ASVAB Practice Test.
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1. Simple interest: how much interest does $2,000 earn in 3 years at 5 percent per year?
- A. $2,300
- B. $500
- C. $100
- D. $300
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Simple interest is principal × rate × time: 2000 × 0.05 × 3 = $300. One year earns $100, and three years earn three times that. The $2,300 answer is the final balance rather than the interest — reread whether the question asks for interest earned or total amount, because the ASVAB plants both among the choices on nearly every interest problem.2. One standard six-sided die is rolled once. What is the probability of rolling a number greater than 4?
- A. 2/3
- B. 1/6
- C. 1/3
- D. 1/2
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Answer: C
Greater than 4 means rolling 5 or 6 — two favorable outcomes out of six equally likely, so 2/6 = 1/3. Including 4 itself (three outcomes) produces the 1/2 trap, which is why the strict inequality matters: 'greater than' excludes the boundary, 'at least' includes it. Counting the favorable list explicitly beats reasoning about it abstractly.3. Apply the distributive property to simplify 5x + 3(2x − 4) into a single expression.
- A. 11x − 12
- B. 16x − 12
- C. 10x − 12
- D. 11x − 4
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Answer: A
Distribute the 3 across both terms: 6x − 12, then combine with 5x to get 11x − 12. Forgetting to multiply the −4 by 3 leaves −4 (the second choice); adding 5 + 3 + 2x-coefficients wrongly gives 16x. Distribution errors on the second term inside parentheses are the dominant algebra slip on Mathematics Knowledge — the negative term always gets the multiplier too.4. What is the average speed of a truck that covers 210 miles in 3.5 hours of driving?
- A. 55 miles per hour
- B. 70 miles per hour
- C. 63 miles per hour
- D. 60 miles per hour
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Average speed is total distance over total time: 210 ÷ 3.5 = 60 mph. Dividing by 3 instead of 3.5 gives the 70 trap. A clean mental route: 3.5 hours at 60 mph is 180 + 30 = 210 miles, confirming the answer. Decimal-hour division trips more candidates than the concept, so converting 3.5 to 7/2 and multiplying by 2/7 is often faster.5. Which unit measures electrical resistance in a circuit?
- A. The ampere
- B. The ohm
- C. The watt
- D. The volt
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Resistance is measured in ohms, electrical pressure in volts, current flow in amperes, and power in watts. Electronics Information leans on this unit map plus Ohm's law tying three of them together (V = I × R) and the power relation (P = V × I). Matching each quantity to its unit is the fastest-scoring question type in the electronics subtest.6. Concrete is mixed from cement and sand in a 2:5 ratio by weight. How much cement is needed for 350 pounds of mix?
- A. 140 pounds
- B. 250 pounds
- C. 70 pounds
- D. 100 pounds
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
A 2:5 ratio makes 7 total parts, so each part is 350 ÷ 7 = 50 pounds, and cement's 2 parts weigh 100 pounds. The 140 distractor treats the ratio as 2/5 of the total instead of 2/7 — the part-to-part versus part-to-whole confusion that ratio questions are built to catch. Summing the ratio's parts first is the reliable opening move.7. Solve for the variable: 4(x − 3) = 20. What is x?
- A. x = 5
- B. x = 8
- C. x = 17
- D. x = 2
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Answer: B
Divide both sides by 4 first: x − 3 = 5, then add 3: x = 8. Distributing first (4x − 12 = 20 → 4x = 32 → x = 8) lands in the same place. The x = 5 trap stops after the division without restoring the subtracted 3. Mathematics Knowledge rewards picking whichever route has fewer steps and checking by substitution: 4(8 − 3) = 20 confirms it.8. What is the value of 3² + 2³ when both terms are evaluated?
- A. 12
- B. 13
- C. 17
- D. 36
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Evaluate each power: 3² = 9 and 2³ = 8, so the sum is 17. The 12 distractor multiplies base by exponent (3×2 + 2×3), the most common exponent misconception, and 36 multiplies the two powers instead of adding. Exponents mean repeated multiplication of the base — writing out 3×3 and 2×2×2 takes five seconds and eliminates the error class entirely.9. A rectangular storage yard measures 30 feet by 20 feet. How many feet of fencing are needed to enclose it completely?
- A. 50 feet
- B. 120 feet
- C. 100 feet
- D. 600 feet
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Fencing follows the perimeter: 2 × (30 + 20) = 100 feet. The 600 answer is the area in square feet — the enclosure question's standard bait — and 50 adds the two dimensions once instead of twice. Translate the physical ask into the right measure first: fencing, borders, and trim are perimeter; paint, carpet, and sod are area.10. A shipping crate measures 4 feet long, 3 feet wide, and 2 feet high. What is its volume?
- A. 52 cubic feet
- B. 24 cubic feet
- C. 9 cubic feet
- D. 12 cubic feet
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Volume of a rectangular solid is length × width × height: 4 × 3 × 2 = 24 cubic feet. Adding the dimensions gives 9, and 52 is the crate's surface area — a different measure that answers a different question. Volume questions on Mathematics Knowledge stay computational; the skill is pairing the formula to the three-dimensional ask and keeping units cubic.11. Two angles are supplementary, and one measures 68 degrees. What does the other measure?
- A. 292 degrees
- B. 68 degrees
- C. 112 degrees
- D. 22 degrees
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Supplementary angles sum to 180 degrees: 180 − 68 = 112. The 22-degree answer uses 90 — the complementary sum — which is the single most common confusion in this question family. A memory hook: C for complementary and corner (90°), S for supplementary and straight line (180°). Expect one of these two definitions on nearly every form.12. A convoy travels 180 miles at a steady 45 miles per hour. How long does the trip take?
- A. 5 hours
- B. 3 hours
- C. 4 hours
- D. 2.5 hours
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Time equals distance divided by rate: 180 ÷ 45 = 4 hours. Arithmetic Reasoning leans heavily on the distance-rate-time triangle, and the fastest check is estimation — at 45 mph you cover 90 miles in 2 hours, so 180 miles must take twice that. Misreading which quantity is asked (time versus distance) causes more misses than the arithmetic itself.13. A 16-ounce box of pasta costs $2.40, and a 24-ounce box costs $3.36. Which is the better buy, and at what unit price?
- A. They cost the same per ounce
- B. The 24-ounce box, at 14 cents per ounce
- C. The 16-ounce box, at 12 cents per ounce
- D. The 16-ounce box, at 15 cents per ounce
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Unit price is total cost divided by quantity: 240 ÷ 16 = 15 cents per ounce for the small box, and 336 ÷ 24 = 14 cents per ounce for the large one — so the larger box wins by a cent per ounce. Working in cents avoids decimal slips. Better-buy problems are an Arithmetic Reasoning staple, and the trap is comparing total prices instead of unit prices.14. A crew paints 3 rooms in 2 days working at a constant rate. At that pace, how many rooms can the crew paint in 10 days?
- A. 20 rooms
- B. 15 rooms
- C. 12 rooms
- D. 30 rooms
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Ten days is five times the two-day period, so the output scales by five: 3 × 5 = 15 rooms. Setting it as a proportion (3/2 = x/10, so x = 15) reaches the same answer. Rate problems reward finding the multiplier between the given period and the asked period before touching the other quantity — jumping straight to multiplication of the wrong pair is the planted error.15. The overnight temperature fell from 7°F to −9°F at a weather station. How many degrees did it drop?
- A. 63 degrees
- B. 16 degrees
- C. 9 degrees
- D. 2 degrees
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The drop is the difference: 7 − (−9) = 7 + 9 = 16 degrees. Subtracting a negative adds its magnitude — the number line runs 7 degrees down to zero and 9 more below it. Signed-number temperature problems test exactly this crossing-zero step, and the 2-degree distractor comes from subtracting the digits while ignoring the sign entirely.16. A mechanic's shop charges $65 for parts plus $40 per hour of labor. A repair bill totals $225. How many hours of labor were billed?
- A. 3 hours
- B. 4 hours
- C. 5 hours
- D. 6 hours
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Strip the fixed charge first: 225 − 65 = 160 of labor, then 160 ÷ 40 = 4 hours. As an equation, 65 + 40h = 225. The classic error divides the whole bill by the hourly rate without removing the parts charge, giving an answer between 5 and 6 that rounds to the planted 5. Fixed-plus-variable billing is among the most repeated Arithmetic Reasoning setups.17. A fuel tank holds 3/4 of its 48-gallon capacity. After a trip consumes 15 gallons, how many gallons remain?
- A. 21 gallons
- B. 33 gallons
- C. 27 gallons
- D. 18 gallons
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Answer: A
Start with the actual fuel: 3/4 of 48 = 36 gallons, then subtract the trip's 15: 36 − 15 = 21 gallons. The 33 distractor subtracts from full capacity, skipping the fraction step entirely. Multi-step word problems on the ASVAB chain a fraction operation to an arithmetic one, and writing the intermediate value down prevents the skipped-step errors that timed pressure invites.18. A price rises from $60 to $75 over a season. What is the percent increase in the price?
- A. 80 percent
- B. 20 percent
- C. 25 percent
- D. 15 percent
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Percent change divides the change by the ORIGINAL value: (75 − 60) ÷ 60 = 15/60 = 25 percent. Dividing by the new value gives 20 percent — the standard trap — and 15 is the raw dollar change misread as a percent. On any percent-change item, identify the base before dividing; the earlier value is the base for an increase.19. A team of 4 workers can unload a trailer in 6 hours. Working at the same individual rate, how long would 8 workers take?
- A. 3 hours
- B. 1.5 hours
- C. 4 hours
- D. 12 hours
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Answer: A
The job takes 4 × 6 = 24 worker-hours; 8 workers divide that into 24 ÷ 8 = 3 hours. Doubling the workers halves the time — an inverse proportion, which is why the 12-hour answer (direct proportion) is the planted error. Computing total worker-hours first converts every crew-size question into simple division and sidesteps the direct-versus-inverse confusion.20. Which value of n satisfies the inequality 2n + 5 < 11 among the following?
- A. n = 2
- B. n = 4
- C. n = 3
- D. n = 5
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Solve like an equation: 2n < 6, so n < 3. Only 2 satisfies the strict inequality — 3 itself fails because 2(3) + 5 = 11 is not LESS than 11. Testing the boundary value is the tested skill: strict inequalities exclude equality, and the answer choice sitting exactly on the boundary is nearly always planted. Substituting each choice back verifies in seconds.21. In the sentence 'Supplies at the outpost were abundant after the delivery,' the word abundant most nearly means:
- A. Plentiful
- B. Rationed
- C. Hidden
- D. Spoiled
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Answer: A
Abundant means existing in large quantity — plentiful. The sentence's logic helps: supplies after a delivery would naturally be ample, not spoiled or hidden. Word Knowledge rewards substitution testing: drop each candidate into the sentence and keep the one preserving the meaning. Rationed reverses the sense, describing scarcity management rather than plenty.22. In the sentence 'The sergeant gave concise instructions before the drill,' the word concise most nearly means:
- A. Brief and clear
- B. Loud and forceful
- C. Confusing
- D. Written down
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Answer: A
Concise means expressing much in few words — brief and to the point. It carries no meaning about volume, confusion, or medium; instructions can be concise whether whispered or written. The root shares 'cis' (cut, as in scissors and incision): concise language has the excess cut away — a root-based hook that resolves several related Word Knowledge entries.23. In the sentence 'Her account of the incident corroborated the witness's report,' corroborated most nearly means:
- A. Confirmed
- B. Recorded
- C. Delayed
- D. Contradicted
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Answer: A
To corroborate is to support or confirm with additional evidence — her account backed the witness up. Contradicted is the direct opposite, planted because unfamiliar words tempt opposite-guessing. Word Knowledge frequently tests confirm/contradict pairs; when unsure, the sentence's tone (two accounts aligning versus clashing) usually points the right way.24. In the sentence 'The recruits found the terrain arduous during the march,' the word arduous most nearly means:
- A. Difficult and tiring
- B. Flat and open
- C. Unfamiliar
- D. Scenic
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Answer: A
Arduous means demanding great effort — steep, strenuous, exhausting. Flat and open describes the opposite terrain, and scenic or unfamiliar describe qualities unrelated to effort. Context signals difficulty: terrain 'found arduous during a march' implies strain. When two options are unrelated qualities and one is an antonym, the remaining effort-related choice usually wins.25. In the sentence 'The commander was candid about the mission's risks,' the word candid most nearly means:
- A. Secretive
- B. Optimistic
- C. Honest and direct
- D. Uncertain
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Answer: C
Candid means frank and truthful, speaking openly even when the message is unwelcome — here, leveling with the unit about danger. Secretive is its antonym; optimistic mistakes openness for positivity, and a candid assessment can be grim. Word Knowledge favors words whose common photo-related sense ('candid shot' = unposed, honest capture) hints at the core meaning.26. In the sentence 'Rust had begun to deteriorate the bridge supports,' deteriorate most nearly means:
- A. Wear down or worsen
- B. Discolor slightly
- C. Support
- D. Strengthen
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Answer: A
To deteriorate is to decline in condition or quality — the rust is degrading the supports' integrity, not merely tinting them. Discolor understates the meaning (a frequent distractor pattern: a milder cousin of the right answer), while strengthen and support invert it. When two choices differ only in severity, the tested word's dictionary weight decides — deterioration is decay, not cosmetics.27. In the sentence 'The quartermaster kept a meticulous inventory of equipment,' meticulous most nearly means:
- A. Secret
- B. Extremely careful about details
- C. Outdated
- D. Casual and approximate
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Answer: B
Meticulous describes painstaking attention to detail — every item counted and recorded precisely. Casual and approximate is the antonym; secret and outdated describe unrelated qualities. An inventory context reinforces precision. Word Knowledge repeats a family of carefulness words (meticulous, thorough, diligent, scrupulous), and all resolve to detail-oriented care.28. In the sentence 'The negotiations reached an impasse by nightfall,' the word impasse most nearly means:
- A. A change of location
- B. A deadlock with no progress possible
- C. A successful agreement
- D. A brief recess
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Answer: B
An impasse is a point where no advance is possible — literally a road with no passage (im- negating 'pass'). Agreement reverses the meaning, and recess mistakes a stuck state for a scheduled pause. The embedded root 'pass' plus the negating prefix decodes the word even when unfamiliar — the prefix-root strategy Word Knowledge is designed to reward.29. In the sentence 'A prudent driver checks the forecast before a mountain crossing,' prudent most nearly means:
- A. Slow
- B. Wisely cautious
- C. Experienced
- D. Fearful
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Answer: B
Prudent means exercising sound, careful judgment — checking conditions before committing is wise caution, not fear. Fearful overshoots into anxiety, and experienced describes background rather than judgment; a novice can act prudently. The caution-versus-fear gradient recurs on Word Knowledge: prudent, wary, and cautious sit on the sensible side of the line.30. In the sentence 'The mechanic tried to rectify the wiring fault before inspection,' rectify most nearly means:
- A. Worsen
- B. Correct
- C. Conceal
- D. Document
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Answer: B
To rectify is to set right — to fix the fault. The root 'rect' means straight or right (rectangle, correct, direct), a decoding hook for the whole family. Conceal implies hiding the problem instead of fixing it, a tempting misread given the looming inspection, but the word itself carries repair, not disguise. Root recognition converts unknown words into solvable ones.31. In the sentence 'Water is a scarce commodity in the desert training area,' scarce most nearly means:
- A. Contaminated
- B. Heavy to transport
- C. In short supply
- D. Free of charge
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Answer: C
Scarce means insufficient for the demand — hard to come by. The desert context underlines shortage, not quality (contaminated) or logistics (heavy). Scarcity vocabulary (scarce, sparse, meager, deficient) forms a recurring Word Knowledge cluster, all resolving to 'not enough,' with their antonyms (abundant, ample, plentiful) forming the opposite cluster.32. Passage: 'Tourniquets, once discouraged, are now standard first-aid equipment for severe limb bleeding. Modern studies showed that properly applied tourniquets rarely cause the tissue damage older manuals feared, while dramatically improving survival.' According to the passage, guidance on tourniquets changed because:
- A. Limb injuries became less common
- B. Tourniquets became cheaper to manufacture
- C. Older manuals were lost
- D. Studies showed the feared harm was rare and the survival benefit large
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Answer: D
The passage credits modern studies on both sides of the ledger: rare tissue damage, dramatic survival improvement — evidence overturned the old caution. Cost, lost manuals, and injury rates never appear. Paragraph Comprehension rewards cause-stated-in-text answers; the correct choice restates the passage's own reason, while distractors import plausible outside explanations.33. Passage: 'Cold saps battery performance. A vehicle battery that cranks strongly at 80 degrees may deliver less than half its starting power at zero degrees, which is why winter mornings reveal weak batteries that summer concealed.' The main point of the passage is that:
- A. Low temperatures sharply reduce a battery's starting power
- B. Vehicles should not be started on winter mornings
- C. Weak batteries are impossible to detect
- D. Batteries should be replaced every summer
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Answer: A
Every sentence serves one claim: cold cuts cranking power, so winter exposes weakness summer masked. The passage recommends nothing — no replacement schedule, no starting ban — and 'impossible to detect' contradicts the winter-reveals point. Main-idea items reward the choice covering the whole short passage without adding advice the author never gave.34. Passage: 'Before radios, ships relayed orders with signal flags. A single hoist could carry a complete instruction, but only if both crews shared the same codebook; a flag's meaning was convention, not nature.' The passage implies that a signal flag's message depended on:
- A. The size of the flag used
- B. Weather conditions alone
- C. An agreed code shared by sender and receiver
- D. The speed of the ship
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Answer: C
'Only if both crews shared the same codebook' and 'meaning was convention' point to agreement between parties as the load-bearing condition. Size, speed, and weather are never raised. Inference items on Paragraph Comprehension stay one small step from the text — the answer rephrases the stated condition rather than speculating beyond it.35. Passage: 'The supply clerk logged each item twice: once at receipt and once at issue. Discrepancies between the two logs flagged losses within days rather than at the annual inventory, when trails had long gone cold.' The double-logging system's chief advantage was:
- A. Doubling the storage capacity
- B. Eliminating the need for annual inventories
- C. Catching losses quickly, while they could still be traced
- D. Reducing the amount of paperwork
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The passage contrasts flagging losses 'within days' against discovery at the annual inventory 'when trails had long gone cold' — speed of detection while traceable is the stated advantage. Double logging increases paperwork rather than reducing it, and the annual inventory still exists in the passage. The advantage named in the text beats advantages that merely sound administrative.36. Passage: 'Dead reckoning estimates a ship's position from its last known fix, course, and speed. It accumulates error with every hour sailed, which is why navigators corrected it against the stars whenever skies allowed.' Why did navigators correct dead reckoning with celestial observations?
- A. Because stars move more predictably than ships
- B. Because course and speed cannot be measured at sea
- C. Because dead reckoning requires darkness to work
- D. Because dead reckoning's error grows the longer it runs uncorrected
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
The passage states the reason directly: dead reckoning 'accumulates error with every hour sailed,' so periodic corrections against an independent reference kept the estimate honest. The other choices invent mechanics the text never claims — course and speed are inputs the method uses, not unmeasurable quantities. Cause questions reward the reason the passage itself supplies.37. Which process do green plants use to convert sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide into food?
- A. Fermentation
- B. Digestion
- C. Respiration
- D. Photosynthesis
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Photosynthesis uses chlorophyll to capture light energy, combining carbon dioxide and water into glucose and releasing oxygen. Respiration runs the reverse direction — breaking glucose down for energy — in plants and animals alike, and it is the standard distractor because the two processes mirror each other. General Science tests the pairing: photosynthesis stores energy, respiration releases it.38. Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart in the human circulatory system?
- A. Arteries
- B. Lymph vessels
- C. Capillaries only
- D. Veins
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Arteries carry blood away from the heart ('A' for artery and away), veins return it, and capillaries are the microscopic exchange vessels connecting the two. Most arterial blood is oxygen-rich, but the definition is direction, not oxygen content — the pulmonary artery carries oxygen-poor blood away from the heart, the exception General Science uses to punish the oxygen-based shortcut.39. Water changes directly from solid ice to liquid at which point on the Fahrenheit scale at sea level?
- A. 212 degrees
- B. 0 degrees
- C. 100 degrees
- D. 32 degrees
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Answer: D
Water freezes and melts at 32°F (0°C) and boils at 212°F (100°C) at sea level. The Celsius values 0 and 100 are planted as Fahrenheit answers — the scale-swap trap this question family always sets. Anchoring both pairs (32/212 Fahrenheit, 0/100 Celsius) closes out every version of the phase-change temperature question General Science asks.40. Which planet in the solar system orbits closest to the Sun?
- A. Mars
- B. Venus
- C. Mercury
- D. Earth
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The order outward is Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, then the gas and ice giants. Venus is the common wrong pick because it is the hottest planet — its dense carbon dioxide atmosphere traps heat — but hottest and closest are different superlatives, and the question asks distance. General Science regularly splits such near-miss superlatives across the choices.41. In the food chain, organisms that make their own food from sunlight are called:
- A. Producers
- B. Predators
- C. Consumers
- D. Decomposers
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Answer: A
Producers — chiefly green plants and algae — manufacture food through photosynthesis and anchor every food chain. Consumers eat other organisms, decomposers recycle dead matter back into nutrients, and predators are a subset of consumers. The producer-consumer-decomposer triad is a General Science fixture, tested both as definitions and as ordering within an ecosystem diagram.42. Using Ohm's law, what current flows through a 12-ohm resistor connected across a 24-volt source?
- A. 288 amperes
- B. 2 amperes
- C. 12 amperes
- D. 0.5 amperes
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Ohm's law rearranges to I = V ÷ R: 24 ÷ 12 = 2 amperes. Inverting the division gives 0.5, and multiplying gives 288 — both planted. The triangle memory aid (V on top, I and R below) sets up all three rearrangements: cover the unknown and the layout shows the operation. Electronics Information asks this in every direction, so the triangle pays for itself.43. Which material is the best conductor of electricity among the following choices?
- A. Copper
- B. Dry wood
- C. Rubber
- D. Glass
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Copper's loosely bound outer electrons carry current readily, which is why household wiring is copper. Rubber, glass, and dry wood are insulators — their electrons are tightly held — and rubber's role is coating conductors for safety, not conducting. The conductor/insulator split, plus silver-copper-aluminum ranking among conductors, is standard Electronics Information ground.44. In a household electrical system, what is the primary purpose of a fuse or circuit breaker?
- A. To store electricity for outages
- B. To increase the voltage to appliances
- C. To interrupt the circuit when current exceeds a safe level
- D. To convert AC power to DC
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Fuses melt and breakers trip when current exceeds their rating, opening the circuit before wiring overheats — overcurrent protection, nothing more. Transformers change voltage, batteries store energy, and rectifiers convert AC to DC; each is a separate device Electronics Information tests individually. Matching protective, storage, and conversion roles to their devices resolves a whole question family.45. In a series circuit with several resistors, the current flowing through each resistor is:
- A. Zero except at the battery
- B. The same through every resistor
- C. Split evenly among them
- D. Largest through the biggest resistor
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Answer: B
A series circuit has one path, so the same current passes through every element; what divides among series resistors is voltage, in proportion to resistance. Parallel circuits reverse the rule: voltage is common and current divides. The series/parallel duality — what stays constant versus what divides — is the single highest-yield concept in Electronics Information.46. What is the primary function of a vehicle's alternator while the engine is running?
- A. Igniting the fuel mixture
- B. Cooling the engine block
- C. Generating electricity to charge the battery and power systems
- D. Filtering the engine oil
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The alternator converts crankshaft rotation into electrical power, recharging the battery and running the vehicle's electrical systems; the battery's main job is starting the engine and buffering. Cooling belongs to the radiator system, filtration to the oil filter, ignition to plugs and coils. Auto Information maps each subsystem to its single primary role exactly this way.47. In a four-stroke gasoline engine, the correct order of the strokes is:
- A. Intake, compression, power, exhaust
- B. Intake, power, compression, exhaust
- C. Power, intake, exhaust, compression
- D. Compression, exhaust, intake, power
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The cycle draws in the air-fuel mixture (intake), squeezes it (compression), ignites it to drive the piston (power), and expels the burnt gases (exhaust). The memory hook 'suck, squeeze, bang, blow' preserves the order. Auto Information asks the sequence directly and through which-stroke-does-X variants — spark timing at the top of compression, valves open during intake and exhaust.48. Which tool is designed to measure the tightness applied to a bolt in foot-pounds?
- A. A feeler gauge
- B. A torque wrench
- C. A socket extension
- D. A pipe wrench
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
A torque wrench reads out the twisting force applied, letting fasteners be tightened to a specified foot-pound value — critical where over-tightening warps parts or strips threads. Pipe wrenches grip round stock, extensions merely reach, and feeler gauges measure small clearances. Shop Information is a tool-to-purpose matching exercise; precision-measurement tools recur most.49. For cutting curved shapes in a sheet of plywood, which saw is the appropriate choice?
- A. A hacksaw
- B. A crosscut handsaw
- C. A miter saw
- D. A jigsaw
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
A jigsaw's narrow reciprocating blade steers through curves and interior cutouts in sheet stock. Hacksaws cut metal, crosscut saws make straight cuts across wood grain, and miter saws make fixed-angle straight cuts. Shop Information's saw family question rewards matching blade geometry to the cut: narrow blades turn, wide blades track straight, fine teeth cut metal.50. A lever lets a mechanic lift a 300-pound engine with 75 pounds of force. What is the lever's mechanical advantage?
- A. 4
- B. 2
- C. 225
- D. 0.25
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Mechanical advantage is load divided by effort: 300 ÷ 75 = 4 — the machine multiplies force four times, paid for by moving the effort end four times farther. Subtracting gives 225 (a planted non-ratio), and inverting gives 0.25. Mechanical Comprehension returns to MA = load/effort constantly, across levers, pulleys, and inclined planes alike.51. Two meshed gears turn together: the driving gear has 20 teeth and the driven gear has 60. The driven gear rotates:
- A. At the same speed, in the opposite direction
- B. One-third as fast, in the same direction
- C. Three times as fast, in the same direction
- D. One-third as fast, in the opposite direction, with more torque
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Meshed gears reverse direction, and speed scales inversely with tooth count: 20/60 means the driven gear turns at one-third the speed but with roughly triple the torque — the speed-for-force trade every gear train makes. Same-direction rotation requires an idler between them. Mechanical Comprehension tests the trio together: direction, speed ratio, torque ratio.52. Which simple machine is a ramp used to load cargo into a truck an example of?
- A. An inclined plane
- B. A pulley
- C. A wheel and axle
- D. A lever
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A ramp is the inclined plane: it trades a longer path for a smaller required force, with mechanical advantage equal to slope length over rise height. Pulleys redirect rope tension, wheel-and-axle pairs multiply torque, and levers pivot about a fulcrum. Classifying everyday devices into the six simple machines is a Mechanical Comprehension staple worth automatic recall.53. Hydraulic brakes transmit pedal force to the wheels using which principle?
- A. Heat expands the brake fluid to push the pads
- B. Liquids compress easily to absorb force
- C. Magnetic attraction between fluid and metal
- D. Pressure applied to a confined fluid transmits equally throughout it
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Pascal's principle: pressure on an enclosed fluid transmits undiminished in every direction, so pedal force at a small piston becomes multiplied force at larger wheel pistons. The system works precisely because brake fluid does NOT readily compress — the compressibility choice inverts the physics (air in the lines is what makes brakes spongy). Hydraulics questions recur across MC forms.54. A single fixed pulley mounted on a ceiling changes which aspect of the lifting effort?
- A. It halves the force required
- B. It eliminates friction
- C. It doubles the load's weight
- D. The direction of the force, not its amount
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
A fixed pulley only redirects force — pulling down to lift up — with a mechanical advantage of 1. Force reduction requires a movable pulley or a multi-rope block and tackle, where advantage equals the number of supporting rope segments. The fixed-versus-movable distinction, and counting supporting ropes, are the two moves Mechanical Comprehension pulley questions demand.55. Sound travels fastest through which of the following media?
- A. Water
- B. A vacuum
- C. Steel
- D. Air
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Sound is a mechanical wave carried by particle collisions, so it travels fastest where particles are most tightly coupled: solids beat liquids, liquids beat gases, and a vacuum carries no sound at all. Steel outruns water and air by an order of magnitude. The vacuum choice is the give-away inversion — no medium, no mechanical wave — and General Science reuses this ranking often.56. Which four ASVAB subtests determine the AFQT score that governs enlistment eligibility?
- A. All ten subtests equally weighted
- B. Arithmetic Reasoning, Mathematics Knowledge, Word Knowledge, and Paragraph Comprehension
- C. Assembling Objects and the three technical subtests
- D. General Science, Electronics, Auto and Shop, and Mechanical Comprehension
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The AFQT is computed from the standard scores of exactly four subtests — AR, MK, PC, and WK — the math and verbal core. The science, technical, and spatial subtests feed job-qualification composites instead, so a candidate strong in mechanics but weak in math-verbal can qualify for lines of work yet struggle on the enlistment gate. Prioritize the AFQT four in prep time.57. An AFQT score of 90 means the examinee performed at what level?
- A. As well as or better than 90 percent of the national reference sample
- B. Earned 90 points out of a possible 100
- C. Failed, since passing requires 93
- D. Answered 90 percent of questions correctly
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
AFQT scores are percentiles from 1 to 99 against a national sample of 18-to-23-year-olds: 90 means scoring at or above 90 percent of that reference group — not a percent correct and not raw points. Category I spans 93-99, but categories describe score bands, not pass/fail lines; each service branch sets its own minimum. The percentile misconception is the most common ASVAB scoring error.58. On the CAT-ASVAB, what happens after you answer a question correctly?
- A. The next item selected is typically harder
- B. You may return and change earlier answers
- C. The next item is always easier
- D. The subtest immediately ends
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The computer-adaptive ASVAB tailors difficulty: a correct answer typically brings a harder item, an incorrect answer an easier one, homing in on your ability level with fewer questions. Because each answer drives the next selection, adaptive tests do not allow revisiting earlier items — a difference from paper testing that changes strategy: commit carefully the first time.59. How long must you wait to retake the ASVAB after your first attempt, and after further attempts?
- A. One month after the first test, one month more, then six months between later retests
- B. One week between any attempts
- C. One year after every attempt
- D. Retakes are not permitted
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Official retest policy: a one-month wait before the first retest, another month before the second, and six months between any retests after that. A separate rule guards against coached spikes: an AFQT gain of 20 or more points within six months triggers a required confirmation test. Plan enlistment timelines around these gates rather than assuming a quick reattempt.60. If time expires on a CAT-ASVAB subtest before you finish, how are the unanswered questions treated?
- A. Carried over to a makeup session
- B. Ignored entirely with no effect
- C. Awarded full credit automatically
- D. Scored as though they were answered at random — a penalty
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Unfinished items are scored as if answered randomly — an explicit penalty procedure. The program notes the limits are liberal enough that nearly all examinees finish, so the practical takeaway is pacing awareness rather than panic: keep moving, because a stretch of unanswered items costs more than a few considered guesses ever would.
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Key facts: ASVAB exam
The ASVAB is administered by US Department of Defense (ASVAB program), with a No pass/fail — AFQT percentile (1-99) determines enlistment eligibility; each branch sets minimums result.
This free ASVAB practice test has 60 original questions written to US Department of Defense (ASVAB program)'s official content outline, last checked against it on August 7, 2026. Every question shows a worked explanation, and nothing here requires a signup.
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Official sources
Every exam fact on this page traces to a primary document published by the body that administers the exam.
- Understanding ASVAB Scores — Official ASVABUS Department of Defense (ASVAB Program)officialasvab.com
- The CAT-ASVAB — Official ASVABUS Department of Defense (ASVAB Program)officialasvab.com
- What to Expect When You Take the ASVAB — Official ASVABUS Department of Defense (ASVAB Program)officialasvab.com
- ASVAB Retest Policy — Official ASVABUS Department of Defense (ASVAB Program)officialasvab.com
- ASVAB Subtests — Official ASVABUS Department of Defense (ASVAB Program)officialasvab.com
Last verified against the official exam content outline:
Frequently asked questions
Which sections should I drill first?
The AFQT four — Arithmetic Reasoning, Mathematics Knowledge, Word Knowledge, Paragraph Comprehension — because they alone decide enlistment eligibility. The topic areas in this bank mirror that split: the math and verbal areas cover the AFQT subtests, and the science/technical area covers the job-qualification subtests. Drill technical areas hard once your AFQT accuracy is stable, especially if you want a mechanical, electronics, or aviation rating.
How should I practice for an adaptive test?
Two adjustments. First, accuracy over speed on early questions — the CAT selects harder items as you answer correctly, and you cannot return to change answers, so careless early misses cost measurement precision. Second, never leave items unfinished: questions left when time expires are scored as random guesses, an explicit penalty. Practice committing to one careful pass.
What pace do the real subtests demand?
It varies wildly by subtest: Word Knowledge gives 9 minutes for 15 questions — pure instinct — while Arithmetic Reasoning gives a generous 55 minutes for 15, because problem setup is the tested skill. Practice each section at its own tempo: vocabulary at speed, word problems with deliberate setup and a written intermediate step.
How do I review missed questions effectively?
By error pattern, not by topic. ASVAB distractors are engineered from predictable mistakes — the perimeter answer on an area question, the percent-of-the-wrong-base, the planted antonym on vocabulary, the direct-proportion answer on an inverse-proportion crew problem. Naming which pattern caught you fixes dozens of future questions at once.