AZ-900 Practice Exam.
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Frequently asked questions
How many questions are on the AZ-900 exam, and how much time do I get?
Microsoft doesn't publish an exact question count for AZ-900, but most Microsoft Certification exams typically contain between 40 and 60 questions. As a Fundamentals exam, AZ-900 gives you 45 minutes of actual exam time within a 65-minute seat duration — the extra 20 minutes covers things like instructions and feedback, not answering questions. Five minutes are also built into the exam time that you can use for an unscheduled break. If you draw a 60-question form, that works out to roughly 45 seconds per question, so it's worth doing timed practice sets to get comfortable answering quickly.
What score do I need to pass AZ-900?
You need a score of 700 or greater to pass. Microsoft reports technical exam scores on a scale of 1 to 1,000, so 700 is a scaled score — it does not simply mean you answered 70% of the questions correctly. Importantly, there is no penalty for guessing: no points are deducted for incorrect answers. That means you should never leave a question blank on exam day — an educated guess can only help your score, and the same habit applies when you take practice exams.
Which topics should I spend the most practice time on for AZ-900?
AZ-900 assesses foundational knowledge across three domains: Describe cloud concepts (25-30%), Describe Azure architecture and services (35-40%), and Describe Azure management and governance (30-35%). The architecture and services domain carries the most weight, and it covers core architectural components, Azure compute and networking services, Azure storage services, and Azure identity, access, and security — so it deserves the largest share of your practice time. Cloud concepts covers cloud computing, the shared responsibility model, cloud models, the consumption-based model, the benefits of cloud services, and the IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS service types. Management and governance covers cost management, governance and compliance features, tools for managing and deploying resources, and monitoring tools. A sensible approach is to split your practice roughly in proportion to these weights, then double down on whichever domain scores lowest on your practice tests.
What happens if I fail AZ-900 — how soon can I retake it?
If you don't pass on your first attempt, you must wait 24 hours before retaking the exam. After that, a 14-day waiting period is imposed between all subsequent attempts, and you may not take the exam more than five times within a 12-month period from your first attempt. In practice, that makes the 24-hour retake best reserved for a narrow miss where you know exactly what tripped you up; if your score fell well short, the two-week gaps between later attempts are better spent drilling practice questions in your weakest domains, since your attempt budget for the year is limited.
Browse all questions & answers
1. A startup wants to avoid buying servers and instead pay only for the compute it actually consumes each month, scaling up during traffic spikes and down overnight. Which cloud characteristic does this describe?
- A. The consumption-based (pay-as-you-go) model
- B. A capital expenditure (CapEx) purchasing model
- C. The shared responsibility model
- D. High availability
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The consumption-based model means you pay only for the resources you use, converting large upfront CapEx into variable operating expense (OpEx) and enabling elastic scaling. A CapEx model involves large upfront purchases of hardware, the opposite of what is described. The shared responsibility model defines who secures what, not billing. High availability describes uptime resilience, not payment.2. In the cloud shared responsibility model, which task always remains the customer's responsibility regardless of whether they use IaaS, PaaS, or SaaS?
- A. Managing and classifying their own data and controlling user access to it
- B. Securing the physical datacenter and hardware
- C. Patching the underlying host hypervisor
- D. Maintaining the physical network cabling
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Data, the identities/accounts that access it, and how that data is classified are always the customer's responsibility across every service model. Physical datacenter security, the host hypervisor, and physical networking are always the cloud provider's responsibility in every model. The customer never manages the physical layer in the public cloud.3. A company deploys virtual machines in the cloud and installs, patches, and configures the operating system and applications themselves, while the provider manages the physical hosts. Which cloud service type are they using?
- A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- B. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- C. Software as a Service (SaaS)
- D. Function as a Service (FaaS)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
IaaS gives the customer control over the OS and everything above it (runtime, apps, data) while the provider handles the physical infrastructure and virtualization, which matches managing your own VM OS and patches. PaaS abstracts away the OS so the customer only manages the app and data. SaaS delivers finished applications (e.g., email) with nothing to patch. FaaS runs event-driven code without managing servers at all.4. Microsoft 365 lets users send email and edit documents in a browser with no operating system or runtime to maintain on the user side. Which cloud service model does this represent?
- A. Software as a Service (SaaS)
- B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- C. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- D. Serverless compute
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
SaaS delivers a complete, ready-to-use application over the internet where the provider manages everything and the customer just uses the software, exactly like hosted email. IaaS would require the customer to manage the OS. PaaS provides a development/hosting platform for the customer's own apps. Serverless is a compute deployment model for running code, not a finished end-user application.5. An organization keeps some workloads in its on-premises datacenter for regulatory reasons but bursts to the public cloud during peak demand, connecting the two environments. Which cloud deployment model is this?
- A. Hybrid cloud
- B. Public cloud
- C. Private cloud
- D. Community cloud
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A hybrid cloud combines on-premises/private infrastructure with public cloud, letting workloads and data move between them, which matches keeping some systems local while bursting to public cloud. A pure public cloud has no on-premises component. A private cloud is dedicated to a single organization with no public element. A community cloud is shared among organizations with common concerns, not described here.6. A retailer's website automatically adds more web server instances as shopper traffic climbs and removes them as traffic falls, without human intervention. Which two related cloud benefits does this best demonstrate?
- A. Scalability and elasticity
- B. Disaster recovery and backup
- C. Data sovereignty and residency
- D. Manual capacity planning
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Scalability is the ability to add capacity, and elasticity is automatically adding or removing that capacity to match demand, which is exactly what auto-adjusting server counts describes. Disaster recovery concerns recovering after an outage, not scaling to load. Data sovereignty concerns legal jurisdiction over data location. Manual capacity planning is the opposite of the automatic behavior described.7. A finance team wants to stop making large upfront hardware purchases and instead treat their IT spend as a predictable monthly operating cost. Moving to the cloud primarily shifts their spending from what to what?
- A. From capital expenditure (CapEx) to operational expenditure (OpEx)
- B. From operational expenditure (OpEx) to capital expenditure (CapEx)
- C. From fixed cost to a one-time licensing fee
- D. From variable cost to fixed hardware depreciation
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The cloud converts CapEx (large upfront purchases of servers you own and depreciate) into OpEx (ongoing, pay-as-you-go operating expense), which is precisely the finance goal described. The reverse (OpEx to CapEx) is the opposite of the cloud value proposition. A one-time licensing fee and fixed hardware depreciation are CapEx-style concepts, not what the cloud moves you toward.8. Which statement most accurately distinguishes high availability from disaster recovery as cloud benefits?
- A. High availability keeps a system running through component failures, while disaster recovery restores service after a major outage or region loss
- B. High availability and disaster recovery are identical terms with no practical difference
- C. High availability applies only to storage, and disaster recovery applies only to compute
- D. Disaster recovery prevents outages, while high availability is used only after data is lost
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
High availability is about minimizing downtime by tolerating individual component failures, whereas disaster recovery is about recovering after a large-scale failure such as the loss of an entire region. They are complementary but not identical, so the 'no difference' option is wrong. Neither is limited to only storage or only compute. Disaster recovery does not prevent outages; it responds to them, making the last option's roles reversed.9. You need to deploy several Azure resources so they share the same lifecycle and can be deleted together when the project ends. Which Azure construct is designed to be a logical container for resources like this?
- A. A resource group
- B. An availability zone
- C. A subscription
- D. A management group
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A resource group is a logical container that holds related resources; deleting the group deletes everything in it, matching a shared project lifecycle. An availability zone is a physically separate location within a region for resilience, not a container you manage resources in. A subscription is a billing and access boundary that contains resource groups. A management group organizes multiple subscriptions, a level above what is needed here.10. An architect wants an application to survive the failure of an entire datacenter within a single Azure region. Which architectural feature should the resources be spread across?
- A. Availability zones
- B. Resource groups
- C. Subscriptions
- D. Tags
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Availability zones are physically separate datacenters within a region, each with independent power, cooling, and networking, so spreading across them protects against a single datacenter failure. Resource groups are logical containers and provide no physical fault isolation. Subscriptions are billing/access boundaries, not fault-isolation constructs. Tags are metadata labels and offer no resilience.11. A development team wants to run event-driven code in response to an HTTP request or a queue message without provisioning or managing any servers, paying only while the code executes. Which Azure service best fits?
- A. Azure Functions
- B. Azure Virtual Machines
- C. Azure Blob Storage
- D. Azure Virtual Network
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Azure Functions is a serverless compute service that runs small pieces of code triggered by events, billing only for execution time with no server management, matching the requirement exactly. Azure Virtual Machines require you to manage and pay for the server continuously. Blob Storage stores objects and does not run code. A Virtual Network provides networking, not compute.12. A company wants to package a microservices application in containers and needs an Azure service that automatically handles orchestration, scaling, and health of those containers across a cluster. Which service should they choose?
- A. Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS)
- B. Azure Blob Storage
- C. Azure Virtual Network
- D. Azure Policy
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Azure Kubernetes Service provides managed Kubernetes for orchestrating, scaling, and self-healing containerized workloads across a cluster, which is exactly what container orchestration requires. Blob Storage stores unstructured objects and does not orchestrate containers. A Virtual Network provides connectivity, not container management. Azure Policy enforces governance rules and has no role in running containers.13. Two virtual machines in the same Azure virtual network need to communicate privately, and you also want to control inbound and outbound traffic to them by port and protocol. Which component filters that traffic?
- A. A network security group (NSG)
- B. An availability set
- C. A storage account
- D. A resource lock
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A network security group contains allow/deny rules that filter inbound and outbound traffic to Azure resources by source, destination, port, and protocol, which is the described requirement. An availability set improves VM resilience but does not filter traffic. A storage account holds data objects, not network rules. A resource lock prevents accidental deletion or modification, unrelated to traffic filtering.14. An organization wants to establish a private, dedicated connection from its on-premises datacenter to Azure that does not traverse the public internet, for predictable throughput and lower latency. Which service should they use?
- A. Azure ExpressRoute
- B. A site-to-site VPN over the public internet
- C. Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
- D. Azure DNS
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
ExpressRoute creates a private connection between on-premises and Azure through a connectivity provider, bypassing the public internet for more reliable throughput and lower latency. A site-to-site VPN does connect networks but travels over the public internet, which the requirement explicitly excludes. A CDN caches content at edge locations for end users. Azure DNS resolves domain names and provides no private WAN link.15. A backup application needs to store large numbers of unstructured files (images, logs, and archives) that will be accessed over HTTP and can grow massively over time. Which Azure storage service is the best fit?
- A. Azure Blob Storage
- B. Azure SQL Database
- C. Azure Files
- D. Azure Virtual Network
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Azure Blob Storage is optimized for massive amounts of unstructured object data accessed over HTTP/HTTPS, making it ideal for images, logs, and archives. Azure SQL Database is a relational database for structured, queryable data, not bulk objects. Azure Files provides fully managed SMB/NFS file shares, better for lift-and-shift file shares than internet-scale object storage. A Virtual Network is networking, not storage.16. A company has files that are rarely accessed and only kept for long-term compliance, and wants to minimize storage cost while accepting higher retrieval latency. Which Azure Blob Storage access tier fits best?
- A. Archive tier
- B. Hot tier
- C. Cool tier
- D. Premium block blob tier
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The Archive tier offers the lowest storage cost for rarely accessed, long-retention data in exchange for the highest retrieval latency and cost, matching compliance archives. The Hot tier is optimized for frequently accessed data at higher storage cost. The Cool tier suits infrequently accessed data but is pricier to store than Archive. Premium is for high-throughput, low-latency access, the opposite of the requirement.17. An administrator needs a storage redundancy option that keeps copies of data in a second, geographically distant Azure region to protect against a complete regional outage. Which redundancy option meets this need?
- A. Geo-redundant storage (GRS)
- B. Locally redundant storage (LRS)
- C. Zone-redundant storage (ZRS)
- D. A network security group
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Geo-redundant storage replicates data to a secondary region hundreds of miles away, protecting against a full regional outage. Locally redundant storage keeps copies only within a single datacenter, so a regional disaster could lose all copies. Zone-redundant storage spreads copies across zones within one region but does not survive the loss of that whole region. A network security group is a traffic filter, not a storage-redundancy option.18. Employees should sign in once and then access many cloud applications without re-entering credentials for each one. Which Microsoft Entra ID (Azure AD) capability provides this?
- A. Single sign-on (SSO)
- B. A resource lock
- C. A network security group
- D. Azure Blob Storage
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Single sign-on lets a user authenticate once and gain access to multiple applications without repeatedly entering credentials, which is the described experience. A resource lock protects a resource from deletion or change and has nothing to do with authentication. A network security group filters network traffic. Blob Storage stores objects and is unrelated to identity.19. To reduce the risk of compromised passwords, an organization wants users to confirm sign-in with a second factor such as a phone approval or authenticator code. Which security feature should they enable?
- A. Multifactor authentication (MFA)
- B. Role-based access control (RBAC)
- C. Availability zones
- D. Azure Monitor
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Multifactor authentication requires two or more verification factors (something you know plus something you have or are), directly mitigating stolen-password risk. Role-based access control governs what an authenticated user may do, not how they prove identity. Availability zones concern datacenter resilience. Azure Monitor is a telemetry/observability service, unrelated to sign-in verification.20. A team lead should be able to manage all resources within one resource group but have no access to other resource groups. Which Azure mechanism grants exactly this scoped permission?
- A. Azure role-based access control (RBAC) assigned at the resource group scope
- B. A network security group rule
- C. A resource tag
- D. Multifactor authentication
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Azure RBAC assigns roles at a chosen scope (management group, subscription, resource group, or resource), so granting a role at one resource group limits the person's permissions to that group. A network security group filters traffic, not user permissions. A tag is metadata and grants no access. MFA verifies identity but does not define what actions a user is authorized to perform.21. A relational database with predictable structured schema, transactions, and SQL querying is needed for an application, delivered as a managed PaaS offering. Which Azure service fits best?
- A. Azure SQL Database
- B. Azure Blob Storage
- C. Azure Files
- D. Azure Functions
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Azure SQL Database is a fully managed PaaS relational database supporting structured schemas, transactions, and SQL, which matches the requirement. Blob Storage handles unstructured objects, not relational queries. Azure Files provides file shares, not a query engine. Azure Functions is serverless compute for running code, not a database.22. A global web application wants to reduce latency by serving static images and scripts from servers physically close to each user around the world. Which Azure service is designed for this?
- A. Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
- B. Azure ExpressRoute
- C. Azure Policy
- D. A resource group
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A Content Delivery Network caches content at edge locations distributed worldwide so users are served from a nearby point of presence, lowering latency. ExpressRoute is a private WAN link between on-premises and Azure, not a global content cache. Azure Policy enforces governance rules. A resource group is a logical container with no performance role.23. Before committing to spending, a customer wants to compare the monthly cost of running a specific set of Azure services with different regions and configurations. Which free Azure tool should they use?
- A. The Azure Pricing Calculator
- B. Azure Advisor
- C. Azure Monitor
- D. Azure Policy
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The Azure Pricing Calculator lets you model and estimate the cost of a proposed set of services and configurations before deploying anything. Azure Advisor gives recommendations (including cost savings) on resources you already run, not pre-purchase estimates. Azure Monitor collects telemetry from running resources. Azure Policy enforces governance rules, not cost estimation.24. A finance team wants to set spending thresholds on a subscription and receive alerts when actual or forecasted costs approach a limit. Which Azure capability should they use?
- A. Cost Management budgets and alerts
- B. The Azure Pricing Calculator
- C. A network security group
- D. Availability zones
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Microsoft Cost Management lets you create budgets on scopes such as subscriptions and trigger alerts when spending approaches or exceeds them, matching ongoing cost control. The Pricing Calculator only estimates costs before purchase and cannot alert on live spending. A network security group filters traffic. Availability zones provide resilience, unrelated to budgeting.25. An organization must ensure that no one can create storage accounts outside of approved Azure regions, enforcing this rule automatically at deployment time. Which service enforces such compliance rules?
- A. Azure Policy
- B. Azure Advisor
- C. Azure Monitor
- D. A resource group
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Azure Policy evaluates resources against defined rules and can deny non-compliant deployments, such as blocking resources in unapproved regions, enforcing governance automatically. Azure Advisor only recommends improvements; it does not enforce rules. Azure Monitor collects telemetry and does not block deployments. A resource group is a container and enforces no policy by itself.26. A company wants to prevent a critical production resource from being accidentally deleted, even by users who otherwise have permission to delete it. Which feature should they apply?
- A. A resource lock (CanNotDelete or ReadOnly)
- B. A resource tag
- C. Azure Advisor
- D. A management group
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A resource lock (CanNotDelete or ReadOnly) overrides user permissions to protect a resource from accidental deletion or modification, exactly the safeguard needed. A tag is only descriptive metadata and provides no protection. Azure Advisor gives recommendations, not deletion protection. A management group organizes subscriptions and does not lock individual resources against deletion.27. An enterprise has dozens of subscriptions and wants to apply the same governance policies and access controls across all of them from a single point. Which construct should they use?
- A. Management groups
- B. Resource groups
- C. Availability zones
- D. Tags
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Management groups sit above subscriptions and let you apply policies and access controls to many subscriptions at once through inheritance, matching enterprise-wide governance. Resource groups organize resources within a single subscription, not across subscriptions. Availability zones are physical resilience constructs. Tags are metadata labels and cannot apply governance across subscriptions.28. An operations team needs to collect metrics and logs from Azure resources and set up alerts when a virtual machine's CPU stays high. Which service is purpose-built for this monitoring?
- A. Azure Monitor
- B. Azure Policy
- C. Azure Blob Storage
- D. A resource lock
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Azure Monitor collects, analyzes, and acts on telemetry (metrics and logs) from Azure resources and can raise alerts on conditions like sustained high CPU. Azure Policy enforces governance rules rather than collecting telemetry. Blob Storage stores objects and provides no monitoring. A resource lock only protects resources from change or deletion.29. A cloud admin wants personalized recommendations that improve the reliability, security, performance, and cost-efficiency of their existing Azure resources. Which service provides these recommendations?
- A. Azure Advisor
- B. Azure Pricing Calculator
- C. Azure Virtual Network
- D. A network security group
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Azure Advisor analyzes your deployed resources and offers actionable recommendations across reliability, security, performance, operational excellence, and cost, matching the request. The Pricing Calculator only estimates costs of hypothetical deployments. A Virtual Network provides connectivity, not recommendations. A network security group filters traffic and gives no guidance.30. An administrator wants to manage Azure resources from a browser using a shell that already has Azure CLI and PowerShell tools authenticated and available, without installing anything locally. Which tool provides this?
- A. Azure Cloud Shell
- B. Azure Policy
- C. Azure Monitor
- D. Azure Blob Storage
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Azure Cloud Shell is a browser-based, pre-authenticated shell offering both Bash (Azure CLI) and PowerShell with tools already installed, so no local setup is needed. Azure Policy enforces governance rules, not an interactive shell. Azure Monitor handles telemetry. Blob Storage stores data and is not a management shell.31. A team wants to define their Azure infrastructure declaratively in a repeatable template so the same environment can be deployed consistently many times. Which Azure-native approach supports this?
- A. Azure Resource Manager (ARM) templates or Bicep
- B. Manually clicking through the Azure portal each time
- C. A network security group
- D. Azure Advisor recommendations
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
ARM templates and Bicep are infrastructure-as-code approaches that declaratively define resources so identical environments can be deployed repeatedly and consistently. Manual portal clicks are error-prone and not repeatable, the opposite of the goal. A network security group filters traffic, not deployments. Azure Advisor only offers recommendations and does not deploy infrastructure.32. A candidate is scheduling the AZ-900 exam and wants to plan their time. According to the exam logistics, how long is the exam duration itself (excluding seat/administrative time)?
- A. 45 minutes
- B. 65 minutes
- C. 90 minutes
- D. 120 minutes
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
For Fundamentals exams such as AZ-900, the exam duration is 45 minutes, which is the time to answer questions. The 65-minute figure is the total seat duration including administrative time, not the exam duration itself. 90 and 120 minutes are longer than either published value and are incorrect.33. A test-taker is unsure whether to leave a hard question blank on the AZ-900 exam. Based on the exam's scoring rules, what is the best strategy?
- A. Always answer every question, because there is no penalty for guessing
- B. Leave hard questions blank to avoid losing points
- C. Answer only questions you are fully certain about
- D. Guessing lowers your score, so avoid it
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
There is no penalty for guessing on the exam, so no points are deducted for incorrect answers, meaning you should answer every question to maximize your chance of points. Leaving questions blank guarantees zero for those items. Answering only certain questions wastes potential points. The claim that guessing lowers your score contradicts the no-penalty rule.34. A candidate reviewing their AZ-900 score report sees the exam is graded on a scale, and they need a minimum result to pass. What is the passing score, and on what scale?
- A. 700 or greater on a scale of 1 to 1,000
- B. 70% correct answers out of 100
- C. 700 or greater on a scale of 1 to 700
- D. 70 or greater on a scale of 1 to 100
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Microsoft reports technical exam scores on a scale of 1 to 1,000, and a score of 700 or greater is required to pass. The 700 figure is a scaled score, not a raw percentage of questions answered correctly, so '70% out of 100' is a common misconception. A '1 to 700' scale and a '1 to 100' scale both misstate the reporting range.