"I'm only 17, can I get started anyway?" A Chandler teenager, still in high school, is eager to launch her career as an Oklahoma real estate sales associate. Under state eligibility rules, she:

Does not yet qualify, because applicants must be at least 18 years old

Qualifies immediately with parental consent

Qualifies only if she finishes her coursework early

Qualifies as long as she has a sponsoring broker lined up

The Oklahoma Broker Relationships Act primarily governs:

The duties and disclosure obligations that exist between licensees and the parties they represent or work with in a transaction

The licensing exam application process

Property tax assessment procedures

Construction codes for new residential builds

A buyer in Norman tells her agent confidentially that she would pay up to $10,000 more than her initial offer if needed. Consistent with the fiduciary duty of loyalty, the agent should:

Keep the client's confidential negotiating position undisclosed without her permission

Inform the seller's agent of the buyer's maximum price

Encourage the buyer to offer the higher amount immediately

Split the difference between the current offer and the maximum

A listing agent's fiduciary duty of accounting to her seller-client is best demonstrated when the agent:

Promptly and accurately handles and records all client funds and documents received

Negotiates aggressively for the highest possible sale price

Markets the property across multiple platforms

Discloses known material defects to prospective buyers

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PRACTICE ENGINE · OKLAHOMA REAL ESTATE

Oklahoma Real Estate Practice Exam.
Free practice test — 61 verified questions, instant feedback.

Written and reviewed by Vincent Ruan, EA, CFP®

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QUESTION 1 / 61OK License Law & RegulationEasy0/0

Which of the following is a baseline eligibility requirement to apply for an Oklahoma real estate license?

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1. Which of the following is a baseline eligibility requirement to apply for an Oklahoma real estate license?
- A. Holding a four-year college degree
- B. Owning real property within the state
- C. Having lived in Oklahoma for at least ten years
- D. Being a U.S. citizen or lawful permanent resident
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Oklahoma requires applicants to be a U.S. citizen or lawful permanent resident to qualify for licensure, but does not require applicants to already own property in the state, hold a specific college degree, or meet a lengthy state residency duration, making citizenship or lawful residency status the correct baseline requirement.
2. "I'm only 17, can I get started anyway?" A Chandler teenager, still in high school, is eager to launch her career as an Oklahoma real estate sales associate. Under state eligibility rules, she:
- A. Does not yet qualify, because applicants must be at least 18 years old
- B. Qualifies only if she finishes her coursework early
- C. Qualifies as long as she has a sponsoring broker lined up
- D. Qualifies immediately with parental consent
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Oklahoma sets a minimum age of 18 for real estate license applicants, so a 17-year-old does not yet meet the baseline eligibility requirement regardless of parental consent, early coursework completion, or having identified a sponsoring broker, since age eligibility is a separate requirement from those other factors.
3. The Oklahoma Broker Relationships Act primarily governs:
- A. The licensing exam application process
- B. The duties and disclosure obligations that exist between licensees and the parties they represent or work with in a transaction
- C. Property tax assessment procedures
- D. Construction codes for new residential builds
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The Oklahoma Broker Relationships Act addresses how real estate licensees relate to buyers and sellers, including the duties owed and disclosures required in different types of agency and brokerage relationships, and it does not govern unrelated matters like exam applications, tax assessments, or building construction codes.
4. A Wagoner duplex changed hands for $214,500; its tenants pay a combined $1,650 each month in rent. Dividing price by monthly rent, what gross rent multiplier does that produce?
- A. 130
- B. 140
- C. 11
- D. 0.008
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The gross rent multiplier is calculated by dividing the sale price by the gross monthly rent, so $214,500 divided by $1,650 equals 130; using annual rent instead of monthly rent, inverting the ratio, or a simple arithmetic slip produce the other incorrect results shown.
5. A property along the Arkansas River in Tulsa gives its owner certain rights tied to the adjoining waterway. What are these rights called?
- A. Reversionary rights
- B. Riparian rights
- C. Littoral rights
- D. Prescriptive rights
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Riparian rights are the rights of an owner whose land borders a flowing waterway such as a river or stream to reasonable use of the water; littoral rights apply instead to land bordering non-flowing bodies like lakes or oceans, so it is the wrong category of water right here.
6. A buyer in Norman tells her agent confidentially that she would pay up to $10,000 more than her initial offer if needed. Consistent with the fiduciary duty of loyalty, the agent should:
- A. Encourage the buyer to offer the higher amount immediately
- B. Keep the client's confidential negotiating position undisclosed without her permission
- C. Inform the seller's agent of the buyer's maximum price
- D. Split the difference between the current offer and the maximum
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The fiduciary duties of loyalty and confidentiality require an agent to protect a client's confidential negotiating information and not reveal it to the other side, since disclosing it would undermine the client's bargaining position and breach the trust the agency relationship is built on.
7. "Yes, I can act for both of you in this deal, but only once you both agree to it in writing," a Chandler broker tells a couple who each want to buy and sell through her at the same time. That kind of single-licensee, both-sides arrangement is known as:
- A. Subagency
- B. Designated agency
- C. Dual agency
- D. Transaction brokerage
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Dual agency exists when a single licensee represents both parties to the same transaction, which requires informed written consent from both because of the inherent conflict of interest, distinguishing it from designated agency (two different licensees within one firm), subagency (an agent of the listing broker with no direct relationship to the buyer), and transaction brokerage (no fiduciary representation of either side).
8. At a Poteau foreclosure auction, a brokerage realizes it already has one client bidding to buy the property and another client trying to sell it. To keep each client's interests fully protected, the firm puts a different in-house agent on each side of the deal. This split-representation setup is called:
- A. Dual agency
- B. Open listing representation
- C. Designated agency
- D. Subagency
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Designated agency splits representation within the same brokerage by assigning separate licensees to each party so that each client receives undivided loyalty from their own designated agent, which differs from dual agency, where a single licensee attempts to represent both sides at once.
9. A listing agent's fiduciary duty of accounting to her seller-client is best demonstrated when the agent:
- A. Promptly and accurately handles and records all client funds and documents received
- B. Discloses known material defects to prospective buyers
- C. Markets the property across multiple platforms
- D. Negotiates aggressively for the highest possible sale price
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The fiduciary duty of accounting requires an agent to properly receive, hold, and track client funds and important documents, keeping accurate records available to the client, which is distinct from other fiduciary duties like obedience, care, or disclosure that the other answer choices better illustrate.
10. A cooperating broker who is neither the buyer's agent nor the listing agent, but who shows the property while owing fiduciary duties to the seller through the listing broker, is functioning as a:
- A. Designated agent
- B. Subagent
- C. Transaction broker
- D. Dual agent
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
A subagent works under the listing broker's authority and owes the same fiduciary duties to the seller as the listing agent does, even though the subagent may be the one physically showing the property to a buyer, which differs from designated or dual agency arrangements where duties run differently.
11. A listing agreement in Duncan grants the brokerage an exclusive right to sell for 90 days. If the seller finds a buyer entirely on her own before the listing expires, the seller will most likely still owe a commission because:
- A. An exclusive-right-to-sell agreement entitles the broker to a commission no matter who procures the buyer during the term
- B. The agreement automatically converts to a net listing
- C. Open listings never waive commissions
- D. Exclusive agency agreements also require paying commission on owner-found buyers
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Under an exclusive-right-to-sell listing, the broker earns the commission if the property sells during the listing period regardless of who actually finds the buyer, which is the key feature distinguishing it from an exclusive agency listing, where the seller can find a buyer independently and avoid owing a commission.
12. A newly licensed agent in Weatherford is reviewing a purchase agreement with her broker before submission. Beyond offer and acceptance, competent parties, and a legal purpose, her broker reminds her that an enforceable contract must also include:
- A. Notarization of all signatures
- B. Consideration
- C. A licensed witness present at signing
- D. Recording with the county clerk
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Consideration, meaning something of value exchanged between the parties, is one of the essential elements of a legally enforceable contract, while notarization, witnesses, and recording may be useful or required for certain purposes but are not themselves elements that make a contract valid.
13. Why must a contract for the sale of real property generally be in writing to be enforceable in court?
- A. Oral contracts for anything are void from the moment they are spoken
- B. The statute of frauds requires real estate contracts to be written and signed to be enforceable
- C. Verbal agreements bind only the seller, never the buyer
- D. Only contracts involving a broker require a writing
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The statute of frauds is a long-standing legal doctrine requiring certain categories of contracts, including those for the sale of real property, to be in writing and signed by the parties to be enforceable, which protects against fraudulent claims of oral agreements rather than voiding all oral contracts generally.
14. A divorcing spouse in Sapulpa signs over her interest in the marital home to her ex-husband using a deed that carries no warranties of title whatsoever. This is most likely a:
- A. General warranty deed
- B. Deed of trust
- C. Quitclaim deed
- D. Special warranty deed
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A quitclaim deed conveys whatever interest the grantor holds, if any, without making any warranties about the quality or validity of that title, which makes it a common tool for transferring interests between family members such as in a divorce settlement, unlike warranty deeds which promise clear title.
15. To ensure her ownership interest is protected against later claims by third parties, a buyer in Idabel takes which action immediately after closing?
- A. Purchases a home warranty on the major systems
- B. Signs a subordination agreement with her lender
- C. Records the deed with the county clerk's office
- D. Files a lis pendens against her own property
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Recording the deed in the county clerk's records gives constructive (public) notice of the buyer's ownership interest, which protects her priority against later purchasers or lienholders who might otherwise claim the property; a lis pendens instead notices pending litigation, a subordination agreement changes lien priority rather than establishing ownership notice, and a home warranty covers system repairs, not title protection.
16. A buyer under contract to purchase a Cushing home from an estate has fully performed, but the estate's executor now refuses to close for no valid reason. Wanting to force the transaction through rather than simply recover her earnest money, the buyer should sue for:
- A. Specific performance
- B. Rescission
- C. Compensatory damages only
- D. Liquidated damages
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Specific performance is an equitable remedy that compels a breaching party to actually complete the transaction as agreed, which fits a buyer who wants the sale to close rather than simply recovering money, unlike compensatory damages, rescission, or liquidated damages, which end the deal rather than force it forward.
17. An Okmulgee seller who already paid the full year's property taxes finds that closing falls mid-year. To fairly split costs for the months remaining after closing, the closing statement will show:
- A. A full tax refund issued directly from the county to the buyer
- B. A credit to the seller and a debit to the buyer for the buyer's prorated share of the prepaid taxes
- C. A debit to the seller only, with no corresponding entry
- D. No adjustment, since taxes remain the seller's sole responsibility
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Proration at closing fairly divides prepaid expenses like property taxes between the parties based on their period of ownership, so the seller who already paid for the full year receives a credit while the buyer is debited for the share of taxes covering the time after closing that the seller already paid on the buyer's behalf.
18. To knock down her interest rate on a $348,000 mortgage in Bixby, a homebuyer pays her lender 1.75 discount points at the closing table. In dollars, how much did she pay?
- A. $60,900
- B. $3,480
- C. $609
- D. $6,090
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Each discount point equals one percent of the loan amount, so 1.75 points on a $348,000 loan is 348,000 multiplied by 0.0175, which equals $6,090; the other figures come from common errors such as using only one point instead of 1.75, misapplying a 17.5 percent rate, or misplacing the decimal point.
19. In Jenks, a purchaser puts $44,400 down toward a $296,000 home and finances the rest with a new mortgage. What loan-to-value ratio does that financing represent?
- A. 90%
- B. 80%
- C. 15%
- D. 85%
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
The loan amount equals the purchase price minus the down payment, or $251,600, and dividing that loan amount by the $296,000 price yields a loan-to-value ratio of 85 percent; 15 percent is simply the down payment percentage, which is easy to confuse with loan-to-value but represents the opposite share of the price.
20. A homeowner in Catoosa is 15 years into a 30-year fixed-rate loan that fully amortizes with level payments. Compared with her early payments, what has happened to the principal portion of each payment she now makes?
- A. It is applied only during the final five years of the loan
- B. It decreases steadily until it reaches zero
- C. It stays exactly the same every month
- D. It gradually increases while the interest portion decreases, even as the total payment amount stays constant
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
In a fully amortizing fixed-rate mortgage, the total payment stays level, but the mix shifts over time: the interest portion is largest early on when the loan balance is highest and shrinks as the balance goes down, while the principal portion correspondingly grows larger with each payment across the loan term.
21. A homeowner in Owasso is refinancing and comparing a lender's $415,000 loan offer with 1.5 discount points against a no-point loan at a higher rate. Before advising on this trade-off, the real estate licensee should:
- A. Calculate the exact break-even period and recommend the better choice
- B. Advise the client to always choose the option with points
- C. Refer the client to a licensed mortgage professional, since licensees generally should not give specific loan-structuring advice
- D. Guarantee which option saves more money over the full loan term
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Real estate licensees are not licensed mortgage professionals, and structuring decisions like comparing discount points against interest rates require expertise and disclosures a mortgage loan originator provides, so the appropriate step is a referral rather than the licensee personally calculating or guaranteeing a financing outcome.
22. A loan officer in Grove is training a new processor on federal disclosure timelines. She explains that after a borrower submits a complete mortgage application, federal law requires the lender to deliver a Loan Estimate disclosing projected closing costs and loan terms:
- A. Within three business days of receiving a completed loan application
- B. Only at the closing table
- C. Only if the borrower requests it in writing
- D. Within 30 days after closing
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Federal mortgage disclosure requirements obligate lenders to deliver a Loan Estimate to the borrower within three business days after receiving a completed loan application, giving borrowers an early, standardized look at projected costs and terms well before closing rather than waiting until the transaction is nearly finished.
23. A retail strip center in Hugo generates $84,000 in net operating income each year. Investors purchasing similar buildings in the area are pricing them using an 8% capitalization rate. Under the income approach, the building's indicated value is:
- A. $6,720
- B. $10,500,000
- C. $1,050,000
- D. $105,000
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Under the income approach, value equals net operating income divided by the capitalization rate, so $84,000 divided by 0.08 equals $1,050,000; the other choices result from misplacing the decimal point in the capitalization rate in either direction, or from multiplying instead of dividing.
24. The appraisal principle stating that a property's value is maximized when it is used in the way that is legally permissible, physically possible, financially feasible, and most profitable is called:
- A. Highest and best use
- B. Principle of contribution
- C. Principle of conformity
- D. Principle of substitution
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Highest and best use is the appraisal principle describing the single most profitable, legally allowed, and physically achievable use of a property, distinguishing it from conformity, which concerns similarity among neighboring properties, and contribution, which measures how much a specific improvement adds to overall value.
25. A licensee preparing a comparative market analysis for a seller in Enid should understand that, unlike a formal appraisal, a CMA:
- A. Is an estimate of value based on comparable listings and sales, prepared by a licensee, and is not used for lender underwriting
- B. Legally requires state appraiser certification to prepare
- C. Relies exclusively on the cost approach
- D. Is always more precise than a certified appraisal
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A comparative market analysis is prepared by a real estate licensee using comparable listing and sales data to help price a property, but it is not a certified appraisal and lenders do not accept a CMA in place of a formal appraisal for underwriting purposes, making it a useful but distinct tool from a licensed appraiser's report.
26. A property manager overseeing rentals in Midwest City collects a tenant's security deposit. Best practice, and often a legal requirement, is that this deposit be:
- A. Mixed with rental income in the general operating account for simplicity
- B. Deposited directly into the owner's personal checking account
- C. Kept as petty cash for maintenance emergencies
- D. Held in a separate trust or escrow account, not commingled with operating funds
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Security deposits are client trust funds that belong to the tenant unless deductions are justified, so they must be held in a separate trust or escrow account rather than mixed with the property manager's own operating funds, which protects the tenant's money and helps the manager avoid a commingling violation.
27. Placing a yard sign and an online listing for a home in Ponca City, a licensee includes only her personal cell number and first name, leaving out any mention of her sponsoring brokerage. This advertising practice is best described as:
- A. A prohibited "blind" advertisement because it omits the brokerage's identity
- B. A properly compliant form of personal promotion
- C. A requirement under federal Fair Housing advertising rules
- D. Acceptable as long as the yard sign is removed within 10 days of contract
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Real estate advertising rules generally prohibit "blind" advertisements, meaning ads that fail to identify the sponsoring brokerage, because consumers must be able to see that the ad is placed by a licensed real estate business rather than a private individual; this is a license-law advertising standard, not a Fair Housing requirement, and no general rule ties compliance to removing a sign within a set number of days.
28. For a home built in 1975 that is being sold in Tahlequah, federal law requires the seller to:
- A. Disclose lead paint only if the buyer specifically asks
- B. Fully remediate any lead paint before closing
- C. Provide the buyer with an EPA-approved lead-based paint disclosure and pamphlet, since the home predates 1978
- D. Provide the disclosure only if the property is a rental
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Federal law requires sellers of housing built before 1978, when lead-based residential paint was banned, to disclose known lead-based paint hazards and give buyers an EPA-approved information pamphlet, regardless of whether the buyer asks, though the law does not require the seller to remediate the hazard itself before selling.
29. While previewing listings for a buyer-client, a licensee in Guthrie discovers what looks like the perfect investment property for herself. Before making a personal offer on it, she should:
- A. Purchase the property immediately without mentioning it, since it was not shown to the client
- B. Disclose the conflict only if the client asks directly
- C. Tell the client the property is unavailable so she can buy it herself
- D. Disclose her personal interest and the potential conflict to her client and act with complete transparency
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
A licensee has an ethical obligation to avoid self-dealing and conflicts of interest at a client's expense, so discovering a desirable property while working for a client requires full transparency about her personal interest rather than concealment, misrepresenting its availability, or waiting to be asked.
30. A commercial property manager in Claremore schedules regular preventive maintenance inspections primarily to:
- A. Avoid ever having to disclose deferred maintenance
- B. Protect the owner's asset value by identifying and addressing problems before they become costly emergencies
- C. Increase rent without notifying tenants
- D. Satisfy a requirement with no financial benefit to the owner
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Preventive maintenance inspections let a property manager catch small issues early, which protects the owner's investment and typically costs far less than emergency repairs after a system fails completely, making this practice a core part of responsibly managing an owner's asset rather than a mere formality.
31. A Muskogee listing agent starts working the phones, warning residents block by block that families of a certain protected class are about to move in and that home prices will soon crater, all to pressure quick, below-market sales. This illegal tactic is known as:
- A. Blockbusting
- B. A net listing
- C. Redlining
- D. Steering
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Blockbusting involves inducing panic selling by suggesting that the entry of a protected class into a neighborhood will cause property values to fall, which is illegal under fair housing law, and is distinct from steering buyers toward certain areas or redlining, which involves lenders refusing services in certain geographic areas.
32. "We just don't lend in that zip code," a loan officer in Ardmore tells an applicant, regardless of her income or credit history, because the area is predominantly minority. This practice is called:
- A. Steering
- B. Blockbusting
- C. Redlining
- D. Underwriting
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Redlining is the illegal practice of denying or limiting financial services, such as mortgage loans, to residents of certain areas based on the racial or ethnic makeup of that area rather than each applicant's individual qualifications, unlike underwriting, which is the legitimate process of evaluating individual creditworthiness.
33. An Oklahoma Real Estate Commission investigation confirms that a licensee based in Anadarko continued representing buyers and sellers in transactions for several months after her license had lapsed. Once this violation is confirmed, what can the Commission do?
- A. Discipline the licensee, up to and including suspension or revocation of the license
- B. Nothing, since activity under a lapsed license falls outside its jurisdiction
- C. Take no action unless a civil lawsuit is filed first
- D. Only refer the matter to local police for criminal prosecution
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The Oklahoma Real Estate Commission is empowered to investigate license law violations, including practicing under a lapsed license, and to impose a range of disciplinary sanctions on its own authority, from reprimands to suspension or revocation, without needing a separate civil lawsuit or referral to another agency first.
34. An applicant in Moore who has not held an active real estate license in Oklahoma within the past five years must apply for which license type to begin practicing?
- A. Managing Broker
- B. Broker Associate
- C. Reciprocal Sales Associate
- D. Provisional Sales Associate
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Oklahoma requires applicants without an active license held within the preceding five years to enter through the Provisional Sales Associate license type, which reflects their status as new or returning entry-level licensees rather than the broker-level or reciprocal categories reserved for other circumstances.
35. A candidate in Sallisaw completed her approved pre-license salesperson coursework but delayed applying for her license. Under Oklahoma rules, how long does that completed coursework generally remain valid before she would need to retake it?
- A. Indefinitely, with no expiration
- B. Three years from the date of completion
- C. Five years
- D. One year
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Oklahoma treats completed pre-license coursework as valid for a limited window after completion, specifically three years, so a candidate who waits too long past that period would need to retake the approved coursework before applying, rather than being able to rely on it indefinitely or for a much shorter or longer period.
36. Oklahoma license law extends its scope of regulated real estate activity to include which of the following services performed for compensation on behalf of another?
- A. Performing home inspections
- B. Managing rental property for an owner
- C. Mowing lawns as a side job for neighbors
- D. Practicing law without a license
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Oklahoma license law regulates property management performed for compensation on another's behalf as a real estate activity requiring licensure, which is why the topic appears within the state's licensing framework, unlike unrelated services such as lawn care, home inspection, or legal practice, which fall under different regulatory schemes entirely.
37. Within Oklahoma license law's disclosure and hazards requirements, licensees have a general duty to ensure that known material defects affecting a property's value or desirability are:
- A. Kept confidential unless a lawsuit is filed
- B. Disclosed to prospective buyers regardless of whether the buyer specifically asks
- C. Disclosed only upon the buyer's written request
- D. Disclosed only after closing occurs
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Oklahoma's disclosure and hazards requirements place a general duty on licensees to see that known material defects are disclosed to prospective buyers proactively, since waiting for a specific question, waiting until after closing, or treating the information as confidential would defeat the purpose of a disclosure obligation designed to inform buyers before they commit.
38. Before a newly licensed Oklahoma Provisional Sales Associate can practice, state law requires the associate to:
- A. Complete a national reciprocity agreement
- B. Wait one full year before practicing
- C. Affiliate with, and be sponsored by, an actively licensed Oklahoma broker
- D. Open an independent brokerage immediately
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Like other states, Oklahoma structures its sales associate license so that the associate must work under the supervision of an actively licensed broker rather than practicing independently, which is why affiliation with a sponsoring broker is a prerequisite to actively practicing, unlike the other listed options which do not reflect how entry-level licensure is structured.
39. A person in Duncan who is not licensed by the Oklahoma Real Estate Commission negotiates the sale of a friend's home in exchange for a fee. This activity:
- A. Is legal because transactions between friends are exempt from all licensing law
- B. Is legal if the friend consents in writing
- C. Is legal as long as it happens only once
- D. Violates Oklahoma license law, which generally requires a license to negotiate real estate transactions for compensation on behalf of others
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Oklahoma license law generally requires a person to hold a real estate license before negotiating the sale of property for another party in exchange for compensation, and there is no blanket exemption simply because the parties are friends, the arrangement happens only once, or the friend consents, since licensure requirements exist to protect all consumers regardless of personal relationship.
40. Which estate in land gives an owner the most complete bundle of ownership rights, including the unlimited right to transfer the property by sale, gift, or inheritance?
- A. Leasehold estate
- B. Life estate
- C. Easement in gross
- D. Fee simple absolute
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Fee simple absolute is the most complete form of ownership recognized in real property law, carrying an indefinite duration and unrestricted transferability, unlike a leasehold (limited term), a life estate (ends at a measuring life), or an easement in gross (a mere use right, not ownership).
41. "You'll need mortgage insurance unless you can put down at least this much," a Skiatook lender tells a first-time buyer applying for a conventional loan. What down payment percentage is she referring to?
- A. 25%
- B. 20%
- C. 5%
- D. 10%
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Conventional lenders generally require private mortgage insurance to protect against default risk whenever a borrower puts down less than 20 percent of the purchase price, since a smaller down payment leaves the lender with less equity cushion if the loan later goes into default.
42. The Oklahoma Real Estate Commission's regulatory authority generally includes the power to:
- A. Set local property tax rates
- B. Adjudicate criminal fraud cases in district court
- C. Adopt rules governing licensee conduct and enforce compliance with state real estate law
- D. Approve municipal zoning ordinances
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
As the state's real estate licensing authority, the Oklahoma Real Estate Commission has rulemaking power over licensee conduct and enforcement authority over state real estate law, which is distinct from unrelated governmental functions like setting local tax rates, approving zoning ordinances, or adjudicating criminal cases in court.
43. "Your new privacy fence is sitting on our side of the line," a homeowner in Ada tells her neighbor after a refinance appraiser flags the boundary during a routine site visit. The neighbor's fence intruding onto her lot is best classified as a(n):
- A. Easement appurtenant
- B. Deed restriction
- C. Encroachment
- D. Zoning variance
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
An encroachment occurs when a structure or improvement from one property physically intrudes onto an adjoining parcel without permission; here the neighbor's fence crossing the boundary line discovered during the refinance appraisal is a physical intrusion, unlike a deed restriction or zoning variance (which involve permitted or restricted uses) or an easement appurtenant (a recorded right, not an unauthorized intrusion).
44. To reach a landlocked parcel near Stillwater, the owner holds a recorded right to cross the adjoining lot for driveway access, and that right automatically transfers to whoever owns the landlocked parcel in the future. This is a(n):
- A. Easement in gross
- B. License
- C. Easement appurtenant
- D. Lis pendens
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
An easement appurtenant benefits a specific parcel of land and runs with the title, transferring automatically to successive owners, whereas a license is a revocable personal permission, an easement in gross benefits a person rather than land, and a lis pendens is merely a notice of pending litigation.
45. Before a Bartlesville neighborhood was rezoned residential, a small grocery store was already operating there. The store's continued operation under the prior zoning classification is known as a legal:
- A. Variance
- B. Spot zoning
- C. Nonconforming use
- D. Special exception
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A legal nonconforming use allows a property use that predates a zoning change to continue operating despite no longer matching current zoning, while a variance grants relief from a specific zoning requirement, a special exception permits a conditional use, and spot zoning improperly singles out one parcel for different treatment.
46. A subdivision developer in Broken Arrow records a covenant limiting homes to single-story construction. If a future buyer builds a two-story home in violation, the most likely enforcement path is:
- A. A criminal zoning citation from the city
- B. Loss of title through adverse possession
- C. Automatic reversion of the lot to the developer
- D. A civil action brought by other lot owners or the HOA to enforce the restriction
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Private restrictive covenants recorded against a subdivision are generally enforced through civil litigation brought by parties with standing, such as neighboring lot owners or a homeowners association, rather than through criminal zoning enforcement, automatic title reversion, or adverse possession, none of which fit a covenant violation.
47. Settling her late uncle's estate near McAlester, an heir discovers a neighbor has spent more than a decade openly fencing and gardening a strip of the estate's land without ever asking permission. Under these facts, the neighbor may be able to claim ownership of the strip through:
- A. Eminent domain
- B. A prescriptive easement
- C. Escheat
- D. Adverse possession
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Adverse possession allows a person to gain actual ownership of land after openly, continuously, and without permission possessing it for the required period, which fits a resident who has fenced, gardened, and maintained a neighbor's strip for years, whereas a prescriptive easement would only grant a right of use rather than title, escheat transfers property to the state absent heirs, and eminent domain is a government taking with compensation.
48. A prospective buyer in Yukon first contacts a licensee to schedule a showing of a specific listed home. Best practice for the licensee is to disclose the nature of any agency relationship or brokerage duties:
- A. Only if the buyer directly asks
- B. At first substantive contact about the specific property, before eliciting confidential information
- C. Only after an offer has been accepted
- D. Only at the closing table
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Disclosing agency status at first substantive contact protects both the client and the buyer by making clear whose interests the licensee represents before any confidential information is shared, rather than waiting until later stages of the transaction when misunderstandings could already have occurred.
49. During a private conversation, a buyer's agent in Lawton learns that her client is getting divorced and must sell his current home quickly. The agent should treat this information as:
- A. Something to disclose only if directly asked
- B. Public once the buyer signs a contract
- C. Confidential, not to be disclosed to the other party's agent without the client's permission
- D. Shareable once a rapport is established with the seller's agent
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Personal information learned in the course of representing a client is protected by the fiduciary duty of confidentiality, and sharing it with the other side without permission could weaken the client's negotiating position, so the agent must keep it private regardless of rapport or whether anyone asks.
50. A purchase agreement in Edmond states the sale is contingent on the buyer obtaining mortgage financing within 30 days. If the buyer cannot secure financing despite a genuine good-faith effort, this contingency typically allows the buyer to:
- A. Cancel the contract and receive a refund of the earnest money
- B. Be sued by the seller for specific performance
- C. Automatically forfeit the earnest money
- D. Lose the right to cancel after 15 days regardless of the clause
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
A properly satisfied financing contingency clause is designed to protect the buyer, allowing cancellation and recovery of earnest money when financing genuinely cannot be secured despite good-faith efforts, rather than penalizing the buyer with forfeiture or exposing the buyer to a specific performance suit.
51. Which deed should an executor settling her late father's estate in Durant use to give the buyer the broadest protection, including warranties against title defects that arose even before her father owned the home?
- A. Bargain and sale deed
- B. Special warranty deed
- C. General warranty deed
- D. Quitclaim deed
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
A general warranty deed provides the broadest protection to a buyer because the grantor warrants title against defects arising at any time, even before the grantor owned the property, unlike a special warranty deed, which only covers the grantor's own period of ownership, or a quitclaim deed, which offers no warranties at all.
52. A residential landlord in Sand Springs refuses to repair a broken furnace during winter despite repeated tenant requests. This is most likely a violation of:
- A. The statute of frauds
- B. The doctrine of caveat emptor
- C. The principle of progression
- D. The implied warranty of habitability
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
The implied warranty of habitability requires residential landlords to maintain rental units in a livable condition, including functioning heat during winter, so refusing necessary repairs like a broken furnace breaches that duty, unlike the statute of frauds or caveat emptor, which address contract formation and buyer diligence rather than habitability.
53. After a borrower falls seriously behind on payments for a home in Perry, the lender relies on a clause in the promissory note that lets it demand the entire remaining loan balance immediately, rather than continuing to collect the missed payments one at a time. This clause is called a(n):
- A. Escalation clause
- B. Acceleration clause
- C. Alienation clause
- D. Defeasance clause
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
An acceleration clause allows a lender, upon a borrower's default, to declare the entire unpaid loan balance due immediately rather than continuing to collect scheduled installments; an alienation (due-on-sale) clause instead triggers when title is transferred, a defeasance clause requires the lender to release its lien once the loan is paid in full, and an escalation clause is a purchase-offer term used in competitive bidding, unrelated to loan default.
54. While working a refinance appraisal in Ada, an appraiser notices the closest recent sale nearby includes an attached garage that the subject home lacks. To account for this feature gap under the sales comparison approach, she should:
- A. Subtract the garage's value from the comparable's sale price
- B. Add the garage's value to the comparable's sale price
- C. Add the garage's value to the subject property's value
- D. Ignore the difference, since garages rarely affect value
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Appraisers adjust the comparable, not the subject, to account for feature differences: because the comparable has a superior feature the subject lacks, its price must be adjusted downward by that feature's value so it reflects what the comparable would have sold for if it matched the subject exactly.
55. A well-maintained home in Pauls Valley loses value after a new highway interchange is built directly behind the backyard, bringing constant noise and traffic. This type of value loss is classified as:
- A. Curable physical deterioration
- B. Functional obsolescence
- C. Incurable physical deterioration
- D. External (economic) obsolescence
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
External, or economic, obsolescence is a loss in value caused by factors outside the property's boundaries that the owner cannot control, such as a nearby highway increasing noise and traffic; functional obsolescence instead involves outdated internal features or design, and physical deterioration refers to actual wear and damage to the structure itself, not outside influences.
56. A seller in Shawnee knows the home has a history of significant roof leaks that were repaired but could recur. When advising on disclosure to a buyer, the seller's agent should recommend:
- A. Disclosing only if the buyer's inspector independently discovers it
- B. Disclosing the known material fact, since undisclosed known defects can create liability for both seller and agent
- C. Staying silent since the repairs were already completed
- D. Waiting until after closing to mention it
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Known material facts that could affect a buyer's decision or a property's value, such as a history of significant leaks, generally must be disclosed regardless of whether repairs were made, because withholding known defects can expose both the seller and the agent to legal liability if the problem resurfaces after closing.
57. A tenant in a no-pets apartment complex in Pryor asks her landlord to make an exception for her certified emotional-support animal. Under federal fair housing law, this type of request is best described as a request for:
- A. A conditional use variance
- B. An exclusive-use easement
- C. A reasonable modification
- D. A reasonable accommodation
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
A change to a rule, policy, or service, such as waiving a no-pets policy for a tenant's assistance animal, is a reasonable accommodation, distinguished from a reasonable modification, which involves a physical change to the unit or property itself; an easement and a use variance are unrelated land-use and property-rights concepts, not fair housing accommodations.
58. An agent in Lawton only shows homes in certain neighborhoods to a buyer based on the buyer's race, assuming the buyer would be 'most comfortable' there. This illegal practice is known as:
- A. Redlining
- B. Steering
- C. Blockbusting
- D. Puffing
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Steering occurs when an agent guides homebuyers toward or away from particular neighborhoods based on a protected characteristic like race, which violates fair housing law, and differs from blockbusting, which involves pressuring owners to sell out of fear, and redlining, which involves lenders denying services based on geography.
59. An Elk City property manager is training a new leasing agent: a wheelchair user living in one of their units has requested written approval to add a ramp at the entrance, paying the installation cost herself. Federal fair housing law says the landlord:
- A. May refuse for any reason since it alters the property
- B. Generally must allow the reasonable modification, though may require restoration of the property at move-out in some cases
- C. Must pay for the ramp's installation entirely
- D. May only allow it if all other tenants agree
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Federal fair housing law generally requires landlords to permit tenants with disabilities to make reasonable modifications to their unit at their own expense, and while the landlord may sometimes require the tenant to restore the unit when the tenancy ends, outright refusal to allow a reasonable modification like a wheelchair ramp would violate the law.
60. A qualifying senior housing community in Del City that meets specific federal criteria may lawfully restrict occupancy based on age, even though familial status is normally protected, because:
- A. Occupancy restrictions of any kind are always illegal without exception
- B. Federal law provides a specific exemption for qualified senior or 55-and-older housing communities
- C. The exemption applies to all rental housing regardless of age policy
- D. Fair housing law never applies to any rental housing
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Federal fair housing law includes a narrow, specific exemption allowing housing that meets defined criteria for older persons, such as 55-and-older communities, to restrict occupancy by age despite the general protection for familial status, but this exemption does not apply broadly to all rental housing or eliminate fair housing protections generally.
61. Which state agency has the authority to issue, renew, suspend, and revoke real estate licenses in Oklahoma?
- A. The Oklahoma Secretary of State
- B. The county clerk's office
- C. The Oklahoma Real Estate Commission
- D. The Oklahoma Bar Association
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The Oklahoma Real Estate Commission is the state agency responsible for administering license law, issuing and renewing licenses, and disciplining licensees, whereas the Secretary of State, the Bar Association, and county clerks handle entirely different functions unrelated to real estate licensure.

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Key facts: Oklahoma Real Estate exam

70% scaled on each…

To pass

$75

Exam fee

The Oklahoma Real Estate is administered by Oklahoma Real Estate Commission, with a 70% scaled on each portion (national + state) result.

This free Oklahoma Real Estate practice test has 61 original questions written to Oklahoma Real Estate Commission's official content outline, last checked against it on August 10, 2026. Every question shows a worked explanation, and nothing here requires a signup.

As of 2026, the Oklahoma Real Estate exam fee is $75 (per registration order; separate $35 application processing fee and $60 background check).

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Official sources

Every exam fact on this page traces to a primary document published by the body that administers the exam.

State of Oklahoma Real Estate Candidate Handbook (Pearson VUE)Oklahoma Real Estate Commissionhome.pearsonvue.com
Application and Exam FAQs | Oklahoma Real Estate Commission (OREC)Oklahoma Real Estate Commissionoklahoma.gov
OREC Licensing Fee Schedule (PDF), Effective 1 November 2024Oklahoma Real Estate Commissionoklahoma.gov
How to Obtain a License | Oklahoma Real Estate Commission (OREC)Oklahoma Real Estate Commissionoklahoma.gov

Last verified against the official exam content outline: August 10, 2026

Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the real Oklahoma salesperson exam?

The national portion has 80 scored items plus 5 unscored pretest items, and the Oklahoma state-specific portion has 40 scored items plus 10 unscored pretest items. Practicing separately for each portion mirrors how the real exam is structured.

What score do I need to pass on a practice test?

Aim for at least 70% on each portion, since Oklahoma requires a 70% scaled score on both the national and state portions to pass. Treat the two portions as separate pass/fail hurdles when you self-score practice sets.

What topics should a good Oklahoma salesperson practice test cover?

A well-built practice test weights questions the way the real state portion does: Laws and Rules Affecting Oklahoma Real Estate Practice carries the most items, followed by the Oklahoma Broker Relationships Act, then Property Management and Disclosures and Hazards. Reviewing the official candidate handbook's content outline alongside your practice questions helps confirm coverage.

Is this practice test free and does it require signing up?

Yes, you can work through the practice questions here without creating an account or entering payment information. It is meant as a free study companion alongside your pre-license coursework.

How should I use a practice test to prepare for the Oklahoma exam?

Take a full-length practice round timed close to the real limits, review every missed question against the topic it falls under, then retest on your weak areas until you consistently clear 70% on both the national-style and state-style question sets. Rotate in new question sets rather than memorizing answers from repeated attempts.

Does the practice exam reflect the real testing time limits?

The national portion of the real exam runs 150 minutes and the state portion runs 90 minutes, so timing your practice sessions to those limits gives a realistic feel for pacing. Practicing under a clock is especially useful for the state portion, which packs more law-heavy content into a shorter window.