Network+ Practice Exam.
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Frequently asked questions
How many questions are on the CompTIA Network+ exam and how long is it?
The CompTIA Network+ (exam code N10-009) contains a maximum of 90 questions, and candidates are given 90 minutes to complete it. The questions are a mix of multiple-choice and performance-based items, so budget roughly one minute per question and plan extra time for the hands-on performance-based tasks, which take longer to work through.
What score do I need to pass, and how should I prioritize my studying?
You need a score of 720 on a scale of 100 to 900 to pass. The exam is organized into five content domains: networking concepts (23%), network implementation (20%), network operations (19%), network security (14%), and network troubleshooting (24%). Because network troubleshooting is the largest domain at 24% and networking concepts is close behind at 23%, prioritizing those two areas gives you the most weight on the exam, while network security at 14% carries the least.
What experience should I have before taking the Network+ exam?
CompTIA recommends holding a CompTIA A+ certification along with 9 to 12 months of hands-on experience in a junior network administrator or network support technician role. If you don't have that background yet, working through practice questions and hands-on labs can help build the practical familiarity the performance-based questions expect.
How do I schedule the exam, and how do I keep the certification current afterward?
Pearson VUE administers the CompTIA Network+ exam, and you can take it either at a physical test center or remotely via online proctoring. To book, reschedule, or cancel, you log in to CompTIA Central. After you pass, the certification is renewed through the CompTIA Continuing Education (CE) program: you submit CEUs from approved activities such as training, coursework, work experience, or community involvement, and pay a continuing education fee using a CE token. The exam is offered in English, German, Japanese, Portuguese, and Spanish.
Browse all questions & answers
1. A technician needs to identify which OSI layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing decisions between different networks. Which layer is this?
- A. Layer 2 (Data Link)
- B. Layer 3 (Network)
- C. Layer 4 (Transport)
- D. Layer 7 (Application)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Layer 3 (Network) handles logical IP addressing and routing between different networks via routers. Layer 2 handles MAC addressing and switching within a local segment, Layer 4 handles end-to-end segmentation and reliability (TCP/UDP), and Layer 7 handles application-level protocols like HTTP and DNS.2. An engineer is designing a subnet that must accommodate at least 100 usable host addresses with minimal wasted address space. Which subnet mask best fits this requirement?
- A. /25 (255.255.255.128)
- B. /28 (255.255.255.240)
- C. /30 (255.255.255.252)
- D. /22 (255.255.252.0)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A /25 provides 126 usable host addresses (2^7-2), just enough for 100 hosts with little waste. A /28 only yields 14 usable hosts, a /30 yields 2, and a /22 yields 1022, which is far more address space than needed.3. Which addressing scheme allows a single IPv6 address to represent a group of interfaces such that a packet sent to the address is delivered to the nearest one, according to routing distance?
- A. Unicast
- B. Multicast
- C. Anycast
- D. Broadcast
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Anycast delivers traffic to the topologically nearest member of a group sharing the same address, commonly used for services like DNS root servers. Unicast is one-to-one, multicast is one-to-many to a defined group, and broadcast (not used in IPv6) sends to all hosts on a segment.4. A network administrator wants a routing protocol that calculates the best path using bandwidth-based cost and converges faster than a purely hop-count based protocol. Which protocol type addresses this need?
- A. Distance-vector protocol like RIP
- B. Link-state protocol like OSPF
- C. Static routing only
- D. ARP
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Link-state protocols such as OSPF build a full topology map and use cost metrics (often bandwidth-based) with fast convergence via triggered updates. RIP is a distance-vector protocol limited to hop count and slow convergence; static routing has no dynamic recalculation; ARP resolves IP to MAC addresses and is not a routing protocol.5. Which DNS record type is used to map a hostname to an IPv6 address?
- A. A record
- B. AAAA record
- C. CNAME record
- D. MX record
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
An AAAA record maps a hostname to a 128-bit IPv6 address. An A record performs this mapping for IPv4, a CNAME record creates an alias to another hostname, and an MX record specifies mail exchange servers for a domain.6. A company's cloud architecture allows it to rapidly increase server capacity during peak demand and automatically decrease capacity afterward. Which cloud characteristic does this describe?
- A. Elasticity
- B. Multitenancy
- C. Fault tolerance
- D. Network functions virtualization
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Elasticity is the ability to dynamically scale resources up or down based on demand. Multitenancy refers to multiple customers sharing the same underlying infrastructure, fault tolerance describes resilience to component failure, and NFV refers to virtualizing network services such as firewalls and routers on standard hardware.7. A network technician wants to verify that VLAN tagging is correctly applied to frames crossing a trunk link between two switches. Which standard defines this tagging mechanism?
- A. 802.1Q
- B. 802.1X
- C. 802.3af
- D. 802.11ac
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
802.1Q is the IEEE standard that defines VLAN tagging on Ethernet trunk links. 802.1X governs port-based network access control, 802.3af defines Power over Ethernet, and 802.11ac is a wireless LAN standard.8. An administrator configures a switch port so that all traffic from a specific VLAN is mirrored to a monitoring device for packet capture. Which feature is being used?
- A. Port security
- B. Port mirroring (SPAN)
- C. Link aggregation
- D. Native VLAN configuration
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Port mirroring, also called a switched port analyzer (SPAN), duplicates traffic from one or more ports or VLANs to a monitoring port for analysis. Port security restricts which MAC addresses may connect to a port, link aggregation bundles multiple physical links into one logical link, and native VLAN configuration defines untagged traffic handling on a trunk.9. A small office wants to deploy wireless access points that support simultaneous multi-user data streams to increase throughput for multiple devices at once. Which Wi-Fi feature enables this?
- A. MU-MIMO
- B. Channel bonding alone
- C. WPA3 encryption
- D. Basic Service Set isolation
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
MU-MIMO (Multi-User Multiple Input, Multiple Output) allows an access point to communicate with multiple client devices simultaneously using multiple antenna streams, improving aggregate throughput. Channel bonding increases the width of a single channel but doesn't enable concurrent multi-user streams by itself, WPA3 is a security protocol, and BSS isolation prevents client-to-client communication on the same AP.10. An installer runs Category 6A cabling between a wiring closet and workstations that require 10 Gbps throughput at distances up to 100 meters. Which factor did the installer correctly account for by choosing Cat 6A over Cat 6?
- A. Cat 6A supports 10 Gbps to the full 100-meter distance while standard Cat 6 is limited to shorter distances at that speed
- B. Cat 6A is required because Cat 6 cannot carry Power over Ethernet
- C. Cat 6A uses fiber-optic strands instead of copper pairs
- D. Cat 6A only works with wireless access points, not wired workstations
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Cat 6A extends 10GBASE-T support to the full 100-meter horizontal run, whereas Cat 6 typically supports 10 Gbps only up to about 37-55 meters due to alien crosstalk. PoE support is not the differentiator between these categories, Cat 6A is still a copper twisted-pair standard, and both categories work fine for wired workstation connections.11. A network team is deploying redundant internet edge routers and wants end hosts to keep using a single default gateway IP address even if the primary router fails. Which technology should they implement?
- A. VRRP or HSRP
- B. STP
- C. LACP
- D. DHCP relay
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol) and HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol, Cisco proprietary) let two or more routers share a virtual IP so hosts always use the same default gateway, with automatic failover. STP prevents Layer 2 loops among switches, LACP bundles physical links into an aggregated logical link, and DHCP relay forwards DHCP requests across subnets rather than providing gateway redundancy.12. A technician is terminating a punch-down block and must follow color-coded wiring standards to ensure compatibility with existing infrastructure. Which two standards define these pin-out color codes for twisted-pair cabling?
- A. T568A and T568B
- B. IEEE 802.3 and 802.11
- C. SNMP v2 and v3
- D. IPv4 and IPv6
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
T568A and T568B are the two TIA/EIA wiring standards that define the pin-out order of colored wire pairs in RJ45 connectors; mixing them on the two ends of one cable creates a crossover cable. The other options are unrelated standards for wireless/Ethernet framing, network management, or IP addressing.13. An administrator wants newly connected devices on a segment to automatically receive an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server without manual configuration. Which service should be configured?
- A. DHCP
- B. NTP
- C. SNMP
- D. Syslog
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automatically assigns IP addressing information, including address, mask, gateway, and DNS servers, to clients. NTP synchronizes time, SNMP is used for monitoring and managing network devices, and Syslog centralizes log message collection.14. A monitoring system needs to receive unsolicited alert messages from network devices the instant a threshold is crossed, rather than waiting for the next scheduled poll. Which SNMP message type serves this purpose?
- A. GetRequest
- B. SetRequest
- C. Trap
- D. Walk
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
An SNMP trap is an unsolicited message sent from a managed device to the manager as soon as a defined event or threshold occurs, enabling near-real-time alerting. GetRequest and Walk are manager-initiated polling operations, and SetRequest is used by the manager to change a device's configuration value, not to receive alerts.15. A company wants to ensure that if its primary data center loses power, operations can continue from a secondary site with minimal data loss. Which business continuity concept most directly addresses the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time?
- A. Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
- B. Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
- C. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)
- D. Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
RPO defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time, dictating how frequently backups or replication must occur. RTO defines how quickly a service must be restored after an outage, MTBF measures the average time a system operates before failing, and MTTR measures the average time needed to repair a failed component.16. A network operations team documents the exact steps, rollback plan, and approval chain before applying a firmware update to core switches during a scheduled maintenance window. Which process are they following?
- A. Change management
- B. Asset management
- C. Incident response
- D. Vulnerability scanning
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Change management is the formal process of planning, documenting, approving, and reviewing changes to production systems, including rollback plans, to minimize risk. Asset management tracks inventory of hardware/software, incident response addresses active security or operational incidents, and vulnerability scanning identifies weaknesses rather than governing planned changes.17. An organization keeps a continuously updated diagram showing every switch, router, and their interconnections, including IP addressing, to speed up troubleshooting. What is this document called?
- A. Physical network diagram
- B. Service level agreement
- C. Standard operating procedure
- D. Non-disclosure agreement
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A physical network diagram shows the actual hardware, cabling, and connections between devices, often layered with logical information like IP addressing, to aid design and troubleshooting. An SLA defines expected service performance between provider and customer, an SOP documents step-by-step procedures for routine tasks, and an NDA is a legal confidentiality agreement, none of which depict network topology.18. A data center wants to guarantee that if a router's power supply fails, a duplicate supply immediately takes over without service interruption. Which high-availability concept describes this design?
- A. Single point of failure elimination via redundant components
- B. Load balancing across multiple sites
- C. Traffic shaping
- D. Quality of Service tagging
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Installing a redundant power supply removes a single point of failure so the device continues operating if one component fails, a core high-availability design principle. Load balancing distributes traffic across multiple servers or links rather than protecting a single device, traffic shaping controls bandwidth usage patterns, and QoS tagging prioritizes certain traffic types, neither of which is about component redundancy.19. A help desk technician notices that a critical switch's CPU utilization has steadily climbed over several weeks, based on trend graphs. Which monitoring practice made this observation possible?
- A. Baseline establishment and historical trend analysis
- B. Ad hoc single-point ping test
- C. One-time port scan
- D. Static ARP table entry
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Establishing a performance baseline and continuously logging metrics over time allows administrators to visualize trends like gradually rising CPU usage and detect anomalies before they cause outages. A single ping test or one-time port scan gives only a snapshot rather than a trend, and static ARP entries have nothing to do with performance monitoring.20. A security team wants to restrict management access to network switches so that only traffic from the IT subnet using SSH is permitted, and all other management attempts are dropped. Which control best achieves this?
- A. An access control list (ACL) applied to the management interface
- B. Enabling CDP on all interfaces
- C. Disabling STP
- D. Increasing the DHCP lease time
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
An ACL applied to the management interface can permit SSH only from the trusted IT subnet and implicitly deny all other sources, directly enforcing least-privilege management access. Enabling CDP actually broadcasts device information and reduces security, disabling STP creates loop risk without any access-control benefit, and DHCP lease time is unrelated to restricting administrative access.21. An attacker sets up a rogue access point with the same SSID as a legitimate corporate network to lure users into connecting and exposing their credentials. What is this attack called?
- A. Evil twin
- B. ARP poisoning
- C. VLAN hopping
- D. DNS amplification
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
An evil twin attack involves a rogue access point mimicking a legitimate SSID to trick clients into connecting so the attacker can intercept traffic or harvest credentials. ARP poisoning corrupts a device's ARP cache to redirect Layer 2 traffic, VLAN hopping exploits trunking misconfiguration to access other VLANs, and DNS amplification is a DDoS technique leveraging open DNS resolvers.22. A network is segmented so that IoT devices, guest users, and corporate workstations each reside in separate broadcast domains with restricted inter-segment traffic enforced by a firewall. Which security principle is being applied?
- A. Network segmentation / defense in depth
- B. Single sign-on
- C. Full-tunnel VPN split from split-tunnel
- D. Port forwarding
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Segmenting devices by risk profile (IoT, guest, corporate) into separate VLANs with firewall-enforced boundaries limits lateral movement and contains breaches, a core defense-in-depth practice. Single sign-on addresses authentication convenience, VPN tunneling modes concern remote access routing, and port forwarding exposes an internal service externally, none of which describe internal network segmentation.23. A company deploys a system that inspects traffic patterns and can automatically drop packets matching known attack signatures in real time, rather than just alerting an administrator. What type of system is this?
- A. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
- B. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
- C. Syslog server
- D. Proxy cache server
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
An IPS sits inline with traffic flow and can automatically block or drop packets matching malicious signatures in real time. An IDS only monitors and alerts without taking blocking action, a syslog server merely aggregates log messages, and a proxy cache server accelerates and filters web requests but is not designed for real-time attack signature blocking.24. A remote employee connects to the corporate network so that only traffic destined for internal resources travels through the encrypted tunnel, while general internet browsing goes directly out the employee's local connection. What is this configuration called?
- A. Split-tunnel VPN
- B. Full-tunnel VPN
- C. Site-to-site VPN
- D. Clientless VPN portal only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A split-tunnel VPN routes only traffic destined for corporate resources through the encrypted tunnel while other internet traffic uses the local connection directly, reducing bandwidth load on the VPN concentrator. A full-tunnel VPN forces all traffic, including general internet browsing, through the tunnel; a site-to-site VPN connects two networks rather than a single remote user; and a clientless portal describes browser-based access rather than tunnel scope.25. A user reports they can browse some internal file shares but cannot reach any external websites, while a coworker on the same switch has no issues. The technician first confirms the user's device has a valid IP address and default gateway. Which troubleshooting step logically comes next to isolate the issue?
- A. Test whether the user's device can ping the default gateway and then an external IP address
- B. Immediately reformat the user's workstation
- C. Replace the core router without further diagnosis
- D. Disable the user's switch port
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Following the standard troubleshooting methodology of testing connectivity layer by layer, the next logical step is pinging the gateway and then an external address to narrow down whether the failure is local, at the gateway, or further upstream (e.g., DNS or an external route). Reformatting or replacing hardware without further diagnosis skips isolating the actual fault, and disabling the port would remove the user's access entirely without diagnosing anything.26. A technician runs a continuous ping to a remote server and observes that response times vary widely between 20ms and 300ms with no packet loss. What condition is this variability called?
- A. Jitter
- B. Latency
- C. Attenuation
- D. Crosstalk
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Jitter is the variation in packet delay over time, which can degrade real-time applications like VoIP even without packet loss. Latency refers to the absolute delay of a single packet's round trip, not its variability; attenuation is the weakening of a signal over distance in a cable; and crosstalk is interference between adjacent wire pairs, neither related to timing variability between pings.27. After a new firmware update, wireless clients near the edge of an office report frequent disconnects while clients closer to the access point work fine. A site survey shows signal strength drops sharply beyond 30 feet, worse than before the update. Which issue is most likely occurring?
- A. The firmware update altered transmit power or channel settings, reducing effective coverage
- B. The DNS server is misconfigured
- C. The DHCP scope has been exhausted
- D. A duplicate IP address exists on the network
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Given signal strength dropped specifically after a firmware update and correlates with distance from the AP, a change to transmit power, antenna settings, or channel width introduced by the update is the most likely cause of reduced coverage. DNS misconfiguration would cause name resolution failures rather than distance-dependent signal drop, DHCP exhaustion would prevent address assignment entirely rather than degrade with distance, and a duplicate IP would cause address conflicts, not a signal strength/distance correlation.28. A cable tester shows that a run has all eight conductors correctly mapped end-to-end with no shorts or opens, yet users on that segment report intermittent slow speeds during periods of high electrical equipment usage nearby. Which cabling issue is most likely responsible?
- A. Electromagnetic interference (EMI) from nearby equipment
- B. An open circuit in the cable
- C. A transposed wire pair
- D. A duplex mismatch
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Because the wire map is confirmed correct (no opens, shorts, or transposed pairs) yet performance issues correlate with nearby electrical equipment operation, EMI coupling into the cable is the most likely cause of degraded signal quality and retransmissions. An open circuit or transposed pair would show up on the wire map test which passed, and a duplex mismatch is a switch/NIC configuration issue unrelated to environmental electrical noise.29. A newly added switch creates a loop in the topology, and shortly after, users across multiple VLANs experience severe slowdowns along with switches showing abnormally high CPU and flooding of unknown-unicast frames. Which underlying problem best explains these symptoms?
- A. A broadcast storm caused by a Layer 2 loop with Spanning Tree Protocol not properly blocking the redundant path
- B. A DNS server outage
- C. An expired SSL certificate on a web server
- D. IP address exhaustion in the DHCP pool
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A new switch introducing a redundant Layer 2 path without STP properly blocking it creates a loop, causing broadcast and unknown-unicast frames to circulate endlessly, spiking CPU and saturating bandwidth network-wide. A DNS outage would cause name resolution failures rather than network-wide flooding, an expired certificate only affects encrypted sessions to one service, and DHCP exhaustion prevents new address assignment but does not cause flooding or high switch CPU from looping frames.30. A remote office's site-to-site VPN tunnel establishes successfully, but users report that traffic to only some internal subnets at headquarters is reachable while others time out. Phase 1 and Phase 2 negotiations both report success. What is the most likely cause?
- A. The VPN's defined interesting traffic (encryption domain / proxy IDs) does not include all the required remote subnets
- B. The ISP link is completely down
- C. The remote router's power supply failed
- D. The DHCP server has stopped responding
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Since the tunnel establishes and some subnets work while others don't, the most likely cause is that the VPN's defined traffic selectors (interesting traffic/proxy IDs) omit the missing subnets, so packets to those networks are never routed into the tunnel. A fully down ISP link or failed power supply would prevent the tunnel from establishing at all, and a DHCP outage affects address assignment locally, not selective reachability of specific remote subnets through an already-established tunnel.31. Users report that a web application intermittently fails to load, and packet captures show the client repeatedly retransmitting SYN packets with no SYN-ACK response from certain server addresses, while other servers respond normally. DNS resolves correctly to all servers. What is the most likely explanation?
- A. A firewall or ACL is silently dropping SYN packets to the affected server addresses
- B. The DNS server is returning incorrect records
- C. The client's NIC is set to half-duplex
- D. The default gateway's ARP cache is corrupted
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Because DNS resolution is confirmed correct and only connections to specific server addresses fail with unanswered SYN packets, a firewall or ACL silently dropping (rather than rejecting) that traffic is the most likely cause, which produces exactly this retransmission pattern with no response. Incorrect DNS records would misdirect the client to a wrong address rather than causing name-correct connections to specific servers to hang, a half-duplex NIC would typically produce collisions and errors rather than clean unanswered SYNs, and a corrupted gateway ARP cache would affect all destinations, not selectively certain servers.32. A traceroute to an external website shows normal, low latency for the first six hops and then a sudden large latency increase (from 15ms to 250ms) at hop seven, with all subsequent hops remaining around 250ms. What does this pattern most likely indicate?
- A. A slow or congested link at the point corresponding to hop seven
- B. A misconfigured subnet mask on the client
- C. A duplicate MAC address on the local segment
- D. An expired DHCP lease on the client
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
When latency jumps sharply at one hop and remains elevated for all subsequent hops, it indicates a slow, congested, or otherwise degraded link at that point in the path, since every later hop inherits the added delay. A client-side subnet mask or DHCP lease issue would affect local connectivity broadly rather than produce a hop-specific mid-path latency jump, and a duplicate MAC address typically causes intermittent connectivity or ARP conflicts rather than a consistent added-latency traceroute signature.33. CompTIA organizes the current Network+ exam into how many official content domains?
- A. Three
- B. Four
- C. Five
- D. Six
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The current CompTIA Network+ exam (N10-009) is organized into five official content domains covering networking concepts, network implementation, network operations, network security, and network troubleshooting. The other counts do not match the exam's official published structure.34. According to the official exam blueprint, which content domain carries the largest weighting on the CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) exam?
- A. Networking Concepts
- B. Network Implementation
- C. Network Security
- D. Network Troubleshooting
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Network Troubleshooting is the largest domain at 24% of the exam, reflecting the emphasis on applying diagnostic methodology to real-world network problems. Networking Concepts is 23%, Network Implementation is 20%, and Network Security is only 14%, all smaller than Troubleshooting's share.