PRACTICE ENGINE · PA SALESPERSON

PA Salesperson Practice Exam.
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QUESTION 1 / 40Property Ownership and Land UseHard
A buyer takes title by special warranty deed and also purchases an owner's title insurance policy at closing. After closing, the buyer suffers a loss from a title defect covered by the policy — a defect that arose before the grantor ever owned the property and was unknown to everyone when the policy was issued. What is the buyer's best source of recovery?
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  1. 1. A buyer takes title by special warranty deed and also purchases an owner's title insurance policy at closing. After closing, the buyer suffers a loss from a title defect covered by the policy — a defect that arose before the grantor ever owned the property and was unknown to everyone when the policy was issued. What is the buyer's best source of recovery?

    • A. The owner's title insurance policy, because it covers defects that existed but were unknown when the policy was issued
    • B. The special warranty deed, because its covenants warrant against all title defects whenever they arose
    • C. The county recorder, because recording the deed guaranteed the title was free of defects
    • D. No one — the buyer bears all losses from defects that predate the grantor's ownership
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Title insurance protects the insured against losses from covered title defects that existed but were unknown at the time the policy was issued — exactly this situation. Choice B is the tempting wrong answer: a special warranty deed warrants only against defects that arose during the grantor's own period of ownership, so a defect predating the grantor's ownership falls outside its covenants (that broader protection belongs to a general warranty deed). Recording provides constructive notice and priority, not a guarantee of title quality, and choice D is wrong because the policy exists precisely to cover this loss.

  2. 2. A buyer contracts to purchase a home for 300,000 dollars and borrows 240,000 dollars. The lender's appraisal comes in above the purchase price. What loan-to-value ratio will the lender use?

    • A. 20 percent
    • B. 80 percent
    • C. Less than 80 percent, because the higher appraised value is used as the denominator
    • D. It cannot be determined without knowing the exact appraised value
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    LTV is the loan amount divided by the lesser of the appraised value or the purchase price. Because the appraisal exceeds the 300,000 dollar purchase price, the purchase price is the lesser figure and controls: 240,000 divided by 300,000 is an eighty percent LTV. Choice C is the tempting trap — a higher appraisal does not lower LTV, because the lender uses the lesser of the two figures. Choice D fails for the same reason: since the appraisal is known to be higher, its exact amount is irrelevant. Twenty percent is the down payment share, not the LTV.

  3. 3. A salesperson receives a buyer's earnest money check along with an accepted purchase offer. How must these funds be handled?

    • A. Deposited into the broker's trust account, kept separate from the broker's own funds
    • B. Deposited into the brokerage's general operating account until closing
    • C. Held in the salesperson's personal account and delivered at closing
    • D. Turned over directly to the seller as a partial payment on the price
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Earnest money is a good-faith deposit that belongs in the broker's trust account, and the fiduciary duty of accounting requires safeguarding entrusted funds and prohibits commingling client money with the agent's own funds. Choice B is tempting because the funds still reach the brokerage, but an operating account holds the firm's own money — placing client funds there is exactly the commingling the accounting duty forbids.

  4. 4. A seller signs a listing agreement providing that the broker earns a commission unless the seller personally finds the buyer. Three weeks into the listing term, the seller's coworker — whom the seller approached directly, with no broker involvement — signs a contract to buy the home. What commission, if any, is owed?

    • A. None, because under an exclusive-agency listing no commission is owed when the seller personally procures the buyer
    • B. The full commission, because the property sold during the listing term
    • C. Half the commission, because the broker had already begun marketing the property
    • D. The full commission, but only if the broker had advertised the home before the coworker's offer
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The agreement described — commission owed unless the seller personally finds the buyer — is an exclusive-agency listing, and here the seller personally procured the coworker, so no commission is due. Choice B states the exclusive-right-to-sell rule, under which the broker earns a commission if the property sells during the term regardless of who procures the buyer; it is the tempting answer for anyone who confuses the two exclusive listing types. Choices C and D invent partial or conditional commissions that match neither listing type.

  5. 5. Which of the following best describes a conventional loan?

    • A. A loan insured by the Federal Housing Administration
    • B. A loan guaranteed by the Department of Veterans Affairs
    • C. A loan that is not insured or guaranteed by the federal government
    • D. A loan available only to eligible veterans
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    A conventional loan is not insured or guaranteed by the federal government. Choice A describes an FHA loan, which is insured by the Federal Housing Administration, and choices B and D describe a VA loan, which is guaranteed by the Department of Veterans Affairs for eligible veterans.

  6. 6. A borrower with an adjustable-rate mortgage receives notice that the interest rate on the loan will change at the upcoming adjustment date. How is the new rate determined?

    • A. By adding a margin to a designated index
    • B. By adding discount points to the original note rate
    • C. At the lender's sole discretion, based on its current profitability
    • D. It cannot change — the rate stated in the note applies for the entire term
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    An adjustable-rate mortgage has a rate that changes periodically based on an index plus a margin. Choice D describes a fixed-rate mortgage, which keeps the same rate for the entire term — the most tempting error for anyone confusing the two loan structures. Discount points are prepaid interest paid at closing to lower the note rate, not a mechanism for later rate adjustments.

  7. 7. A sale closes on September 1, with the day of closing charged to the buyer. Annual property taxes of 3,600 dollars for the calendar year are due at the end of the year and have not yet been paid. Using a 360-day banker's year with 30-day months, which entry appears on the closing statement?

    • A. Credit the seller 1,200 dollars
    • B. Credit the buyer 1,200 dollars
    • C. Credit the seller 2,400 dollars
    • D. Credit the buyer 2,400 dollars
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    Under a 360-day banker's year, the daily rate is the annual amount divided by 360: 3,600 dollars divided by 360 is 10 dollars per day. The seller owned the property from January 1 through August 31 — eight 30-day months, or 240 days — so the seller's share is 2,400 dollars. Because the taxes are paid in arrears (due at year end, after the seller's period of ownership), the seller credits the buyer for the seller's share, who will later pay the full bill. Choice C is the tempting reversal — crediting the seller is the treatment for expenses the seller prepaid, not for expenses in arrears. Choices A and B use the buyer's 120-day share of 1,200 dollars instead of the seller's share.

  8. 8. A broker's listing on a lakefront home expires without a sale. Two months later, the broker begins working with a buyer who becomes interested in that same home, now listed with a different brokerage. The buyer asks the broker to reveal the lowest price the former seller-client once said they would accept. May the broker disclose it?

    • A. No — confidentiality survives termination of the agency, and the former client's bottom-line price remains protected
    • B. Yes — the agency ended when the listing expired, so the duties owed to the former seller ended with it
    • C. Yes — the broker is now working with the buyer and must pass along every piece of information that helps the buyer
    • D. No — but only because the home is currently listed with a different brokerage
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The agency did terminate by expiration of the listing, but confidentiality is the duty that survives termination — it continues to bar revealing information that would harm the former principal's bargaining position, and the seller's lowest acceptable price is the textbook example. Choice B is the tempting answer because expiration genuinely is one way agency terminates; the trap is assuming every duty dies with the agency. Choice D reaches the right result for the wrong reason — the protection comes from the surviving duty of confidentiality, not from where the home is currently listed.

  9. 9. A salesperson representing a buyer client discovers that the buyer wants to purchase a home the same salesperson has listed for a seller client. What must occur before the salesperson may continue in the transaction as a dual agent?

    • A. Both buyer and seller must give informed written consent, and the salesperson may not advocate for either party against the other
    • B. The salesperson need only disclose the dual agency orally at or before closing
    • C. Nothing can make it lawful — dual agency is prohibited in every circumstance
    • D. Only the seller's consent is needed, because the seller is the party paying the commission
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Dual agency is legal only with the informed written consent of both parties, and a dual agent cannot advocate for one party against the other. Choice B is tempting because disclosure is indeed involved, but an oral disclosure at closing falls short of the informed written consent both parties must give. Choice C overstates the rule — dual agency is restricted, not universally banned — and choice D wrongly ties consent to who pays the commission.

  10. 10. A borrower closes on a 200,000 dollar loan and agrees to pay two discount points at closing to lower the note rate. How much will the borrower pay for the discount points?

    • A. 2,000 dollars
    • B. 4,000 dollars
    • C. 400 dollars
    • D. 20,000 dollars
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Discount points are prepaid interest paid at closing to lower the note rate, and one point equals one percent of the loan amount. One percent of 200,000 dollars is 2,000 dollars, so two points cost 4,000 dollars. Choice A is the trap for stopping after calculating a single point; C and D come from misplacing the decimal when converting the percentage.

  11. 11. A buyer hopes to purchase a home by taking over the seller's existing low-rate mortgage rather than obtaining a new loan. The seller's mortgage contains a due-on-sale clause. What effect does this clause have on the buyer's plan?

    • A. The lender may demand full repayment of the loan when the property is sold, so the buyer cannot assume the loan without the lender's approval.
    • B. The seller need only notify the lender of the sale, after which the buyer assumes the loan automatically.
    • C. The clause accelerates the loan only if the borrower misses a payment, so a sale does not trigger it.
    • D. The clause prohibits the seller from paying the loan off early, but has no effect on a sale.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A due-on-sale clause allows the lender to demand full repayment if the property is sold, which prevents a buyer from assuming the loan without lender approval — so the buyer's plan fails unless the lender consents. Choice C is the common confusion with acceleration upon default: a due-on-sale clause is triggered by the transfer itself, not by missed payments. Choice D confuses it with a prepayment restriction, and B understates the lender's rights.

  12. 12. A buyer is purchasing a 300,000 dollar home with a conventional loan and wants to avoid paying private mortgage insurance. Under the general rule for conventional loans, what is the minimum down payment the buyer should make?

    • A. 15,000 dollars
    • B. 30,000 dollars
    • C. 60,000 dollars
    • D. 75,000 dollars
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Private mortgage insurance is generally required on conventional loans when the down payment is less than twenty percent of the purchase price, so the buyer should put down at least twenty percent of 300,000 dollars, which is 60,000 dollars. The tempting answer of 30,000 dollars is only a ten percent down payment — common in practice, but still below the twenty percent threshold, so PMI would generally be required.

  13. 13. An income property produces a net operating income of 27,000 dollars per year. An investor who requires a nine percent capitalization rate would estimate the property's value at:

    • A. 2,430 dollars
    • B. 3,000 dollars
    • C. 243,000 dollars
    • D. 300,000 dollars
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    Net operating income divided by the capitalization rate yields the estimated value of an income property: 27,000 dollars divided by 0.09 equals 300,000 dollars. Choice B is the tempting slip of dividing by 9 instead of 0.09, choice C comes from multiplying the NOI by 9 rather than dividing by the rate, and choice A multiplies NOI by the decimal rate — each reverses or misapplies the capitalization formula.

  14. 14. A purchase contract contains a financing contingency. Despite diligent efforts, the buyer's loan application is denied, and the buyer gives timely notice canceling the contract under the contingency. What happens to the buyer's earnest money deposit?

    • A. The buyer may cancel and recover the deposit
    • B. The seller keeps the deposit as compensation for time the home was off the market
    • C. The deposit is divided between the seller and the listing broker
    • D. The buyer forfeits the deposit unless the seller voluntarily agrees to release it
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Financing, inspection, and appraisal contingencies give a buyer the right to cancel and recover the deposit if the condition is not met — here, the loan denial is exactly the unmet condition the contingency protects against. Choices B and D are tempting because a deposit can be at risk when a buyer simply walks away without a contractual basis, but a properly exercised contingency entitles the buyer to both cancellation and return of the deposit.

  15. 15. A buyer purchases a home for 200,000 dollars, and the lender's appraisal also comes in at 200,000 dollars. The lender approves a loan at an eighty percent loan-to-value ratio. How much of a down payment must the buyer make?

    • A. 20,000 dollars
    • B. 40,000 dollars
    • C. 80,000 dollars
    • D. 160,000 dollars
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    LTV is the loan amount divided by the lesser of the appraised value or purchase price, and at an eighty percent LTV the down payment equals the remaining twenty percent. Here both value figures are 200,000 dollars, so the loan is 160,000 dollars and the down payment is 200,000 × 20% = 40,000 dollars. Choice D is the loan amount itself, not the down payment — a common mix-up when the question asks for the buyer's cash contribution rather than the financed portion.

  16. 16. A grantee wants the form of deed that provides the greatest protection, including warranties against title defects that arose before the grantor ever owned the property. Which deed should the grantee request?

    • A. General warranty deed
    • B. Special warranty deed
    • C. Quitclaim deed
    • D. Deed of trust
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A general warranty deed offers the greatest protection because the grantor warrants against all title defects arising at any time — even before the grantor owned the property — through covenants such as seisin, quiet enjoyment, and warranty forever. The special warranty deed is the tempting wrong answer, but it warrants only against defects that arose during the grantor's own period of ownership. A quitclaim deed carries no warranties at all, and a deed of trust is not a conveyance of ownership — it is a security instrument pledging the property for repayment of a debt.

  17. 17. A title examiner discovers that a seller's former spouse may still hold a stray interest in the property, creating a cloud on the title. The former spouse is willing to release whatever interest they may have but refuses to make any promises about the condition of the title. Which instrument best accomplishes this?

    • A. A quitclaim deed from the former spouse
    • B. A general warranty deed from the former spouse
    • C. A special warranty deed from the former spouse
    • D. An owner's title insurance policy purchased by the buyer
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A quitclaim deed conveys only whatever interest the grantor may have, with no warranties, and it is commonly used exactly for this purpose — clearing clouds on title. That matches the former spouse's position: releasing a possible interest without promising anything about the title. Both warranty deeds fail because they would require the former spouse to make title warranties they refuse to give. The title insurance policy is the tempting non-deed answer, but insurance only protects the insured against losses from covered defects — it does not remove the former spouse's interest or clear the cloud from the record.

  18. 18. Before closing, a seller had already paid an expense covering a period that extends well past the closing date. On the closing statement, how is this prepaid expense handled between the parties?

    • A. The buyer reimburses the seller for the unused portion
    • B. The seller credits the buyer for the seller's share
    • C. The expense is not prorated because the seller chose to pay it in advance
    • D. The broker refunds the unused portion to the seller from the trust account
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    When an expense is prepaid by the seller, the buyer reimburses the seller for the unused portion, since the buyer will enjoy the benefit of the payment after closing. Choice B is the tempting reversal: a seller credit to the buyer is the correct treatment only for expenses paid in arrears, where the seller owes for time already used. Prepaid shared expenses are still prorated, so choice C is wrong, and the broker's trust account plays no role in allocating prorated expenses between the parties.

  19. 19. A home sells for 420,000 dollars under a listing providing for a five percent commission, which the listing brokerage and the selling brokerage have agreed to split equally. What amount does the selling brokerage receive?

    • A. 4,200 dollars
    • B. 5,250 dollars
    • C. 10,500 dollars
    • D. 21,000 dollars
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Commission equals sale price multiplied by the commission rate, and the total is then split between the listing and selling brokers per their agreement. Here the total commission is 420,000 × 5% = 21,000 dollars, and an equal split gives each brokerage 10,500 dollars. Choice D is the trap for stopping at the total commission and forgetting the question asks for one brokerage's share after the split.

  20. 20. An investor pays 250,000 dollars for a small rental property that produces an annual net operating income of 20,000 dollars. Assuming the price paid reflects the property's value, what capitalization rate does this purchase reflect?

    • A. Six percent
    • B. Eight percent
    • C. Ten percent
    • D. Twelve and one-half percent
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Because net operating income divided by the capitalization rate yields value, the relationship can be rearranged: the rate equals net operating income divided by value. Here, 20,000 ÷ 250,000 = 0.08, or eight percent. Choice D is the trap of dividing the price by the income — 250,000 ÷ 20,000 = 12.5 — which produces a multiplier, not a capitalization rate.

  21. 21. A grantor delivers a deed to Buyer A, who accepts it but does not record it. The grantor then delivers a deed to the same property to Buyer B, who promptly records. Under the recording system, whose interest is generally protected against the competing claim?

    • A. Buyer B, because recording gives constructive notice to the world and generally protects the first party to record
    • B. Buyer A, because the first deed delivered always controls regardless of recording
    • C. Buyer B, but only if Buyer B also purchased an owner's title insurance policy
    • D. Buyer A and Buyer B hold the title equally, because each received a valid deed
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Recording a deed in the county land records provides constructive notice to the world of the grantee's interest and establishes priority, generally protecting the first party to record — here, Buyer B. Choice B is the tempting wrong answer because delivery to Buyer A did occur first, but an unrecorded interest gave the world no constructive notice, which is precisely the risk the recording system addresses. Title insurance affects who bears a loss, not recording priority, and competing grantees do not simply share title.

  22. 22. Each of the following is one of the core fiduciary duties an agent owes to a principal, commonly summarized by the acronym OLD CAR, EXCEPT:

    • A. Confidentiality
    • B. Honesty and fair dealing
    • C. Accounting
    • D. Reasonable care
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The fiduciary duties summarized by OLD CAR are Obedience, Loyalty, Disclosure, Confidentiality, Accounting, and Reasonable care. Honesty and fair dealing is what a licensee owes to customers — non-clients — along with disclosure of known material defects; it is not a fiduciary duty owed to a principal. Confidentiality, accounting, and reasonable care are tempting eliminations precisely because they ARE part of OLD CAR, which makes them wrong answers to this EXCEPT question.

  23. 23. A seller wants to engage several brokerages at the same time, agreeing to pay a commission only to whichever broker actually procures the buyer — and to pay no one at all if the seller finds the buyer without any broker's help. Which listing arrangement fits the seller's plan?

    • A. Exclusive-right-to-sell listing
    • B. Exclusive-agency listing
    • C. Open listing
    • D. Net listing
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    An open listing is non-exclusive: the seller may list with multiple brokers, and only the broker who procures the buyer earns a commission. Choice B is the tempting answer because an exclusive-agency listing also lets the seller avoid a commission by personally finding the buyer — but an exclusive arrangement does not allow the seller to hire several brokerages at once, which is the defining feature of the seller's plan here.

  24. 24. A listing salesperson is showing the listed home to an unrepresented buyer. The salesperson knows the home's roof leaks, and the buyer asks the salesperson to reveal the lowest price the seller would accept. Which best describes the salesperson's obligations?

    • A. Disclose the known roof defect to the buyer, but refuse to reveal the seller's lowest acceptable price.
    • B. Reveal both the defect and the seller's bottom-line price, because honesty requires full disclosure to all parties.
    • C. Reveal neither, because the salesperson owes duties only to the seller-client.
    • D. Owe the buyer the full set of fiduciary duties, because the buyer is a party to the transaction.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The unrepresented buyer is a customer, owed honesty, fair dealing, and disclosure of known material defects — so the leaking roof must be disclosed — but not fiduciary duties. The seller's lowest acceptable price is confidential information that would harm the seller-client's bargaining position and must not be revealed. Choice C is the tempting trap: owing fiduciary duties only to the seller does not eliminate the duty to disclose known material defects to a customer. B overshares confidential information, and D wrongly extends fiduciary duties to a non-client.

  25. 25. A licensee canvasses a neighborhood, telling homeowners that families of a particular national origin have begun moving into the area and urging them to list and sell quickly "before it's too late." This practice is best described as:

    • A. Steering
    • B. Blockbusting
    • C. Redlining
    • D. Lawful prospecting for listings
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Blockbusting is inducing owners to sell by suggesting that people of a protected class are moving into the area — exactly what this licensee is doing. Steering is the tempting wrong answer, but steering involves channeling buyers toward or away from neighborhoods based on a protected class, not pressuring owners to sell. Redlining is denying loans or insurance in certain areas based on protected characteristics, and soliciting listings this way is not lawful prospecting.

  26. 26. Two borrowers close on home purchases the same day. Borrower One is in a lien-theory state; Borrower Two is in a title-theory state. While the loans remain outstanding, which statement correctly describes who holds legal title to each home?

    • A. Borrower One retains title while the lender holds a lien; legal title to Borrower Two's home is held by the lender or a trustee until the debt is repaid
    • B. Both borrowers surrender legal title to their lenders until the loans are repaid
    • C. Legal title to Borrower One's home is held by a trustee, while Borrower Two retains title subject to a lien
    • D. Neither borrower holds title; in both states legal title remains with the seller until the final loan payment
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    In lien-theory states the borrower retains title and the lender holds a lien, while in title-theory states legal title is held by the lender or a trustee until the debt is repaid — exactly as choice A describes. Choice C is the tempting reversal of the two theories, and choices B and D contradict how both systems allocate title.

  27. 27. A grantor signs a deed that contains words of conveyance and an adequate legal description of the property, then places it in a desk drawer, intending to hand it to the grantee at some future time. Has title transferred to the grantee?

    • A. No, because a deed must be delivered to and accepted by the grantee to transfer title
    • B. Yes, because the grantor's signature completed the conveyance
    • C. Yes, because the deed satisfies every formal requirement for validity
    • D. No, because the deed has not yet been recorded in the county land records
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Even a deed that meets the formal validity requirements — competent parties, words of conveyance, an adequate legal description, and the grantor's signature — must also be delivered to and accepted by the grantee before title transfers. A deed sitting in the grantor's drawer has not been delivered, so no transfer has occurred. Choice D is the tempting wrong answer: recording serves to give constructive notice to the world and establish priority against competing claims, so it protects the grantee's interest — but it is not what transfers title between the parties.

  28. 28. An investor comparing several small rental houses wants a quick screening number for each property before doing any deeper analysis. Which calculation produces the gross rent multiplier?

    • A. Net operating income divided by the capitalization rate
    • B. Sale price divided by the monthly gross rent
    • C. Monthly gross rent divided by the sale price
    • D. Loan amount divided by the lesser of appraised value or purchase price
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The gross rent multiplier is found by dividing the sale price by the monthly gross rent, giving investors a quick comparison tool. Choice A is tempting because it is also a valuation formula, but net operating income divided by the capitalization rate is the income capitalization method for estimating value, not the GRM. Choice C inverts the GRM formula, and choice D describes the loan-to-value ratio, a financing measure rather than a valuation tool.

  29. 29. An agency relationship between a real estate licensee and a client is created when:

    • A. the principal authorizes the licensee to act on the principal's behalf in dealings with third parties
    • B. the licensee shows the person at least one property
    • C. the licensee accepts an earnest money check from the person
    • D. the person attends the licensee's open house and signs the guest register
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    An agency relationship arises when a principal authorizes an agent to act on the principal's behalf in dealings with third parties — authorization by the principal is the key. Choice B is the tempting distractor because buyers often assume the licensee showing them homes automatically represents them, but touring properties, writing a deposit check, or signing an open-house register does not by itself supply the principal's authorization that creates agency.

  30. 30. A buyer submits a written offer on a condominium. The seller signs it after changing only the closing date, moving it one week later, and returns it to the buyer. The buyer, now uneasy about the purchase, decides not to proceed. Can the seller hold the buyer to the buyer's original offer?

    • A. No — the seller's alteration was a counteroffer that rejected and terminated the buyer's original offer
    • B. Yes — a change to the closing date alone is minor, so the seller's signature formed a binding acceptance
    • C. Yes — the original offer remains open until the buyer formally revokes it in writing
    • D. Yes — unless the buyer had expressly made the offer contingent on the original closing date
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Any change to the terms of an offer — even one as small as moving the closing date — is a counteroffer that rejects and terminates the original offer. Once terminated, the original offer no longer exists for the seller to enforce, so the buyer is free to walk away. Choice B is the classic trap: there is no 'minor change' exception under which an altered acceptance still binds the offeror. Choices C and D wrongly assume the original offer survived the seller's alteration.

  31. 31. An owner occupies one unit of her three-unit building and rents out the other two herself, using no real estate licensee and no advertising. She refuses to rent to an applicant solely because of the applicant's race, insisting that small owner-occupied buildings are exempt from fair housing law. Which statement is correct?

    • A. She is exempt, because the owner-occupied exemption covers buildings of four or fewer units.
    • B. She is not exempt: the owner-occupied exemption never applies to race, and the Civil Rights Act of 1866 prohibits all racial discrimination in property transactions with no exemptions.
    • C. She is exempt so long as she continues to avoid discriminatory advertising.
    • D. She is exempt because no real estate licensee was involved in the rental.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The Mrs. Murphy exemption for owner-occupied buildings of four or fewer units never applies to race, and the Civil Rights Act of 1866 separately prohibits all racial discrimination in property transactions with no exemptions at all — so her refusal is illegal. Choices A, C, and D are tempting because the exemption does exist and does require avoiding discriminatory advertising and licensee involvement, but meeting those conditions cannot save conduct based on race, which is categorically outside the exemption.

  32. 32. A sale closes on May 1, with the day of closing belonging to the buyer. The seller has already paid the entire calendar year's property taxes of 2,400 dollars in advance. Using a 360-day banker's year with 30-day months, which entry appears on the closing statement?

    • A. Credit the seller 800 dollars; debit the buyer 800 dollars
    • B. Credit the buyer 1,600 dollars; debit the seller 1,600 dollars
    • C. Credit the seller 1,600 dollars; debit the buyer 1,600 dollars
    • D. Credit the seller 2,400 dollars; debit the buyer 2,400 dollars
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Because the taxes were prepaid by the seller, the buyer reimburses the seller for the unused portion. The daily rate is the annual amount divided by 360: 2,400 ÷ 360 = 6.67 dollars per day. The seller owned the property from January 1 through April 30 — four 30-day months, or 120 days — leaving the buyer's unused portion at 240 days: 240 × 6.67 ≈ 1,600 dollars, credited to the seller and debited to the buyer. Choice B reverses the direction, which is the treatment for an expense paid in arrears (where the seller credits the buyer), and choice A is the seller's own 120-day share rather than the unused portion being reimbursed.

  33. 33. A home sells for 300,000 dollars under a listing with a six percent commission rate. What total commission does the sale generate?

    • A. 1,800 dollars
    • B. 6,000 dollars
    • C. 18,000 dollars
    • D. 30,000 dollars
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Commission equals the sale price multiplied by the commission rate: 300,000 dollars times six percent is 18,000 dollars, which is then split between the listing and selling brokers per their agreement. Choice A is the classic misplaced-decimal error (multiplying by 0.6 percent instead of 6 percent), and choice D results from applying a ten percent rate rather than the stated six percent.

  34. 34. Under the federal Fair Housing Act, each of the following is a federally protected class EXCEPT:

    • A. Familial status
    • B. National origin
    • C. Disability
    • D. Source of income
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    The seven federally protected classes are race, color, religion, national origin, sex, familial status, and disability. Source of income is not on the federal list, so D is the exception. Familial status, national origin, and disability are tempting to pick as the 'odd one out' because they are less obvious than race or religion, but all three are expressly among the seven federal classes.

  35. 35. Which instrument is the written document that actually conveys title to real property from one party to another?

    • A. A deed
    • B. A mortgage
    • C. A listing agreement
    • D. A promissory note
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A deed is the written instrument that conveys title to real property from a grantor to a grantee. A mortgage is the tempting wrong answer because it is also signed and recorded in a financed purchase, but a mortgage or deed of trust only pledges the property as security for repayment of a promissory note — it does not convey ownership. A listing agreement is merely an employment contract between a seller and a broker, and a promissory note is the borrower's promise to repay a debt, not a conveyance.

  36. 36. On a closing statement, prorating a shared expense such as property taxes or rent between the buyer and the seller means dividing the expense:

    • A. Equally between the parties, with each side paying half
    • B. According to the portion of the period each party owns the property, using the closing date as the dividing point
    • C. According to each party's percentage of equity in the property
    • D. Entirely to the seller, because the expense arose during the seller's ownership
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Proration divides shared expenses like taxes, rent, or interest based on the portion of the period each party owns the property, with the closing date serving as the dividing point. A fifty-fifty split (choice A) is the tempting trap because the expense is 'shared,' but the split is proportional to each party's time of ownership, not equal — a closing early in the tax year leaves the buyer responsible for far more than half.

  37. 37. A comparable rental house just sold for 240,000 dollars and generates gross rent of 2,000 dollars per month. What gross rent multiplier does this sale indicate?

    • A. 10
    • B. 12
    • C. 120
    • D. 1,200
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    The gross rent multiplier is the sale price divided by the monthly gross rent: 240,000 ÷ 2,000 = 120. Choice A (10) is the classic error of dividing by the annual rent of 24,000 instead — this multiplier is defined using monthly rent, so keep the rent figure monthly before dividing.

  38. 38. Which of the following is an essential element of a valid real estate sales contract?

    • A. An earnest money deposit
    • B. Mutual assent shown by offer and acceptance
    • C. Recording of the contract in the county land records
    • D. A licensed broker's signature
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    A valid real estate contract requires competent parties, mutual assent (offer and acceptance), consideration, a lawful object, and — under the Statute of Frauds — a written and signed agreement. Choice A is the classic trap: earnest money is a good-faith deposit held in the broker's trust account, but it is not one of the required elements of a valid contract. Recording and a broker's signature are likewise not among the essential elements.

  39. 39. A buyer finances the purchase of a home. At closing, the buyer signs a promissory note along with a second instrument that pledges the home itself as security for repayment of the debt. Which instrument serves this security function?

    • A. The promissory note
    • B. The mortgage or deed of trust
    • C. The deed conveying title
    • D. The listing agreement
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The mortgage or deed of trust is the instrument that pledges the property as security for repayment of the promissory note. The promissory note is the tempting wrong answer, but it is the debt obligation being secured rather than the instrument that pledges the property; the deed merely conveys title from grantor to grantee, and a listing agreement is an employment contract between a seller and a broker.

  40. 40. Three years into a fully amortized fixed-rate mortgage, a borrower reviews the loan statements and is surprised that, despite making every scheduled payment on time, the principal balance has declined only slightly. What best explains this?

    • A. In an amortized loan, early scheduled payments are applied mostly to interest, with later payments applied mostly to principal
    • B. The loan's interest rate has been adjusting upward based on an index plus a margin
    • C. The lender has been applying the payments to private mortgage insurance instead of the loan balance
    • D. The payments have been treated as prepaid interest that lowers the note rate rather than reducing the debt
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Amortization repays principal and interest through scheduled payments, with early payments applied mostly to interest and later payments mostly to principal — so a borrower early in the term sees only slow principal reduction even with a perfect payment history. Choice B is tempting but wrong because a fixed-rate mortgage keeps the same rate for the entire term; index-plus-margin adjustments apply to adjustable-rate mortgages. Choice D confuses scheduled payments with discount points, which are prepaid interest paid at closing to lower the note rate.