Tennessee Real Estate Practice Exam.
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1. A 19-year-old Tennessee resident who never finished high school wants to apply for an affiliate broker license. Which requirement is most likely to stand in the way of that application?
- A. The age requirement, since applicants must be at least 21
- B. The residency requirement, since only out-of-state applicants may apply
- C. Proof of high school graduation (or its equivalent), which is a standard credential requirement for licensure
- D. A requirement to already hold a broker's license first
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Affiliate broker applicants must submit proof of high school graduation or an equivalent credential, so lacking that document, rather than age (18 is the applicable threshold, not 21) or residency, and certainly not already holding a more advanced broker license, is the real obstacle in this scenario.2. The Tennessee Real Estate Commission receives a signed complaint alleging that a Memphis affiliate broker forged a client's signature on a purchase agreement. Which action falls squarely within the Commission's regulatory authority?
- A. Awarding the client monetary damages equal to the property's purchase price
- B. Suspending or revoking the affiliate broker's license after an investigation and hearing
- C. Filing a criminal forgery charge against the affiliate broker in circuit court
- D. Ordering the affiliate broker's principal broker to personally repay the client
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
TREC's authority over licensees is administrative discipline, such as investigating a complaint and then suspending or revoking a license after a hearing, rather than awarding civil damages, prosecuting crimes, or ordering a supervisor to personally repay a client, none of which fall within a licensing board's remedies.3. A Nashville company helps renters find apartments for a fee, without ever taking title to any property. This is a category the Tennessee Real Estate Commission has regulated since its creation. What is that category called?
- A. Title insurance agent
- B. Rental location agent
- C. Property management corporation
- D. Escrow agent
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
TREC's founding authority extended to affiliate brokers, brokers, firms, and rental location agents, and a business paid to match renters with available units for a fee is a rental location agent under that scope, unlike escrow or title functions, which involve holding funds or insuring title rather than matching tenants to units.4. An affiliate broker in Knoxville accepts an earnest money check from a buyer and, rather than delivering it to her principal broker for deposit, cashes it and places the funds in her personal checking account temporarily. What has she done?
- A. Correctly exercised her authority as a licensed affiliate broker
- B. Created a legally required reserve account
- C. Commingled client funds with personal funds, a trust-fund violation
- D. Properly safeguarded the funds until closing
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Earnest money must be funneled through the broker's trust or escrow account rather than a licensee's personal account, so mixing client money with one's own funds is the classic commingling violation regulators discipline, not a permitted shortcut or any kind of required reserve arrangement.5. Beyond disciplining individual licensees, the Tennessee Real Estate Commission also has authority to do which of the following?
- A. Adopting rules governing licensed real estate firms and their operations
- B. Setting mortgage interest rates statewide
- C. Approving or rejecting individual purchase and sale contracts before closing
- D. Setting property tax assessments for each county
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The Commission's regulatory powers extend beyond disciplining individuals to include rulemaking over licensed firms' operations, while interest rates, contract approval, and tax assessments belong instead to lenders, the contracting parties themselves, and separate tax assessment offices.6. A Chattanooga affiliate broker closes a sale and the seller, impressed with her work, wants to hand her a personal check as a bonus in addition to the commission already agreed upon with the firm. What is the correct course of action?
- A. She must split the bonus evenly with the buyer's agent
- B. She must decline or route the payment through her principal broker, since affiliate brokers may not accept compensation for real estate activity from anyone but their employing broker
- C. She may keep the bonus check since the seller offered it directly
- D. She must report the bonus to the buyer before accepting it
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Because affiliate brokers act under a principal broker's supervision, compensation for licensed activity must flow through that broker's firm rather than being accepted directly from a customer, which guards against undisclosed side payments; accepting it personally, splitting it with an unrelated party, or merely telling the buyer doesn't fix the underlying supervision problem.7. An affiliate broker in Murfreesboro places a yard sign and online listing that show only her personal cell number and first name, with no mention of the real estate firm she is licensed under. This advertising practice is problematic because
- A. it violates copyright law by using a personal photo
- B. it constitutes a "blind ad" that fails to identify the licensed firm responsible for the advertisement
- C. it exceeds the maximum number of signs allowed per listing
- D. it requires a separate advertising license from the Commission
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Advertising rules require a licensee's ads to disclose the responsible firm, since consumers are entitled to know which brokerage stands behind a listing; omitting the firm name while showing only personal contact info is the definition of a prohibited blind ad, and there is no separate advertising license or sign-count cap at issue here.8. A buyer calls an affiliate broker's phone number after seeing a listing sign, not realizing the affiliate broker actually represents the seller in the transaction. At what point should the affiliate broker clarify who she represents?
- A. Only after an offer has been accepted
- B. Only if the buyer asks directly
- C. Only at the closing table
- D. As early as practical in the conversation, before any confidential information is exchanged
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Agency-disclosure practice calls for clarifying representation early, before a customer might unknowingly share information that could compromise their interests, rather than waiting for a direct question, an accepted offer, or closing, by which point the customer's uninformed disclosures could already have caused harm.9. After a sale closes in Jackson, Tennessee, the principal broker's office shreds every document related to the transaction that same afternoon to save storage space. What is the concern with this practice?
- A. Records may only be destroyed with the buyer's written permission
- B. Brokerage records must generally be retained for a defined period in case of later disputes or Commission review
- C. Records must be transferred to the county register of deeds instead of destroyed
- D. Nothing — brokers may dispose of closed-file records immediately once funds have disbursed
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Brokers are expected to maintain transaction records such as contracts, disclosures, and trust account documentation for a required retention period so the Commission or a party to a later dispute can review them, so same-day shredding defeats that safeguard; there is no rule requiring buyer sign-off or handing files to the register of deeds, which only records deeds.10. An affiliate broker leaves her firm on a Friday afternoon after a dispute with her principal broker. On Monday morning, without yet affiliating with a new firm, she accepts a listing directly from a homeowner. What is wrong with this?
- A. An affiliate broker's license is only active while sponsored by a principal broker; she cannot lawfully conduct licensed activity while unaffiliated
- B. She may only take listings, not represent buyers, while unaffiliated
- C. She needed the Commission's individual pre-approval for the specific listing
- D. Nothing, since affiliate brokers may practice independently between firms
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
An affiliate broker's license status depends on an active affiliation with a supervising principal broker, so engaging in licensed activity during a gap between firms, even something as routine as taking a listing, falls outside her authority until she re-affiliates; there is no carve-out letting her handle listings-only or requiring a listing-by-listing sign-off from the Commission.11. A principal broker in Knoxville receives earnest money from a buyer on a Tuesday but does not deposit it into the firm's trust account until the following Tuesday because the office was busy. What is the issue with this delay?
- A. The delay only matters if the transaction later fails to close
- B. There is no issue; brokers may hold funds indefinitely before depositing
- C. Trust funds are expected to be deposited promptly rather than held for an extended, unexplained period
- D. The delay is fine as long as the buyer is not informed
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Trust and escrow handling rules exist to protect client funds, so deposits into a broker's trust account are expected promptly after receipt rather than sitting undeposited for days without reason; the exposure exists the moment funds are held outside the account, regardless of secrecy from the buyer or whether the deal eventually closes.12. Besides brokers and affiliate brokers, which of the following entities does the Tennessee Real Estate Commission also regulate?
- A. Home inspectors licensed under a separate state board
- B. Certified public accountants
- C. State court judges handling property disputes
- D. Vacation clubs and timeshare-related developments
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
TREC's regulatory scope, established when the Commission was created, reaches beyond brokers and affiliate brokers to cover rental location agents, timeshare salespersons and developments, and vacation clubs and vacation lodging services, a scope that does not extend to home inspectors, accountants, or the judiciary, which fall under entirely different bodies.13. A homeowner in Bristol has a recorded right to cross her neighbor's driveway to reach the main road, a right that transfers automatically to whoever buys her house in the future. This right is best described as
- A. An encroachment
- B. A license
- C. An easement in gross
- D. An easement appurtenant
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
An easement appurtenant is attached to and runs with the benefited land, transferring automatically to successive owners, unlike an easement in gross, which is tied to a specific person or entity rather than the land, a license, which is a revocable personal permission rather than a property interest, or an encroachment, which is an unauthorized intrusion onto another's land.14. A man has openly farmed a strip of his neighbor's unused land for many consecutive years, without permission but also without the neighbor objecting or evicting him. If all legal requirements are ultimately met, what could result?
- A. The neighbor automatically loses all rights to the entire parcel, not just the strip
- B. The man may acquire legal title to the strip through adverse possession
- C. The man automatically owes back rent to the neighbor
- D. The arrangement creates a permanent easement but never transfers title
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Adverse possession allows someone who occupies land openly, continuously, and without the true owner's permission for a sufficiently long period to eventually gain legal title to that specific area, not the owner's entire parcel, and it doesn't create rent obligations or merely an easement, since the possession itself matures into ownership.15. A property owner along the bank of the Cumberland River wants to know what rights come with owning that riverside land. Which term describes the water-related rights of a landowner bordering a flowing natural waterway?
- A. Littoral rights
- B. Riparian rights
- C. Air rights
- D. Subsurface rights
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Riparian rights belong to owners of land bordering a flowing waterway like a river or stream, covering reasonable use of the water, while littoral rights instead apply to land bordering standing bodies like lakes, and subsurface and air rights concern what's below and above the land rather than water access.16. Two sisters buy an investment property together and want it so that if one of them dies, her share automatically passes to the surviving sister rather than through probate. What form of co-ownership provides this feature?
- A. Tenancy in common
- B. A partnership interest
- C. Tenancy by the entirety, only available to unmarried co-owners
- D. Joint tenancy with right of survivorship
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Joint tenancy with right of survivorship is specifically defined by the automatic passing of a deceased co-owner's share to the surviving joint tenant, bypassing probate, a feature tenancy in common lacks since shares pass through the deceased's estate instead, and tenancy by the entirety is reserved for married couples, not unmarried co-owners as one distractor incorrectly claims.17. At a Murfreesboro brokerage, the managing broker appoints one affiliate broker to work exclusively for the purchaser and a different, unrelated affiliate broker to work exclusively for the property owner, with each licensee's fiduciary loyalty running only to the party that licensee was appointed to serve. What term describes this setup?
- A. Customer-level representation only
- B. Undisclosed dual agency
- C. Designated agency
- D. Subagency
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Designated agency occurs when a firm appoints separate licensees within the same brokerage to represent the purchaser and the property owner individually, each owing duties only to their own appointed party, which differs from subagency, where a cooperating agent represents the listing broker, undisclosed dual agency, which is improper because it's not revealed, and pure customer-level representation, which involves no fiduciary duties at all.18. An affiliate broker misrepresents a property's square footage to a buyer during a showing. Under general agency principles, who else may bear responsibility for that misrepresentation besides the affiliate broker herself?
- A. No one; only the individual affiliate broker can ever be held responsible
- B. The buyer's lender, since it approved the loan
- C. The seller, since the seller owns the property
- D. The principal broker who supervises her, under vicarious liability principles
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Under agency law, a supervising principal broker can bear vicarious liability for the acts of affiliate brokers working under their license, since the affiliate acts as the broker's agent; the lender and seller are unrelated third parties to the misrepresentation, and the claim that only the individual affiliate could ever be liable ignores well-established supervisory liability principles.19. A seller signs a 90-day exclusive listing agreement, then the property burns down in a fire during month two. What happens to the agency relationship created by that listing agreement?
- A. It converts into an open listing automatically
- B. It continues unaffected because the listing period has not expired
- C. It terminates automatically because its subject matter has been destroyed
- D. It transfers to a new property the seller may purchase later
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
An agency relationship created for a specific purpose ends when that purpose becomes impossible, and destruction of the listed property eliminates the very subject matter the listing agreement covers, terminating the agency regardless of how much time remains in the stated period; it doesn't simply continue, transfer to some unrelated future property, or convert into a different listing type on its own.20. A walk-in visitor at an open house asks the listing agent general questions about square footage and neighborhood schools, without entering into any representation agreement. In agency terms, this visitor is best described as the agent's
- A. Subagent
- B. Principal
- C. Client
- D. Customer
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Without a representation agreement establishing a fiduciary relationship, the visitor remains a customer to whom the agent owes basic honesty and fair dealing but not full fiduciary duties, unlike a client, who has that fiduciary relationship, or a principal, the party the agent actually represents; a subagent is an entirely different role, a cooperating licensee acting on behalf of another broker.21. A licensee never signs a buyer representation agreement but spends weeks driving a buyer to showings, drafting offers on her behalf, and negotiating price terms, all while the buyer believes the licensee represents her interests. What can result from this pattern of conduct?
- A. The buyer automatically owes the licensee a commission regardless of any agreement
- B. Nothing; agency can only be created through a signed written agreement
- C. An implied agency relationship may arise from the parties' conduct, even without a signed agreement
- D. The licensee automatically becomes a dual agent
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Agency relationships can be created by the conduct of the parties, not solely by a signed contract, so a pattern of representative behavior can give rise to an implied agency with accompanying fiduciary duties, even though it doesn't automatically make the licensee a dual agent or entitle her to a commission absent a separate compensation agreement.22. A buyer and seller agree verbally on a price for a home, but the buyer later refuses to sign anything in writing before backing out. What legal principle most directly explains why the seller cannot enforce this verbal deal in court?
- A. The statute of frauds, which requires real estate contracts to be in writing to be enforceable
- B. The parol evidence rule
- C. The doctrine of equitable estoppel
- D. The mailbox rule
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The statute of frauds requires contracts for the sale of real property to be in writing and signed to be enforceable, so a purely verbal agreement generally cannot be enforced in court no matter how firm the oral commitment seemed; the mailbox rule governs when acceptance becomes effective, the parol evidence rule limits outside evidence contradicting a written contract, and equitable estoppel concerns reliance on someone's conduct, none of which is the core issue here.23. A property owner in Johnson City transfers her commercial building using a deed whose warranty covers only title problems that arose while she held the property, offering no protection against defects that existed before she acquired it. Which deed type matches this description?
- A. General warranty deed
- B. Deed of trust
- C. Quitclaim deed
- D. Special warranty deed
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
A special warranty deed limits the grantor's warranty to defects arising during her own period of ownership, unlike a general warranty deed, which warrants against title defects from any period including before the grantor owned it, a quitclaim deed, which offers no warranty at all, and a deed of trust, which is a financing instrument rather than a conveyance of ownership.24. A seller who signed a valid purchase agreement backs out at the last minute because a competing buyer offered more money after the contract was signed. What remedy might the original buyer pursue given that real estate is considered legally unique?
- A. Rescission of all future contracts the seller signs
- B. Specific performance, compelling the seller to complete the sale
- C. Criminal charges against the seller
- D. Punitive damages only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Because each parcel of real estate is considered legally unique, courts may grant specific performance, ordering the seller to go through with the sale rather than simply paying damages, which distinguishes real estate remedies from typical damages-only situations; punitive damages, blanket rescission of unrelated future contracts, and criminal charges are not standard remedies for a breached purchase agreement.25. A buyer submits a written offer of $215,000 on a home in Cleveland, Tennessee. The seller responds in writing with a counteroffer of $228,000. Before the buyer replies, can the buyer still go back and accept the original $215,000 offer?
- A. Yes, but only if the seller's counteroffer is unsigned
- B. No, a counteroffer rejects and terminates the original offer, so it no longer exists to be accepted
- C. No, because verbal acceptance was required within 24 hours
- D. Yes, the original offer remains open until its stated expiration date
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Making a counteroffer legally rejects and terminates the original offer, so the original $215,000 offer no longer exists once the seller counters at $228,000, meaning the buyer cannot revive and accept it; it doesn't matter whether the counteroffer is signed, and there's no general 24-hour verbal acceptance rule that would apply instead.26. A sales contract on a home in Morristown provides that, should the purchaser breach, the only remedy available to the seller is to keep the earnest money as liquidated damages. The purchaser later breaches the agreement, and the seller then wants to file a separate lawsuit seeking additional compensatory damages on top of the deposit. What is the most likely outcome?
- A. The purchaser may unilaterally cancel the liquidated damages clause after signing
- B. The seller may freely pursue both the earnest money and additional damages
- C. The clause is automatically void because liquidated damages clauses are illegal in real estate contracts
- D. The liquidated damages clause typically limits the seller to the earnest money as the agreed remedy, precluding a separate suit for more
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
When a contract designates a specific liquidated damages remedy as the seller's sole remedy for a purchaser's default, that clause is generally treated as the agreed, exclusive measure of damages, which bars the seller from separately suing for more; liquidated damages clauses are a lawful and common feature of real estate contracts, not automatically void, and a purchaser cannot unilaterally strike a clause from a signed agreement.27. A buyer purchases a condo in Chattanooga appraised at $180,000, financing it with a loan of $153,000. What is the loan-to-value ratio?
- A. 95%
- B. 75%
- C. 65%
- D. 85%
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Loan-to-value ratio is calculated by dividing the loan amount by the property's value, so $153,000 divided by $180,000 equals 0.85, or 85 percent; the other options would result from dividing by the wrong base figure or misplacing a decimal, not from the actual loan and value given.28. A lender calculates a borrower's monthly housing payment by adding principal, interest, property taxes, and homeowners insurance together. This combined figure is commonly abbreviated as
- A. LTV
- B. PITI
- C. APR
- D. PMI
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
PITI stands for principal, interest, taxes, and insurance, the four components lenders typically combine to calculate a borrower's total monthly housing payment, whereas APR expresses the yearly cost of credit as a percentage, LTV measures loan size relative to property value, and PMI is a specific type of insurance protecting the lender on low-down-payment loans, not the combined payment figure itself.29. A lender forecloses on a defaulted loan without needing to go through the court system, using a power-of-sale clause contained in the security instrument. This process is generally known as
- A. Deed in lieu of foreclosure
- B. Strict foreclosure
- C. Non-judicial foreclosure
- D. Judicial foreclosure
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Non-judicial foreclosure relies on a power-of-sale clause in the security instrument to allow a lender to foreclose without court involvement, unlike judicial foreclosure, which requires a court proceeding, strict foreclosure, an older and largely obsolete process transferring title directly to the lender by court order, and a deed in lieu of foreclosure, which is a voluntary transfer by the borrower rather than a foreclosure sale at all.30. A homeowner in Sevierville is comparing her very first monthly payment to her very last monthly payment on a fixed-rate, fully amortizing loan, even though both payments are the identical dollar amount. Which statement correctly explains why the split between interest and principal differs between those two payments?
- A. Interest and principal make up an equal share of every payment from the first month to the last
- B. Because interest accrues on the shrinking loan balance, the earliest payment is weighted mostly toward interest while the final payment is weighted mostly toward principal
- C. The earliest payment is weighted mostly toward principal, and that share steadily shrinks as the loan matures
- D. Both the interest share and the principal share rise together as the loan approaches payoff
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Because a fully amortizing loan charges interest on the outstanding balance, and the balance is largest at the start, the first payment devotes most of its dollars to interest with only a small amount reducing principal; as the balance shrinks with each payment, that split reverses so the final payment is mostly principal with only a sliver of interest. The two shares are never equal throughout, principal isn't front-loaded, and the shares move in opposite directions rather than both rising together.31. A borrower is comparing two loan offers with the same interest rate, but Loan X charges two discount points at closing while Loan Y charges none. Which disclosed figure would best reveal the true cost difference between the two loans to the borrower?
- A. The annual percentage rate (APR), which factors in points and other finance charges over the loan term
- B. The monthly principal and interest payment alone
- C. The stated note rate, since it is identical on both loans
- D. The property's appraised value
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Because the note rate alone is identical on both loans, it hides the extra upfront cost of the two discount points on Loan X; the APR is specifically designed to fold points and other finance charges into a single annualized figure so borrowers can compare the true cost of competing loans, unlike the payment amount alone or the property's appraised value, neither of which reflects financing costs.32. An agent consistently shows minority home buyers listings only in certain neighborhoods while showing similarly qualified white buyers a broader range of neighborhoods across the metro area. This practice is known as
- A. Redlining
- B. Blockbusting
- C. Puffing
- D. Steering
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Steering is the practice of guiding homebuyers toward or away from certain neighborhoods based on a protected characteristic, which matches an agent showing minority buyers a narrower range of areas; blockbusting instead involves inducing panic selling by suggesting a protected class is moving in, redlining involves lenders or insurers denying services to entire areas, and puffing is unrelated sales exaggeration.33. Before a homeowner in Gallatin lists her house for sale, her agent assembles a pricing report drawn from recently sold and currently listed comparable homes nearby. In what key way does this kind of report differ from a certified appraisal?
- A. It is required by law before every residential listing
- B. It is legally identical to an appraisal and carries the same certification
- C. It is an agent's informal pricing opinion, not a certified, independently regulated valuation like an appraisal performed by a licensed appraiser
- D. It can only be prepared by a licensed appraiser
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A comparative market analysis is an agent's informal, non-certified opinion of value based on comparable listings and sales, useful for pricing discussions, but it is not the same as a formal appraisal, which is performed by a licensed or certified appraiser under regulated standards; agents, not only appraisers, prepare this kind of report, and no law requires one before every listing.34. A vacant lot zoned for either residential or light commercial use would generate significantly more net income as a small retail building than as a house. Appraisal principles suggest which use should be considered in valuing the land?
- A. The use that requires the least construction cost
- B. The highest and best use that is legally permissible, physically possible, financially feasible, and maximally productive
- C. Residential use only, since that is the original zoning intent
- D. Whatever use the current owner personally prefers
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Highest and best use is the appraisal principle that identifies the reasonably probable use of a property that is legally allowed, physically possible, financially feasible, and results in the greatest value or productivity, which here points to the more profitable commercial use rather than simply the owner's personal preference, the original zoning intent alone, or whichever option is cheapest to build.35. A 1960s home has an outdated floor plan with only one small bathroom for four bedrooms, a layout that no longer matches buyer expectations even though the home is structurally sound. This kind of value loss is best classified as
- A. Physical deterioration
- B. Functional obsolescence
- C. Economic obsolescence
- D. Curable physical depreciation only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Functional obsolescence refers to a loss in value caused by outdated design or layout features, such as too few bathrooms for the bedroom count, that no longer meet market expectations, distinct from physical deterioration, which involves wear and tear on physical components, and economic obsolescence, which stems from external factors like neighborhood decline rather than the home's own design.36. A duplex in Kingsport sells for $225,000 and produces $1,800 in gross monthly rental income. What is the gross rent multiplier?
- A. 10
- B. 140
- C. 125
- D. 95
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The gross rent multiplier is calculated by dividing the sale price by the monthly rent, so $225,000 divided by $1,800 equals 125; the other figures would result from dividing by annual rent instead of monthly, or from other miscalculations that don't match the numbers given.37. A buyer asks whether a previous occupant of a home died of natural causes inside the house several years ago. In most jurisdictions, how is this type of information typically treated?
- A. It automatically voids any future sale of the home
- B. It must always be disclosed regardless of state law, as a physical defect
- C. It is often treated as a non-material "stigmatized property" fact that many states do not require disclosing
- D. It must be recorded permanently on the property's deed
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A death that occurred on a property from natural causes is commonly treated as a psychological or "stigmatized property" fact rather than a physical defect, and many states do not require it to be affirmatively disclosed, unlike a structural or material defect; it doesn't void a sale, and it isn't the kind of information recorded on a deed.38. A listing agent describes a home as having a "gorgeous, spacious backyard" in marketing materials, a subjective opinion about an ordinary-sized yard. Later, the buyer claims this was misrepresentation. How would this statement most likely be characterized?
- A. Negligent misrepresentation requiring a full refund
- B. Fraudulent misrepresentation, since it was factually false
- C. Puffing, an expression of opinion or exaggeration that is not treated as an actionable misrepresentation
- D. A violation of federal fair housing law
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Subjective, opinion-based sales talk like calling a yard "gorgeous" is generally treated as puffing, which is not actionable as misrepresentation because reasonable buyers understand it as enthusiasm rather than a verifiable factual claim, unlike fraudulent or negligent misrepresentation, which require false statements of fact, and it has no connection to fair housing protections.39. An agent discovers a small crack in a foundation wall during a showing but decides not to mention it because she is not a structural engineer and does not want to alarm the buyer unnecessarily. What is the concern with this approach?
- A. There is no concern, since agents cannot be expected to identify structural issues
- B. Only licensed engineers may ever mention visible cracks to a buyer
- C. A known, visible material condition generally should be disclosed even if the agent cannot diagnose its cause, and buyers can be advised to seek a professional inspection
- D. The agent must repair the crack personally before allowing the showing to continue
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Even without expertise to diagnose a structural issue, an agent who observes an obvious, visible condition like a foundation crack should disclose what was seen and recommend a professional inspection, rather than staying silent out of a desire not to alarm the buyer; there's no requirement that the agent personally repair anything, and non-engineers are not barred from simply mentioning what they observed.40. A seller is preparing to list a home built in 1965. Under federal law concerning a specific environmental hazard, what disclosure obligation applies to homes built before 1978?
- A. Only commercial property sellers face this disclosure obligation
- B. Sellers must disclose known lead-based paint hazards and provide buyers an EPA-approved pamphlet on the topic
- C. Sellers must remove all paint from the home before any showings
- D. The disclosure requirement only applies to homes built after 1978
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Federal law requires sellers of housing built before 1978, when lead-based paint was commonly used, to disclose any known lead-based paint hazards and provide buyers with an EPA-approved information pamphlet, rather than requiring paint removal, and the obligation is specifically tied to pre-1978 construction, not homes built afterward, and it applies to residential housing generally, not just commercial property.41. A mortgage lender denies a loan application specifically because the applicant receives income from public assistance, even though the applicant otherwise meets the lender's underwriting standards. Which federal law most directly addresses this kind of credit discrimination?
- A. The Equal Credit Opportunity Act, which prohibits credit discrimination based on income source, among other factors
- B. The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act
- C. The Fair Housing Act
- D. The Truth in Lending Act
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against applicants based on factors including the receipt of public assistance income, which is exactly the scenario described; the Fair Housing Act addresses housing discrimination more broadly rather than credit-specific decisions, RESPA governs settlement procedures and disclosures, and the Truth in Lending Act governs credit cost disclosures, neither of which targets discriminatory denial based on income source.42. A homeowner lives in one unit of a small owner-occupied duplex and rents out the second unit without using any real estate agent or discriminatory advertising. Under the federal Fair Housing Act, what is generally true about this situation?
- A. A limited exemption may apply to certain small owner-occupied dwellings, though discriminatory advertising is still prohibited even where an exemption exists
- B. The property is entirely outside all housing discrimination law once the owner exceeds four total units
- C. Exemptions apply only to commercial rather than residential rentals
- D. The owner has no exemptions and must comply with every Fair Housing Act provision exactly as a large apartment complex would
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The federal Fair Housing Act includes a limited exemption for certain small owner-occupied dwellings, but even where that exemption applies, discriminatory advertising remains prohibited, so it isn't a blanket "no rules apply" situation; the exemption doesn't hinge on exceeding four units in the way described, and it isn't limited to commercial rentals, since the concept specifically concerns owner-occupied residential buildings.43. An apartment complex adopts a blanket policy denying occupancy to anyone with any criminal conviction, regardless of the nature, severity, or timing of the offense. Fair housing enforcement bodies have scrutinized such blanket policies because they can result in what kind of legal exposure?
- A. Disparate impact liability, if the blanket policy disproportionately screens out applicants of a protected class without justification tied to actual safety concerns
- B. Automatic criminal liability for the property owner
- C. Exposure only if the policy explicitly names a racial group
- D. No exposure at all, since criminal history is never a protected characteristic itself
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Even a facially neutral policy that does not mention a protected class by name can create disparate impact liability under fair housing law if it disproportionately screens out members of a protected class and is not appropriately tailored to legitimate safety concerns, so the absence of an explicit reference to race or another protected class does not automatically shield the policy, though it also does not create criminal liability for the property owner.44. An apartment building in Clarksville generates $42,000 in annual net operating income and sells for $600,000. Based on these figures, what is the capitalization rate?
- A. 9%
- B. 11%
- C. 7%
- D. 5%
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Capitalization rate is calculated by dividing a property's annual net operating income by its sale price or value, so $42,000 divided by $600,000 equals 0.07, or 7 percent; the other results would come from misapplying the formula, such as using a different base figure or an incorrect income amount, rather than the numbers actually given.45. An uncle in Jackson, Tennessee deeds his lake cabin to his nephew "for as long as he lives, then to his niece." What kind of interest does the nephew receive?
- A. A leasehold estate
- B. An easement in gross
- C. Fee simple absolute
- D. A life estate
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
A grant limited to "for as long as he lives" creates a life estate that ends automatically at the nephew's death, after which the property passes to the named remainderman, unlike a fee simple absolute (which has no such limit), a leasehold (a landlord-tenant arrangement), or an easement (a mere right of use, not ownership).46. A subdivision's recorded covenants prohibit homeowners from parking commercial trucks in driveways, even though the city's zoning ordinance for that area permits it. Which statement correctly describes the effect?
- A. Private covenants become unenforceable once a zoning ordinance exists
- B. Only the Commission can resolve the conflict between the two rules
- C. The private covenant can impose a stricter limit than zoning allows, and homeowners must comply with both
- D. The zoning ordinance automatically overrides the private covenant
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Private deed restrictions and public zoning operate independently, and where a covenant is stricter than zoning, owners generally must comply with whichever rule is more restrictive; zoning doesn't erase private covenants, covenants don't become void because zoning exists, and this isn't a real estate licensing matter for a state commission to resolve.47. A new survey reveals that a homeowner's detached garage in Cookeville extends eighteen inches onto the neighbor's lot, a condition neither owner noticed for over a decade. What has occurred, and what is a typical way to resolve it without litigation?
- A. This is an encroachment; the parties may negotiate a boundary line agreement or easement to formally address the overlap
- B. The garage owner must demolish the structure within 24 hours by law
- C. Title to the strip automatically transfers to the garage owner the moment the survey is recorded
- D. This is a valid easement by necessity requiring no resolution
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A structure that physically crosses a boundary line onto a neighboring lot is an encroachment, not an easement by necessity, which requires a landlocked access need, and simply recording a survey doesn't transfer title on its own; parties commonly resolve encroachments through negotiated boundary agreements or granted easements rather than an automatic, immediate demolition mandate.48. A buyer's agent in Chattanooga learns that her buyer client is willing to pay up to $310,000 for a home listed at $285,000. During negotiations, she casually mentions this ceiling to the seller's agent to "speed things along." What duty has she violated?
- A. The duty of confidentiality owed to her own client
- B. The duty of accountability for funds
- C. The duty of obedience to lawful instructions
- D. The duty of reasonable care and skill
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
An agent owes confidentiality to her own client regarding sensitive negotiating information such as the client's maximum price, and revealing that figure to the other side undermines the client's bargaining position; this is not a skill or care failure, a funds-handling issue, or a failure to follow lawful instructions, but a straightforward breach of client confidentiality.49. A listing agent privately learns from the seller that the seller is in financial distress and must sell quickly. A buyer's agent later asks, on behalf of her buyer client, whether the seller has any urgency to sell. What should the listing agent do?
- A. Disclose the seller's financial distress freely, since buyers deserve to know everything
- B. Lie and say the seller has no urgency at all
- C. Protect the confidentiality of the seller's motivation to sell, absent the seller's consent to disclose it
- D. Refer the question directly to the buyer's lender
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A seller's motivation or urgency to sell is confidential information that could weaken their negotiating position, so the listing agent's duty of confidentiality means declining to reveal it without consent; outright lying is also improper, since agents must avoid misrepresentation even while protecting confidences, and routing the question to a lender doesn't fit here.50. In a cooperating transaction, a buyer works with a broker from Firm B who is actually acting as a subagent of the listing broker at Firm A, though the buyer is unaware of this arrangement. To whom does the subagent broker owe fiduciary duties?
- A. To the seller, through the listing broker, since a subagent's duties flow to the original principal
- B. To the buyer, since the buyer is the one working directly with the subagent
- C. To Firm B's principal broker only, and no one else
- D. Fiduciary duties are split evenly between the buyer and seller
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A subagent is appointed by and owes fiduciary duties to the original principal, here the seller through the listing broker, regardless of which cooperating firm the subagent works for or which party they're physically working alongside; the buyer in this arrangement is actually a customer of the subagent, not a client, so duties don't run to the buyer, split evenly, or terminate at Firm B's own principal broker.51. A homeowner in Clarksville hires a firm under a listing contract stating that the firm is owed its commission regardless of who ultimately brings the buyer, even if the homeowner sells the house to a friend without any agent's involvement. This arrangement is best classified as
- A. A net listing
- B. An exclusive right-to-sell listing
- C. An exclusive agency listing
- D. An open listing
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
An exclusive right-to-sell listing guarantees the listed firm a commission regardless of who finds the buyer, including the homeowner personally, which distinguishes it from an exclusive agency listing, where the homeowner keeps the right to sell commission-free by finding the buyer alone, an open listing, which allows multiple brokers to compete, and a net listing, which is based on proceeds above a set amount rather than who procures the buyer.52. A sales contract for a home in Kingsport states that closing depends on the purchaser securing a mortgage commitment within 21 days of signing. The purchaser submits applications to several lenders in good faith but is turned down by each one before that deadline passes. What generally happens next?
- A. The seller may sue the purchaser for specific performance despite the contingency
- B. The purchaser forfeits the earnest money regardless of the contingency
- C. The contract automatically converts to a cash sale
- D. The purchaser may terminate the contract and recover the earnest money under the financing contingency
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
A financing contingency exists precisely to protect a purchaser who makes a good-faith effort to secure a loan but is unable to, allowing the purchaser to terminate and recover earnest money rather than forfeiting it; it doesn't expose the purchaser to a specific-performance suit for something outside their control, nor does it convert the deal into an all-cash purchase.53. When a Tennessee grantor prepares a deed to legally transfer ownership of a parcel to a buyer, which combination of elements must the document contain for the transfer to be effective?
- A. A notarized photograph of the property
- B. Recording at the county register of deeds before the deed has any legal effect between the parties
- C. A competent grantor, an identifiable grantee, a legal description of the property, and the grantor's signature
- D. Payment of the full purchase price in cash at signing
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A valid deed requires a competent grantor who signs it, an identifiable grantee, and an adequate legal description of the property being conveyed; recording provides public notice and priority against later claims but is not required for the deed to be valid between the original parties, a photograph isn't a legal requirement, and deeds can convey title regardless of the payment method or timing.54. A title company routinely pays a referral fee to real estate agents for every closing referred to them, without disclosing this arrangement to the buyers and sellers involved. What federal law is most directly implicated?
- A. The Truth in Lending Act
- B. The Fair Housing Act
- C. The Equal Credit Opportunity Act
- D. The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, which prohibits undisclosed kickbacks for referrals of settlement business
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
RESPA specifically prohibits giving or receiving unearned fees or kickbacks for referring settlement service business and requires disclosure of such arrangements, which matches the undisclosed referral-fee scheme described; the Truth in Lending Act concerns credit cost disclosures, the Fair Housing Act concerns discrimination, and the Equal Credit Opportunity Act concerns credit discrimination, none of which govern referral kickbacks in settlement services.55. A house sale in Elizabethton is scheduled to close on October 3. The seller already paid the entire year's property tax bill earlier in the year. At the closing table, what is the buyer generally expected to do about those taxes?
- A. Wait until the following tax year to settle any amount with the seller
- B. Nothing, since the seller already paid them in full
- C. Reimburse the seller a prorated amount covering the portion of the year the buyer will own the property
- D. Pay the entire next year's taxes in advance at closing
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Proration divides shared expenses like prepaid property taxes between buyer and seller based on their respective periods of ownership during the tax year, so a buyer taking over partway through the year typically reimburses the seller for the prepaid taxes covering the buyer's remaining portion of the year; simply doing nothing, prepaying next year's full bill, or postponing settlement to the following year would leave the proration unresolved at the closing when it's supposed to happen.56. To estimate the market value of a single-family residence in Oak Ridge, an appraiser analyzes four comparable homes that recently sold nearby and adjusts each sale price for differences in condition, size, and amenities. Which valuation method is being used?
- A. Sales comparison approach
- B. Gross rent multiplier approach
- C. Cost approach
- D. Income approach
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The sales comparison approach values a property by analyzing recent sales of similar, nearby properties and adjusting for differences, which is the standard method for typical owner-occupied residential appraisals; the cost approach instead estimates land value plus depreciated construction cost, the income approach capitalizes a property's income stream, and the gross rent multiplier is a simplified income-based shortcut, not what's described here.57. A seller tells her listing agent privately that the roof leaks during heavy storms, then asks the agent not to mention it to any buyers. What should the agent do?
- A. Advise the seller that known material defects generally must be disclosed, since concealing them can expose both the seller and agent to liability
- B. Report the seller to the police for concealment
- C. Honor the seller's request completely and never mention the leak to any buyer
- D. Mention the leak only if a buyer specifically asks about roof condition
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Known material defects that affect a property's value or desirability generally must be disclosed to prospective buyers, so an agent should counsel the seller accordingly rather than agreeing to conceal it, waiting for a buyer to ask the exact right question, or treating a disclosure lapse as a police matter, which overstates the appropriate response.58. An agent representing the seller shows a customer-buyer a home and, when asked directly, truthfully confirms that the basement previously flooded, even though this might discourage the buyer's offer. Which principle explains why the agent must answer honestly despite representing the seller?
- A. Agents owe a general duty of honesty and fair dealing to all parties, even customers they do not represent
- B. The agent is legally required to switch to representing the buyer once asked a direct question
- C. Disclosure duties only apply to written questions, not spoken ones
- D. The agent owes the buyer full fiduciary loyalty as if the buyer were also a client
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Even when representing only the seller, an agent owes a baseline duty of honesty and fair dealing to everyone involved in the transaction, including buyer-customers, which requires truthful answers to direct factual questions; this is distinct from full fiduciary loyalty, which is reserved for the agent's actual client, and it doesn't trigger an automatic change in representation or depend on whether the question was spoken or written.59. An affiliate broker wants to purchase a listed property herself, using her own brokerage to represent her as the buyer. What is the appropriate practice in this situation?
- A. She is legally barred from ever purchasing a property listed by her own firm
- B. She must resign her license before making any offer
- C. She must fully disclose her licensee status and any personal interest in the transaction to all parties involved
- D. She may proceed without telling anyone, since she is a licensed professional
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
When a licensee has a personal stake in a transaction, such as buying a property listed through her own firm, ethical practice requires full disclosure of her licensed status and personal interest to all parties, so everyone can evaluate the situation with full information; simply proceeding silently understates the conflict, while an outright purchase ban or forced license resignation goes further than what disclosure-based practice actually requires.60. A property manager in Kingsport denies a rental application from a household of two parents and their three children, telling them the unit "isn't set up for that many kids." Under the federal Fair Housing Act, which protected class does this decision most directly implicate?
- A. Familial status
- B. Disability
- C. National origin
- D. Religion
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Familial status, which protects households with children under 18 with limited exceptions for certain senior housing, is one of the classes protected under the federal Fair Housing Act, and denying a rental specifically because of the presence and number of children is a textbook familial status violation, distinct from national origin, religion, or disability, none of which are implicated by this scenario.61. A bank systematically denies mortgage applications and refuses to lend at all within specific zip codes with predominantly minority residents, regardless of individual applicants' creditworthiness. This lending practice is known as
- A. Steering
- B. Blockbusting
- C. Underwriting
- D. Redlining
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Redlining refers to a lender or insurer refusing to do business, such as issuing mortgages, in specific areas based on the racial or ethnic makeup of residents rather than individual creditworthiness, which is exactly the geographic denial pattern described; blockbusting and steering involve inducing panic sales or guiding buyers rather than blanket lending denial, and underwriting is the legitimate, individualized process of evaluating loan risk, not a discriminatory geographic practice.
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2026 statistics
Key facts: Tennessee Real Estate exam
The Tennessee Real Estate is administered by Tennessee Real Estate Commission (TREC), with a 70% on each portion (national 56 of 80; state 28 of 40) result.
This free Tennessee Real Estate practice test has 61 original questions written to Tennessee Real Estate Commission (TREC)'s official content outline, last checked against it on August 10, 2026. Every question shows a worked explanation, and nothing here requires a signup.
As of 2026, the Tennessee Real Estate exam fee is $63 (full exam; $37 national-only / $26 state-only retakes).
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Official sources
Every exam fact on this page traces to a primary document published by the body that administers the exam.
- Tennessee Real Estate Candidate Information Bulletin (PSI Services LLC, updated 7/1/2025)Tennessee Real Estate Commission (TREC)test-takers.psiexams.com
- Affiliate Broker | Tennessee Real Estate CommissionTennessee Real Estate Commission (TREC)tn.gov
- PSI & Exam Information | Tennessee Real Estate CommissionTennessee Real Estate Commission (TREC)tn.gov
- Fees | Tennessee Real Estate CommissionTennessee Real Estate Commission (TREC)tn.gov
- Tennessee Real Estate Commission | TN.govTennessee Real Estate Commission (TREC)tn.gov
Last verified against the official exam content outline:
Frequently asked questions
How many questions are on the real Tennessee Affiliate Broker exam?
The exam is split into a national section of 80 questions and a state section of 40 questions, taken as two separate timed portions.
What score do I need to pass the Tennessee Affiliate Broker exam?
You need 70% on each portion separately: 56 of 80 correct on the national section and 28 of 40 correct on the state section. A high score on one portion does not offset a low score on the other.
What coursework do I need to complete before I can take the exam?
Tennessee requires 90 total hours of real estate education before you sit for the exam: 60 hours of real estate principles/fundamentals plus the 30-hour Course for New Affiliates.
How should I use a practice test to prepare for the affiliate broker exam?
Take a full-length practice test under timed conditions first to see how your national and state scores compare, then drill the topic areas where you fell short before your real exam date.
Is this practice test free and does it require signing up?
Yes, this practice test is free to take and does not require creating an account or providing payment information.
What topics should I focus my practice questions on?
Prioritize advertising and marketing rules and agency and disclosure issues, since these carry more scored items on the affiliate broker exam than most other content areas.