, and administrator membership affects who may connect rather than whether the setting exists at all.
27. A Windows administrator needs to apply a security setting to every computer in a domain automatically, without visiting each machine. Which tool is designed for this?
- A. Group Policy (via Active Directory)
- B. Task Manager
- C. Device Manager
- D. Disk Management
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Group Policy centrally pushes configuration and security settings to domain-joined computers and users, so A is correct. Task Manager (B) monitors and ends local processes. Device Manager (C) manages hardware drivers on one machine. Disk Management (D) handles local partitions and volumes.
28. A Windows technician preparing an internal data drive needs per-user access permissions on folders plus support for filesystem-level encryption of selected files. Which filesystem provides both capabilities?
- A. FAT32
- B. NTFS
- C. exFAT
- D. UDF
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
NTFS carries access control lists for granular per-user permissions and supports the Encrypting File System for protecting individual files and folders. FAT32 and exFAT store no permission or encryption metadata at all, which is why shared internal drives avoid them, and UDF is an optical media format designed for DVDs rather than permissioned hard drive storage.
29. A macOS user needs a utility to schedule automatic backups to an external drive so they can restore previous file versions. Which native tool should they use?
- A. Time Machine
- B. Disk Utility
- C. Keychain Access
- D. Spotlight
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Time Machine is the built-in macOS backup tool for automatic, versioned backups to an external drive, so A is correct. Disk Utility (B) formats and repairs disks. Keychain Access (C) stores credentials. Spotlight (D) is the search feature, not a backup tool.
30. A technician wants Windows to start in a minimal diagnostic configuration on the next restart, without having to press any keys during boot. Which utility offers a Boot tab with a Safe boot checkbox?
- A. System Configuration, launched as msconfig
- B. Registry Editor
- C. Task Scheduler
- D. DirectX Diagnostic Tool
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The System Configuration utility's Boot tab includes a Safe boot option that forces the next restart into the chosen minimal mode until it is unchecked. The Registry Editor could in principle alter boot data but offers no such checkbox and is far riskier, Task Scheduler automates tasks inside a running session, and the DirectX tool only reports graphics and sound capabilities.
31. A technician needs to view real-time CPU, memory, disk, and network utilization and identify which process is consuming the most memory on a Windows 11 PC. Which utility is the most direct choice?
- A. Task Manager
- B. Registry Editor
- C. System Restore
- D. msconfig Boot tab
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Task Manager shows live resource utilization per process, letting you spot the top memory consumer, so A is correct. Registry Editor (B) edits configuration keys, not live performance. System Restore (C) rolls back system state. The msconfig Boot tab (D) controls startup options, not real-time monitoring.
32. A videographer needs one flash drive that both Windows and macOS machines can read and write natively, including video files well over 4 GB each. Which filesystem should the drive use?
- A. exFAT
- B. FAT32
- C. NTFS
- D. ext4
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
exFAT is supported for both reading and writing by Windows and macOS and has no meaningful file size ceiling, making it the standard choice for cross-platform removable media. FAT32 caps individual files at 4 GB, which the video files exceed, NTFS mounts read-only on a Mac without extra software, and ext4 is a Linux filesystem neither desktop OS handles natively.
33. A user with a standard (non-administrator) account needs to install a printer driver that requires elevated privileges. What is the correct, secure way to complete this task?
- A. Permanently add the user to the local Administrators group
- B. Use 'Run as administrator' and supply valid administrator credentials via UAC
- C. Disable User Account Control (UAC) entirely
- D. Boot into Safe Mode to bypass permissions
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Elevating just the install task with admin credentials through UAC follows least privilege, so B is correct. Permanently granting admin rights (A) over-privileges the user. Disabling UAC (C) removes a key security control. Safe Mode (D) does not grant a standard user administrative rights and is not the intended mechanism.
34. A help desk agent troubleshooting a workstation needs its MAC address, its DHCP server, and the exact lease expiration in the output of a single command. Which command provides all three?
- A. ipconfig with no switches
- B. ping with the loopback address
- C. ipconfig /all
- D. netstat -an
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The full ipconfig /all listing includes each adapter's physical address, the DHCP server that granted the lease, and when the lease was obtained and expires. Plain ipconfig prints only the address, mask, and gateway, pinging loopback merely confirms the TCP/IP stack responds, and netstat enumerates open connections and listening ports without any adapter configuration details.
35. A Windows workstation must have a specific service stopped and prevented from restarting after reboot. Which approach accomplishes this?
- A. Stopping the service and setting its startup type to disabled in the services management console
- B. Ending the process in task manager only
- C. Deleting the service's program files
- D. Removing the user's permission to view the service
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Stopping addresses the current session while the startup type governs behaviour at the next boot, so both are needed for a persistent change. Ending the process leaves the startup configuration intact, and deleting program files breaks the service in a way that generates errors rather than cleanly disabling it.

Hardware & Network Troubleshooting

13 of 25 questions loaded

36. A long cable run stapled along the ceiling passes close to fluorescent light ballasts, and the attached PC logs intermittent network errors that worsen when the lights are on. The path cannot be rerouted. Which change best mitigates the problem?
- A. Coil the excess cable near the fixtures
- B. Force the NIC to half duplex
- C. Replace the run with properly grounded shielded twisted pair
- D. Shorten the DHCP lease on that segment
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Fluorescent ballasts radiate electromagnetic noise that induces errors on unshielded cable, and when the route is fixed, grounded shielded cabling is the standard countermeasure. Coiling slack beside the noise source concentrates the pickup instead of reducing it, forcing half duplex degrades performance without addressing interference, and DHCP lease timing is an addressing detail with no relationship to electrical noise.
37. Several users on one floor intermittently lose network connectivity while users on other floors are unaffected. All affected users connect through the same switch. Following the methodology, what is the best next action after identifying the pattern?
- A. Replace every user's network cable simultaneously
- B. Establish a theory of probable cause, such as a failing switch or its uplink
- C. Rebuild all affected computers from a backup image
- D. Escalate to the vendor before doing any analysis
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
After identifying that the common factor is one switch, the next methodology step is establishing a theory of probable cause (B). Mass cable replacement (A) is scattershot and ignores the shared-switch clue. Rebuilding PCs (C) is unrelated to a shared network device. Escalating first (D) skips your own analysis.
38. A laptop's built-in display flickers and occasionally goes black when the user tilts the lid, but the picture on an attached external monitor stays perfectly stable. What is the most likely fault?
- A. A failing graphics processor
- B. A corrupted user profile
- C. A damaged internal display cable or hinge wiring
- D. An outdated wireless driver
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Symptoms that track lid movement point to the display cable that flexes through the hinge, since physical motion is disturbing the connection while the video source itself is proven healthy by the stable external output. A failing GPU would corrupt both displays, a user profile affects settings and files rather than hardware signal paths, and the wireless driver has nothing to do with video output.
39. A technician suspects a failing hard drive causing slow reads and occasional read errors on a Windows PC. Which built-in tool most directly checks and repairs file-system and bad-sector issues on the volume?
- A. sfc /scannow
- B. chkdsk /r
- C. ipconfig /all
- D. diskpart clean
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
chkdsk /r scans for and attempts to recover data from bad sectors and fixes file-system errors, making B correct. sfc /scannow (A) repairs protected OS files, not disk sectors. ipconfig (C) is a networking tool. diskpart clean (D) erases the disk's partition data — destructive, not diagnostic.
40. A user's smartphone now drains its battery within a few hours and feels warm even when sitting idle in a pocket. Which diagnostic step should a technician take first?
- A. Perform an immediate factory reset
- B. Replace the battery the same day
- C. Disable the cellular radio permanently
- D. Review the battery usage statistics to identify a misbehaving app
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Heat and rapid drain at idle usually mean some process is running constantly, and the OS battery statistics screen names the offender in seconds, making it the cheapest and most informative first step. A factory reset may fix it but destroys data without ever identifying the cause, replacing hardware before diagnosis wastes money if an app is at fault, and permanently disabling cellular service makes the phone useless as a phone.
41. A newly built PC displays 'No bootable device' after passing POST. The technician confirms the SATA SSD spins up and is detected in firmware. Which is the MOST likely cause?
- A. The boot order lists a device without an OS ahead of the SSD, or the SSD has no OS installed
- B. The power supply wattage is too low
- C. The RAM is running in single-channel mode
- D. The CPU is not compatible with the chipset
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
POST passing and the drive being detected point to a boot-configuration issue: either an empty/incorrect boot order or a drive without an OS, so A is correct. Low PSU wattage (B) or CPU incompatibility (D) would prevent POST. Single-channel RAM (C) affects performance, not boot device detection.
42. A technician replaced a failed network card, tested connectivity thoroughly, and had the user confirm that everything works as expected. What is the final step of the troubleshooting process before the ticket is closed?
- A. Document the findings, actions taken, and outcome
- B. Establish a new theory of probable cause
- C. Re-image the workstation as a precaution
- D. Roll back the replacement to confirm the diagnosis
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The methodology ends with documenting what happened, what was done, and how it turned out so future technicians can benefit from the history. Forming another theory only applies when the problem persists, re-imaging a working machine wastes the user's time and destroys a good configuration, and reinstalling the failed part just to re-observe the fault would deliberately break a verified fix.
43. A monitor connected by HDMI shows an image that flickers and occasionally drops to a black screen, but a second known-good cable resolves it. Which troubleshooting step did this action represent?
- A. Establishing a plan of action
- B. Testing the theory to determine the cause
- C. Documenting findings
- D. Verifying full system functionality
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Swapping in a known-good cable to confirm the suspected faulty cable is testing the theory (B). Establishing a plan of action (A) comes after the theory is confirmed. Documentation (C) is the final step. Verifying full functionality (D) happens after the fix is applied and confirmed working.
44. During graphically intense games, a desktop's screen erupts in flickering checkerboard patterns and stray colored triangles before the video driver crashes. Card temperatures log very high. The desktop display is normal at idle. What is the most likely cause?
- A. The firmware needs a routine update
- B. The monitor panel has stuck pixels
- C. The display cable is loose
- D. The video card is overheating or beginning to fail
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Artifacts that appear only under 3D load and coincide with high temperatures are classic signs of GPU distress, either thermal or from degrading memory on the card. Stuck pixels stay in fixed positions regardless of workload, a loose cable causes flicker or signal loss at all times rather than only under load, and routine firmware updates do not address load-dependent visual corruption.
45. A laser printer produces pages with a repeating faint ghost image of previous content appearing at regular intervals down the page. Which component is the most likely cause?
- A. The imaging drum failing to fully discharge/clean between rotations
- B. A clogged inkjet nozzle
- C. A misaligned print head
- D. Low toner only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Repeating ghost images at a fixed interval correspond to the drum's circumference; a worn or improperly cleaned imaging drum retains residual charge/toner, so A is correct. Inkjet nozzles (B) and print heads (C) belong to inkjet printers, not laser. Simply low toner (D) causes faded, not ghosted, output.
46. A conference room projector keeps shutting itself off after about twenty minutes of use, and inspection shows its intake vents packed with dust. What was the most likely cause of the shutdowns?
- A. An HDCP handshake failure with the laptop
- B. An incorrect aspect ratio setting
- C. Overheating due to blocked airflow
- D. Depleted batteries in the remote control
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Projectors generate substantial heat and protect their lamp by powering down when internal temperatures climb, so clogged vents leading to thermal shutdown fits the twenty-minute pattern perfectly. A content protection handshake failure blanks or blocks the image immediately rather than after warm-up, aspect ratio only distorts the picture's shape, and the remote's batteries cannot switch a running projector off on a schedule.
47. A desktop powers on, fans spin, but there is no video output and the system emits a repeating beep code. What is the most appropriate FIRST step consistent with the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
- A. Immediately replace the motherboard
- B. Identify the problem by consulting the beep-code reference and checking recent changes
- C. Reinstall the operating system
- D. Document the outcome and close the ticket
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The methodology begins with identifying the problem, which here means interpreting the beep code and asking what changed, so B is correct. Replacing the board (A) skips theory/testing and may be wrong. Reinstalling the OS (C) is pointless with no POST/video. Documenting and closing (D) is the final step, not the first.
48. A small business server flashes an alert that its storage array is in a degraded state after one member drive failed, yet all data remains accessible to users. What should the technician do?
- A. Replace the failed member promptly and let the array rebuild
- B. Reformat the array to clear the alert
- C. Ignore the alert since the data is still reachable
- D. Convert the array to a striped set for better speed
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Degraded means the array is running without its redundancy, so one more failure loses everything; swapping in a replacement drive and rebuilding restores protection. Reformatting destroys the data that the redundancy just saved, ignoring the state gambles the whole array on the surviving drives, and converting to a plain stripe would permanently remove fault tolerance at the worst possible moment.

Operational Procedures

14 of 25 questions loaded

49. A company runs a full backup every Saturday night and incremental backups on each weeknight from Monday through Friday. The file server dies on Thursday morning. Which backup sets are needed for a complete restore?
- A. Only Saturday's full backup
- B. Saturday's full backup plus only Wednesday's incremental
- C. Saturday's full backup plus the Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday incrementals, four sets in all
- D. All seven of the most recent backup sets regardless of type
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Each incremental captures only the changes since the previous backup, so recovery requires the last full plus every incremental taken after it, in order: Saturday's full and then Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday nights, four sets. The full alone is missing three days of changes, using only Wednesday's set would work for a differential scheme but not incrementals, and grabbing seven sets includes tapes the restore does not need.
50. Earning the CompTIA A+ certification requires which of the following?
- A. Passing a single 90-minute exam
- B. Passing two separate exams, Core 1 (220-1201) and Core 2 (220-1202), which may be taken in any order
- C. Passing Core 1 before Core 2 in a required order
- D. Completing an unproctored online course only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
A+ requires passing both Core 1 and Core 2, and candidates may take them in any order, so B is correct. It is not a single exam (A). The order is not fixed — Core 1 need not precede Core 2 (C). It is not earned by a course alone (D); exams are required.
51. Another site performs a full backup each Sunday and a differential backup every weeknight. Its server fails on a Friday morning. How many backup sets does a complete restore require, and which ones?
- A. Five sets: the full plus every weeknight differential
- B. One set: Thursday's differential alone
- C. Two sets: Sunday's full backup and Thursday night's differential
- D. Three sets: the full plus the two most recent differentials
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A differential backup always contains everything changed since the last full backup, so the newest differential supersedes all earlier ones and recovery needs just the Sunday full plus Thursday night's set. Restoring every differential wastes time replaying data the last one already contains, a differential alone lacks the base system it was measured against, and adding a second differential contributes nothing the newest one is missing.
52. On the A+ Core 1 exam, which content domain carries the greatest weight, and approximately what percentage is it?
- A. Hardware, at 25%
- B. Networking, at 23%
- C. Hardware and network troubleshooting, at 28%
- D. Virtualization and cloud computing, at 11%
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Hardware and network troubleshooting is the highest-weighted Core 1 domain at 28%, so C is correct. Hardware is 25% (A), Networking is 23% (B), and Virtualization and cloud computing is only 11% (D) — all lower than troubleshooting.
53. A technician downloads a community-written script that changes registry settings across the fleet and plans to execute it in production that afternoon. What is the primary concern with this plan?
- A. Unreviewed scripts can introduce malware or unintended system changes, so it must be inspected and tested in a safe environment first
- B. Scripts are technically unable to modify registry settings
- C. Running it during the day automatically makes it safe
- D. Community scripts are always trustworthy once downloaded
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Code from the internet may carry malicious payloads or simply behave differently than advertised, and standard practice is reviewing it line by line and testing in an isolated environment before any production run. Scripts absolutely can modify the registry, which is exactly the danger, time of day has no bearing on safety, and popularity in a forum is no substitute for inspection.
54. Regarding the A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam format, which statement about the number of questions and time limit is correct?
- A. A maximum of 90 questions with 90 minutes to complete the exam
- B. A maximum of 60 questions with 120 minutes
- C. Exactly 100 questions with 60 minutes
- D. A maximum of 90 questions with 45 minutes
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Core 1 contains a maximum of 90 questions and candidates are given 90 minutes, so A is correct. The other options misstate either the question count or the time limit and contradict the published exam objectives.
55. A technician pulls a working graphics card from a workstation to ship it to a branch office. How should the card be packaged for the journey?
- A. Wrapped in an ordinary plastic grocery bag
- B. Sealed in an antistatic bag inside a padded shipping box
- C. Rolled in a wool cloth for cushioning
- D. Placed loose in the box with packing paper on top
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
An antistatic bag shields the card's circuitry from electrostatic discharge while the padded box absorbs shipping shocks, covering both hazards in transit. Ordinary plastic bags generate and hold static charge against the components, wool is a strong static generator that should never touch bare electronics, and a loose card slides and impacts the box walls with every bump in the road.
56. An organization wants a documented process so that all proposed modifications to production systems are reviewed, approved, and can be rolled back if they cause problems. Which operational practice does this describe?
- A. Change management
- B. Incident response
- C. Asset tagging
- D. End-user acceptance testing only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A formal review/approval/rollback process for system changes is change management, so A is correct. Incident response (B) handles security events after they occur. Asset tagging (C) tracks inventory. Acceptance testing alone (D) is one activity, not the governing approval-and-rollback process.
57. A technician resolves a recurring printing problem but types only the word fixed into the ticket before closing it. The help desk lead rejects the closure. What should proper ticket notes contain?
- A. Only the total time spent on the ticket
- B. A note that the user seemed satisfied on the phone
- C. A clear description of the problem, the steps taken, and the final resolution
- D. Nothing further, since the issue no longer occurs
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Ticket documentation exists so the next technician can understand what happened and reuse the fix, which requires the problem description, the actions performed, and the outcome in clear, professional language. Time tracking alone provides no technical value, a satisfaction remark records nothing about the actual repair, and an empty closure guarantees the next occurrence starts the investigation from zero.
58. A data center technician must handle sensitive circuit boards and memory modules during an upgrade. Which precaution most directly prevents electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage to components?
- A. Wearing an anti-static wrist strap connected to a proper ground
- B. Wearing rubber-soled shoes on carpet
- C. Increasing the room's heating to keep components warm
- D. Holding boards firmly by their gold edge connectors
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A grounded anti-static wrist strap safely equalizes charge between the technician and equipment, preventing ESD, so A is correct. Rubber soles on carpet (B) can build static charge. Higher heat (C) does not prevent ESD (low humidity actually worsens it). Touching gold edge connectors (D) can contaminate/damage contacts and does not prevent ESD.
59. A customer residing in the European Union emails a company asking that all of their personal data be deleted from its marketing systems. Under European data protection law, how should the request be treated?
- A. As ignorable, because the company is headquartered in the United States
- B. As a formal erasure request routed promptly through the company's privacy process
- C. As optional, honored only if the data is no longer useful
- D. As a request requiring the customer to appear in person
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
European data protection law grants individuals a right to erasure of their personal data, and companies that market to EU residents must process such requests through a defined procedure within set timeframes. The law reaches organizations handling EU residents' data regardless of headquarters location, compliance is an obligation rather than a convenience, and no in-person appearance can be demanded as a precondition.
60. When a technician arrives at a customer's desk to work on their computer, which behavior best reflects CompTIA's professionalism and communication expectations?
- A. Use technical jargon to demonstrate expertise
- B. Set and meet expectations, communicate in clear terms the user understands, and avoid distractions
- C. Take a personal phone call while working to stay reachable
- D. Access the user's personal files out of curiosity
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Professional conduct means communicating clearly, setting/meeting expectations, and avoiding distractions, so B is correct. Using jargon (A) confuses the customer. Taking personal calls (C) is a distraction and unprofessional. Browsing personal files (D) violates privacy and confidentiality.
61. During a dry winter, the humidity in a server room drops far below the recommended range. What risk does this create for technicians handling components there?
- A. Elevated electrostatic discharge that can damage electronics
- B. Corrosion forming on board contacts
- C. Mold growth inside the chassis
- D. Magnetic interference with the drives
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Dry air lets static charge build to damaging levels on people and surfaces, which is why low humidity dramatically raises ESD risk during component handling. Corrosion and mold are consequences of excessive moisture rather than dryness, and humidity has no relationship to magnetic fields around storage devices.
62. A technician discovers apparently illegal content while servicing a user's computer. What is the correct action?
- A. Preserve the device state, report through the organization's defined chain of custody process, and avoid further examination
- B. Delete the content and continue the repair
- C. Investigate further to confirm what was found
- D. Discuss the finding with colleagues before deciding
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Prohibited content triggers a defined escalation with documented custody, and further examination by an unqualified technician can compromise both the evidence and the technician's position. Deleting it destroys evidence and discussing it informally breaches confidentiality around what may become a legal matter.

Software Troubleshooting

13 of 20 questions loaded

63. A PC becomes sluggish immediately after sign-in, and dozens of third-party services and startup entries all load at once. The technician wants to isolate exactly which entry causes the slowdown. What is the standard approach?
- A. Re-image the machine without further investigation
- B. Perform a clean boot, then re-enable startup items in groups until the culprit appears
- C. Replace the boot drive with a larger one
- D. Increase the size of the paging file
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
A clean boot starts Windows with third-party services and startup items disabled; re-enabling them in batches then bisects the list until the offender is identified, which is the systematic isolation method. Re-imaging may hide the cause without ever finding it and costs the user their setup, a larger drive addresses capacity rather than startup load, and paging file size does not control what launches at sign-in.
64. A Windows PC is confirmed infected with malware. Per the CompTIA best-practice malware-removal steps, what should be done BEFORE running remediation tools?
- A. Immediately reinstall Windows from scratch
- B. Quarantine the infected system and disable System Restore before remediation
- C. Enable System Restore to create more restore points
- D. Connect the machine to the corporate network to update it
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The best-practice sequence quarantines the system (to stop spread) and disables System Restore (so malware isn't preserved in restore points) before remediating, so B is correct. Reinstalling immediately (A) is a last resort, not the required prior step. Enabling more restore points (C) can preserve the infection. Reconnecting to the network (D) risks spreading it.
65. An old inventory program that ran happily on an earlier Windows version refuses to start on a new Windows 11 machine, and the vendor no longer exists. Which built-in option should the technician try first?
- A. Run the program in compatibility mode from the executable's properties
- B. Disable User Account Control permanently
- C. Purchase a replacement application immediately
- D. Delete and reinstall Windows 11
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Compatibility mode makes Windows present itself to the program as the older version it expects, and it is a zero-cost first step built right into the executable's properties dialog. Reinstalling the OS would produce the same modern environment the program already rejects, buying new software may eventually be necessary but is premature before the free fix is tried, and permanently disabling UAC weakens security without addressing version compatibility.
66. An Android user reports that a specific app repeatedly crashes on launch after a recent update, while other apps work fine. What is the most appropriate first troubleshooting step?
- A. Factory reset the entire device
- B. Clear the app's cache/data, then update or reinstall the app
- C. Replace the device battery
- D. Flash a custom ROM
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
For a single misbehaving app, clearing its cache/data and reinstalling addresses corrupt app files with the least disruption, so B is correct. A factory reset (A) is drastic for one app. A battery swap (C) is unrelated to app crashes. Flashing a custom ROM (D) is risky, voids warranties, and is not a support step.
67. Windows displays a message at startup that one or more services failed to start, and the same third-party service is stopped after every boot, though it starts fine when launched manually. What should the technician examine first?
- A. The service's startup type and dependencies in the services console
- B. The physical memory modules
- C. The system firmware version
- D. The condition of the monitor cable
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A service that runs manually but dies at boot usually has a delayed dependency or wrong startup type, both visible in the services console, where switching to automatic delayed start or fixing the dependency chain typically cures it. Memory faults would cause wider instability than one repeatable service failure, firmware does not manage Windows service ordering, and the monitor cable is unrelated to service startup.
68. Users report that after clicking a link in an email, their browser homepage changed, ads appear constantly, and searches redirect to unfamiliar sites. Which malware category best describes this behavior?
- A. Ransomware
- B. Rootkit
- C. Browser hijacker / adware (PUP)
- D. Logic bomb
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Changed homepage, constant ads, and search redirection are signature behaviors of a browser hijacker/adware, so C is correct. Ransomware (A) encrypts files and demands payment. A rootkit (B) hides itself for stealthy access. A logic bomb (D) triggers a payload on a condition, not persistent ad redirection.
69. A line-of-business application crashes at launch following its latest vendor update, while every other program on the machine runs fine. Reinstalling the update did not help. Where can the technician find the detailed fault record produced at each crash?
- A. Disk Management
- B. The Application log in Event Viewer
- C. The Windows.old folder
- D. Credential Manager
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Application crashes are written to the Application log with the faulting module, exception code, and timestamp, giving the technician concrete evidence to share with the vendor or research further. Disk Management shows volumes and partitions rather than crash data, the Windows.old folder holds files from a previous OS installation, and Credential Manager stores saved sign-in secrets.
70. A user's applications launch slowly and the drive activity light is constantly lit on a system with a mechanical hard drive. What should be checked?
- A. Available free space, drive health indicators and whether excessive paging is occurring due to insufficient memory
- B. The monitor's refresh rate
- C. The keyboard layout setting
- D. The number of installed fonts
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Constant drive activity with slow response typically means the system is paging because physical memory is exhausted, or the drive is failing and retrying reads. Checking drive health attributes distinguishes the two, and a nearly full drive compounds both by leaving no room for the page file to expand.
71. An older phone turned sluggish right after a major OS update. Storage sits at 98 percent full and dozens of apps run in the background. What should the technician try before recommending anything drastic?
- A. Claim a warranty replacement for the hardware
- B. Remove the SIM card and reseat it
- C. Flash third-party firmware onto the phone
- D. Free up storage space, limit background apps, and restart the device
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Nearly full storage starves the OS of working space and heavy background activity competes for limited memory, so cleanup, background limits, and a restart are the proportionate first response. Third-party firmware voids support and risks bricking a corporate device, the SIM card affects cellular identity rather than performance, and a warranty claim is baseless when the slowdown has obvious software causes.
72. A recently updated application fails to launch on a Windows 10 PC, showing an error that it requires a newer version of the operating system. Reinstalling the application does not resolve the issue. What is the most appropriate next troubleshooting step?
- A. Run the application in compatibility mode for an older Windows version.
- B. Check whether the application actually requires a Windows version or feature not present on this PC, and update Windows or use a supported application version.
- C. Disable the PC's antivirus software permanently to allow the application to run.
- D. Replace the PC's power supply to resolve the software error.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
An explicit error stating the application requires a newer OS version points directly to a compatibility requirement mismatch, so the appropriate step is verifying and addressing that requirement, either by updating Windows or using a version of the application compatible with the current OS; compatibility mode simulates older, not newer, OS behavior, so it would not help here, and antivirus or power supply changes are unrelated to an OS version requirement error.
73. A desktop reports that no bootable device was found. A USB thumb drive from yesterday's file transfer is still plugged in, and firmware lists removable USB devices first in the boot order. What should the technician do first?
- A. Reinstall Windows immediately
- B. Replace the internal drive
- C. Remove the thumb drive or move the internal drive up the boot order, then restart
- D. Clear the firmware settings with the board jumper
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
With USB listed first, the machine tried to boot from a non-bootable data stick and gave up before ever consulting the internal drive, so removing the stick or reordering boot devices is the simple fix. Reinstalling the OS or replacing the drive attacks hardware that is probably healthy, and clearing all firmware settings is a shotgun step that loses configuration for no reason.
74. A user's web browser has become noticeably slow to load pages and occasionally freezes, despite a fast internet connection and no other applications running. What should the technician try first?
- A. Reinstall the entire operating system to fix the browser's performance.
- B. Replace the computer's network interface card.
- C. Clear the browser's cache and disable or remove unnecessary extensions and add-ons.
- D. Increase the monitor's refresh rate setting.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A slow, freezing browser despite good connectivity and no competing applications commonly results from an overloaded cache or resource-heavy extensions running in the background, so clearing cached data and disabling unnecessary add-ons is a quick, low-risk first step; reinstalling the OS is excessive for a browser-specific issue, and neither the network card nor monitor refresh rate affects browser rendering performance in this scenario.
75. Users of a laptop with 8 GB of memory see constant low memory warnings when a browser with many tabs runs alongside a photo editor. Task Manager shows commit charge near its ceiling but no single runaway process. What is the reasonable long-term fix?
- A. Disable the paging file
- B. Install additional RAM
- C. Clear the browser history every day
- D. Lower the display resolution
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
When the combined working set of legitimate applications simply exceeds installed memory, the honest fix is more physical RAM rather than fighting the symptoms. Disabling the paging file removes the overflow safety valve and makes out-of-memory failures worse, display resolution has negligible effect on system memory pressure, and browser history consumes disk space rather than RAM.

Mobile Devices

13 of 15 questions loaded

76. A user spilled coffee on a laptop last week, and several keys now stick or repeat characters even though the machine otherwise works fine. What is the most practical long-term fix?
- A. Remap the sticking keys to unused key combinations
- B. Replace the laptop's internal keyboard assembly
- C. Have the user rely on the on-screen keyboard permanently
- D. Flash updated keyboard firmware
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Sugary liquid leaves residue under the keycaps and inside the membrane, and once keys stick or repeat, replacing the keyboard assembly or top case is the reliable repair. Remapping keys just relocates the problem while leaving contaminated switches in place, the on-screen keyboard is a workaround rather than a fix for daily typing, and firmware cannot compensate for physically fouled contacts.
77. A user reports that their laptop runs fine on AC power but the battery drains within minutes and the reported charge percentage jumps erratically. Which component is the most likely cause?
- A. A failing/degraded battery that can no longer hold an accurate charge
- B. A corrupted GPU driver
- C. A failing Wi-Fi antenna
- D. An overheating CPU
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Rapid drain plus erratic percentage readings are classic symptoms of a worn lithium-ion battery whose cells and fuel-gauge calibration have degraded, so A is correct. A GPU driver (B) affects display, not charge behavior. A Wi-Fi antenna (C) affects connectivity. An overheating CPU (D) causes throttling/shutdowns, not erratic charge reporting.
78. An accountant wants to connect a laptop to two external monitors, wired Ethernet, and a keyboard through a single cable that also charges the laptop. What should the technician recommend?
- A. A USB 2.0 hub
- B. A USB-C docking station that supports Power Delivery and video output
- C. An HDMI splitter
- D. A Bluetooth adapter
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
A USB-C dock with Power Delivery carries video, USB peripherals, Ethernet, and charging over one cable, which is exactly the single-connection desk setup requested. A USB 2.0 hub adds ports but carries no video or charging, an HDMI splitter mirrors one video signal rather than extending two displays and does nothing for power or Ethernet, and Bluetooth cannot drive monitors or charge a laptop.
79. A user's smartphone gets very hot, drains quickly, and uses far more data than usual, even when idle. Which is the most likely explanation a technician should investigate first?
- A. A rogue or malicious app running in the background
- B. The screen brightness set too high
- C. A cracked screen protector
- D. Bluetooth being enabled
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Simultaneous overheating, fast battery drain, and unexpected background data are hallmark signs of a malicious or misbehaving app, so A is correct. High brightness (B) drains battery but does not spike data usage. A screen protector (C) is cosmetic. Bluetooth alone (D) uses minimal power and no cellular data.
80. A user wants more memory installed in a thin laptop that has one user-accessible memory slot. Which module form factor should the technician order for this upgrade?
- A. SODIMM
- B. Full-size desktop DIMM
- C. Registered ECC server DIMM
- D. SIMM
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Laptops use the small outline DIMM form factor because it is roughly half the length of a desktop module and fits the compact slot layout of portable boards. A full-size DIMM is physically too large, registered ECC modules are built for servers and are both the wrong size and electrically incompatible, and SIMM is an obsolete standard from decades-old systems.
81. A technician is asked to connect a laptop to an external 4K display and also charge the laptop through a single cable on a modern ultrabook. Which port supports video output, data, and power delivery simultaneously?
- A. USB-C with DisplayPort Alt Mode and Power Delivery
- B. RJ45
- C. Legacy VGA
- D. 3.5mm TRS
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
USB-C supporting DisplayPort Alt Mode plus Power Delivery carries video, data, and charging over one connector, so A is correct. RJ45 (B) is Ethernet only. VGA (C) is analog video only and cannot carry power or data. A 3.5mm TRS jack (D) is for audio.
82. A photographer wants a laptop whose panel produces true blacks by switching individual pixels completely off, with no backlight layer at all. Which display technology meets this requirement?
- A. IPS LCD
- B. TN LCD
- C. VA LCD
- D. OLED
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
OLED panels are emissive: each pixel generates its own light and can turn fully off, producing true black without any backlight. IPS, TN, and VA are all LCD variants that filter light from an always-on backlight, so some light leaks through even when displaying black, and none of them can match the contrast of a self-emissive panel.
83. When configuring corporate email on employee mobile devices, the IT team wants the ability to remotely wipe only company data if a device is lost. Which approach best meets this requirement?
- A. Enrolling devices in a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution with containerization
- B. Emailing each user the company password policy
- C. Disabling Wi-Fi on all devices
- D. Requiring users to back up to a personal cloud account
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
MDM with a managed container lets IT enforce policy and selectively wipe corporate data without touching personal data, so A is correct. Emailing a policy (B) enforces nothing technically. Disabling Wi-Fi (C) harms usability and doesn't protect lost-device data. Personal cloud backups (D) increase, not reduce, corporate-data exposure.
84. A customer's wireless earbuds were previously paired to an old phone, and now they will not appear in the new phone's Bluetooth list. What should the customer try first?
- A. Put the earbuds into pairing mode so they become discoverable to the new phone
- B. Factory reset the new phone
- C. Replace the earbud batteries
- D. Enable airplane mode on the new phone before scanning
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Bluetooth accessories usually reconnect automatically to their last paired device and stay hidden from scans until they are put back into pairing mode, so making the earbuds discoverable is the correct first step. A factory reset of the phone is a drastic measure that does not make the earbuds discoverable, sealed earbuds rarely have replaceable batteries, and airplane mode disables the very radios needed to pair.
85. A company issues mobile devices and wants to enforce encryption, passcode policy and the ability to wipe a lost device. What technology provides this?
- A. Mobile device management, which enrolls devices and applies and enforces policy centrally
- B. A group policy object applied from the domain controller
- C. The device manufacturer's consumer find-my-device service
- D. An antivirus application installed on each device
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Mobile device management provides enrollment, policy enforcement and remote actions including selective wipe of corporate data on personally owned devices. Group policy targets domain-joined Windows systems rather than mobile platforms, and consumer location services offer no central policy enforcement or reporting.
86. A technician is upgrading storage in a laptop whose M.2 slot supports PCIe. Which drive type will deliver the fastest performance in that slot?
- A. An M.2 SATA SSD
- B. An NVMe SSD that communicates over PCIe lanes
- C. An mSATA SSD with an adapter
- D. A 7200 rpm 2.5-inch hard drive
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
NVMe drives talk directly over PCIe lanes and dramatically outrun the SATA interface ceiling of roughly 600 MB per second. An M.2 SATA drive fits the same slot but is still bound by SATA speeds, an mSATA drive on an adapter has the same limitation with added compatibility risk, and a spinning hard drive is the slowest of all and does not fit an M.2 slot anyway.
87. A user reports their laptop battery drains quickly and the chassis is unusually warm. What should be checked before replacing the battery?
- A. Whether a runaway process is consuming CPU continuously, since sustained load explains both symptoms
- B. The screen resolution setting
- C. The number of files on the desktop
- D. Whether the keyboard backlight is enabled
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Heat and battery drain together point at sustained power draw rather than at battery degradation, which produces reduced runtime without extra heat. Checking resource usage costs nothing and frequently identifies malware, a stuck update process or a misbehaving application as the actual cause.
88. An executive frequently reviews confidential spreadsheets on airplane flights and worries that the passenger in the next seat can read the laptop screen. Which accessory directly addresses this concern?
- A. An anti-glare matte film
- B. A tempered glass screen protector
- C. A blue light reduction filter
- D. A privacy filter that narrows the screen's viewing angle
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
A privacy filter uses micro-louvers to restrict the visible angle of the display so only someone directly in front can read it, which defeats casual snooping from an adjacent seat. Anti-glare film only cuts reflections, tempered glass protects against scratches and impacts, and blue light filters change color temperature for eye comfort; none of those limit who can see the content.

Virtualization & Cloud Computing

12 questions

89. A developer must test an installer against several different Windows releases using a single workstation, resetting each test environment to a pristine state between runs. What is the most efficient setup?
- A. Multiboot partitions that are manually reimaged after each test
- B. Borrowing physical PCs from coworkers for each release
- C. A single installation using compatibility mode for each test
- D. A workstation hypervisor running one VM per Windows release, restored from snapshots between runs
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
A desktop hypervisor lets the developer keep one VM per OS release and snap each back to a clean baseline in seconds, which is the standard workflow for cross-version installer testing. Reimaging multiboot partitions takes far longer per cycle, borrowing physical machines does not scale and risks coworker data, and compatibility mode merely masquerades one OS as another rather than genuinely testing each release.
90. A customer wants a cloud model where they can rapidly scale storage and compute up during busy periods and pay only for what they consume. Which cloud characteristic does this describe?
- A. Resource pooling
- B. Rapid elasticity with measured (metered) service
- C. High availability
- D. Data sovereignty
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Scaling on demand and paying per use combine rapid elasticity and measured service, so B is correct. Resource pooling (A) describes shared multi-tenant infrastructure, not the pay-per-use scaling itself. High availability (C) is about uptime/redundancy. Data sovereignty (D) concerns where data is legally stored.
91. A lab host with 32 GB of physical RAM runs many virtual machines whose combined assigned memory far exceeds that amount. Under load, guests turn sluggish and one refuses to power on. What is the underlying problem?
- A. The guest tools package is outdated inside the VMs
- B. The virtual network adapters are misconfigured
- C. Host memory is overcommitted and physical RAM is exhausted
- D. The guests are running 32-bit operating systems
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Assigning more total memory than the host owns is overcommitment; when guests actually demand it, the hypervisor swaps heavily and eventually cannot reserve enough to start another VM, producing exactly these symptoms. Outdated guest tools degrade graphics and device integration rather than blocking power-on, network misconfiguration breaks connectivity but not startup, and guest OS bitness limits memory per guest without exhausting the host.
92. A company wants to run several isolated server operating systems directly on a single bare-metal host with no underlying host OS, for maximum performance and density. Which technology fits best?
- A. A Type 2 (hosted) hypervisor
- B. A Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor
- C. Application containers on a desktop OS
- D. A dual-boot configuration
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on hardware without a host OS, offering the best performance for multiple production VMs, so B is correct. A Type 2 hypervisor (A) runs atop an existing OS, adding overhead. Containers (C) share one kernel and are not full isolated OSes. Dual-boot (D) runs only one OS at a time.
93. Several regional hospitals subject to identical regulatory requirements jointly fund and share a cloud environment purpose-built for their group's compliance needs. Which cloud deployment model is this?
- A. Public cloud
- B. Private cloud for a single organization
- C. Community cloud
- D. Hybrid cloud
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A community cloud serves a defined group of organizations that share concerns such as compliance, jurisdiction, or mission, which describes hospitals pooling a purpose-built environment. A public cloud is open to any paying customer rather than a closed group, a private cloud belongs to one organization alone, and a hybrid model describes bridging private and public infrastructure rather than sharing among peers.
94. A technician sets up a virtual machine on a workstation. Which hardware feature must generally be enabled in firmware?
- A. CPU virtualization extensions, which the hypervisor requires to run guest instructions efficiently
- B. Secure boot, which validates the boot chain
- C. Wake-on-LAN, which permits remote power-on
- D. Fast startup, which shortens boot time
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Hardware virtualization support is commonly disabled by default and its absence produces hypervisor errors that appear unrelated to firmware settings. Secure boot, wake-on-LAN and fast startup address boot integrity, remote power management and startup time respectively, none of which affect a hypervisor's ability to run guests.
95. An IT team is consolidating ten aging physical servers onto a single host and wants the hypervisor installed directly on the hardware with no underlying operating system. Which hypervisor type is this?
- A. Type 2, a hosted hypervisor
- B. Type 1, a bare-metal hypervisor
- C. A container runtime
- D. A hardware emulator
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Type 1 hypervisors run directly on the server hardware and are the standard for production consolidation because they avoid the overhead and attack surface of a general-purpose host OS. Type 2 products install as applications on top of an existing desktop OS, container runtimes share a single kernel rather than running full guest machines, and emulators translate foreign architectures with heavy performance penalties.
96. An organization moves from on-premises servers to a cloud provider's infrastructure as a service offering. What remains the organization's responsibility?
- A. The guest operating system, applications, configuration and data, while the provider maintains the physical infrastructure and hypervisor
- B. Nothing, since the provider assumes full responsibility
- C. Only the physical security of the data centre
- D. Only the network cabling within the facility
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Infrastructure as a service places the boundary below the guest operating system, so patching, configuration and data protection above that line remain with the customer. The boundary moves upward through platform and software as a service, which is why assuming one model's division applies to another is a frequent source of unaddressed exposure.
97. A development team deploys its code to a cloud platform where the provider manages the servers, operating systems, patching, and runtime, and the team is responsible only for its own application. Which service model is this?
- A. Infrastructure as a service
- B. Software as a service
- C. A colocation facility
- D. Platform as a service
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Platform as a service abstracts away the infrastructure and runtime layers so developers just push application code, matching the division of responsibility described. Infrastructure as a service would leave the team administering operating systems and patching on rented VMs, software as a service delivers a finished application with no custom code deployment at all, and colocation only rents rack space and power for hardware the customer still owns and manages.
98. A software developer wants to run an isolated test operating system inside a window on their existing Windows desktop, without dedicating separate physical hardware. Which solution is most appropriate?
- A. Install a bare-metal hypervisor directly on the desktop's hardware in place of Windows.
- B. Configure the desktop to dual-boot into a second operating system at startup.
- C. Install the test operating system on a USB drive and boot from it using legacy BIOS.
- D. Install a type 2 hypervisor application within the existing Windows OS to host the virtual machine.
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
A type 2 hypervisor runs as an application on top of an existing host operating system, letting a user launch an isolated virtual machine in a window without replacing or repartitioning the current OS; a bare-metal (type 1) hypervisor would require removing the host OS, dual-booting only runs one OS at a time rather than simultaneously, and a bootable USB does not provide the requested windowed, concurrent isolation.
99. A security analyst wants to open a suspicious email attachment in a way that poses no risk to the production network or the analyst's own workstation. What is the best environment for this?
- A. The analyst's daily laptop with antivirus running
- B. A spare desktop plugged into the office VLAN
- C. An isolated virtual machine with networking disabled and a snapshot ready to roll back
- D. A folder excluded from antivirus scanning on a file server
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A sandbox VM with its virtual NIC removed contains anything the attachment does, and reverting to a snapshot erases every trace afterward, which is exactly the point of using virtualization for malware analysis. Antivirus on a production laptop can miss new threats that then own the machine, a spare desktop on the office VLAN can spread infection laterally, and an exclusion folder on a server is the opposite of containment.
100. A company subscribes to a web-based email and productivity suite where the vendor manages the servers, operating systems, application code, and updates entirely, leaving the company responsible only for user accounts and data. Which cloud service model does this describe?
- A. Software as a Service (SaaS)
- B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- C. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- D. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) limited to virtual desktop delivery only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Software as a Service delivers a complete, ready-to-use application, such as web-based email, where the provider manages the entire stack including servers, operating system, and application code, leaving the customer responsible only for their data and user accounts; IaaS would require the customer to manage the OS and application themselves, and PaaS would still require the customer to manage application code and deployment.

Showing 100 of 303 questions.

Key facts: CompTIA A+ exam

Questions: 90
Time limit: 1h 30m
Passing score: Core 1 (220-1201): 675 on a scale of 900
Governing body: CompTIA

This free CompTIA A+ practice test has 303 original questions written from CompTIA's official sources, last checked against them on August 6, 2026, 100 of them listed on this page and the rest loaded by the drill. Every question shows a worked explanation, and nothing here requires a signup.

The questions are grouped under nine outline areas: Mobile devices, Security, Networking, Software troubleshooting, Operating systems, Operational procedures, Hardware and network troubleshooting, Virtualization and cloud computing and Hardware.

How the CompTIA A+ practice bank covers the outline

Operating systems46 · 15%

Operational procedures43 · 14%

Security40 · 13%

Hardware and network troubleshooting38 · 13%

Hardware36 · 12%

Networking33 · 11%

Software troubleshooting26 · 9%

Mobile devices25 · 8%

Virtualization and cloud computing16 · 5%

Counts are the live question bank, grouped by the outline area each question was written to.

303 practice questions across nine outline areas. The largest, Operating systems, holds 46 questions (15%).

About these practice questions

Written by Every Exam Prep Editorial TeamSource and review policy

Verified against CompTIA's official sources August 6, 2026

These are original study questions written from published exam objectives—not recalled, copied, or confidential live-exam items. Always confirm current coverage with the official sources linked on this page.

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Official sources

The official documents our facts about this exam are taken from.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam DetailsCompTIAcomptia.org
CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) Exam DetailsCompTIAcomptia.org
Occupational Employment and Wage Statistics, May 2025 — Computer User Support Specialists (SOC 15-1232)U.S. Bureau of Labor Statisticsbls.goveffective May 31, 2025
CompTIA A+ Core 1 and 2 (V15) Certification OverviewCompTIAcomptia.org
CompTIA Certification Renewal PolicyCompTIAcomptia.org
CompTIA A+ Certification OverviewCompTIAcomptia.org

Last verified against CompTIA's official sources: August 6, 2026

Frequently asked questions

Do I have to pass two exams to earn CompTIA A+, and can I take them in either order?

Yes. CompTIA A+ certification requires passing two separate exams: Core 1 (220-1201) and Core 2 (220-1202). Candidates may take the two A+ exams in any order. Because Core 1 focuses on hardware and networking while Core 2 focuses on operating systems and security, many candidates schedule them close together but sequence them around whichever domain set they feel more prepared for first.

What score do I need to pass each A+ exam, and are the passing marks the same for both?

No, the two cutoffs differ. The passing score for A+ Core 1 is 675 on a scale of 900, while the passing score for A+ Core 2 is 700 on a scale of 900. Because both exams are scored out of 900, Core 2 requires a slightly higher raw performance to pass, so don't assume a comfortable Core 1 result guarantees the same margin on Core 2.

How many questions are on each A+ exam and how long do I get?

Each A+ exam contains a maximum of 90 questions and allows 90 minutes per exam. That works out to roughly one minute per question if the exam is at its maximum length, so budget your time on performance-based items and flag longer questions to revisit rather than stalling on them.

Once I earn A+, how long is it valid and do I have to retake the exams to keep it?

CompTIA A+ certification is valid for three years from the certification date, and the Continuing Education renewal cycle is three years from the date the certification is earned. You do not have to sit the exams again: A+ may be renewed by earning Continuing Education Units (CEUs) without retaking the exam. Plan to accumulate CEUs across the three-year window rather than scrambling near expiration.