PRACTICE ENGINE · NY SALESPERSON

NY Salesperson Practice Exam.
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QUESTION 1 / 53Property Ownership and Land UseMedium
A seller signs a properly drafted deed naming the buyer as grantee, containing words of conveyance and an adequate legal description. The seller then locks the deed in a desk drawer, planning to hand it over at some point in the future. Has title passed to the buyer?
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  1. 1. A seller signs a properly drafted deed naming the buyer as grantee, containing words of conveyance and an adequate legal description. The seller then locks the deed in a desk drawer, planning to hand it over at some point in the future. Has title passed to the buyer?

    • A. Yes, because the deed contains all the elements required for a valid deed
    • B. No, because the deed must be delivered to and accepted by the grantee to transfer title
    • C. No, because a deed must first be recorded in the county land records to transfer title
    • D. Yes, because the seller's signed intention to convey is sufficient by itself
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Even a deed that satisfies every formal validity requirement — competent parties, words of conveyance, an adequate legal description, and the grantor's signature — must still be delivered to and accepted by the grantee to transfer title, so a deed sitting in the seller's drawer passes nothing. Choice C is the tempting confusion: recording serves to give constructive notice to the world and establish priority, but the transfer between the parties turns on delivery and acceptance, not recording.

  2. 2. A seller's listing with a brokerage expired without a sale. Two months later, a buyer working with the same salesperson asks what the former seller-client's bottom-line price was, and the salesperson remembers the seller privately stating the lowest price they would accept. May the salesperson share that information with the buyer?

    • A. Yes, because the duty of confidentiality ended when the listing expired.
    • B. Yes, because a seller's bottom-line price is a material fact that must be disclosed to buyers.
    • C. No, because the duty of confidentiality survives the termination of the agency relationship.
    • D. No, because a salesperson may never discuss any aspect of price with a buyer.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Confidentiality is one of the OLD CAR fiduciary duties, and it survives termination of the agency, so the salesperson may not reveal the former client's lowest acceptable price even after the listing expired. Choice A is tempting because the agency itself has ended, but the duty of confidentiality specifically outlives the relationship. A seller's bottom line is confidential bargaining information, not a material fact requiring disclosure, and choice D overstates the rule — general price discussions are part of the job; it is the principal's confidential information that is off-limits.

  3. 3. A salesperson is helping an investor estimate the value of a rental house. A very similar house nearby recently sold for $180,000 and rents for $1,500 per month. The subject house rents for $1,400 per month. Using the gross rent multiplier indicated by the comparable sale, what is the estimated value of the subject house?

    • A. $168,000
    • B. $180,000
    • C. $14,000
    • D. The value cannot be estimated without the subject's net operating income and a capitalization rate
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The gross rent multiplier is the sale price divided by the monthly gross rent, so the comparable indicates a GRM of $180,000 ÷ $1,500 = 120. Applying that multiplier to the subject's rent gives 120 × $1,400 = $168,000. Choice B simply borrows the comparable's own price without adjusting for the subject's lower rent. Choice C comes from mixing an annualized multiplier with a monthly rent figure. Choice D confuses the GRM shortcut with the income capitalization approach — the GRM needs only sale price and gross rent, not NOI or a cap rate.

  4. 4. A home sells for $360,000 under a listing providing a total commission of six percent of the sale price. The listing brokerage and the cooperating (selling) brokerage split the total commission equally, and the listing salesperson's agreement with the employing broker entitles the salesperson to fifty percent of the brokerage's share. How much does the listing salesperson receive?

    • A. $5,400
    • B. $10,800
    • C. $21,600
    • D. $2,700
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Commission is calculated by multiplying the sale price by the commission rate: $360,000 × 6 percent = $21,600 total, which is then split between the brokerages per their agreement. The listing brokerage's equal share is $10,800, and the salesperson's fifty percent of that share is $5,400. Choice B is the tempting stopping point — it is the brokerage's share before the salesperson split. Choice C is the undivided total commission, and choice D applies the fifty percent split one time too many.

  5. 5. A seller paid the full year's property taxes of $2,400 in advance on January 1. The sale closes on October 1, and under the contract the buyer owns the property beginning on the day of closing. Prorations are computed using a 360-day banker's year with 30-day months. Which entry should appear on the closing statement?

    • A. A credit to the seller of $600
    • B. A credit to the buyer of $600
    • C. A credit to the seller of $1,800
    • D. A credit to the buyer of $1,800
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Because the taxes were prepaid by the seller, the buyer must reimburse the seller for the unused portion — the part of the year the buyer will own the property. Under a banker's year, the daily rate is $2,400 ÷ 360 = $6.67 per day, and the buyer's period from October 1 through year end is three 30-day months, or 90 days: 90 × $6.67 ≈ $600, entered as a credit to the seller. Choice B reverses the direction — a credit to the buyer is correct only when an expense is paid in arrears, not prepaid. Choice C mistakenly uses the seller's own 270-day share ($1,800) instead of the unused 90-day portion.

  6. 6. A seller wants to hire several brokerages at once and owe a commission only to the one that actually produces the buyer. Which statement correctly describes the listing arrangement that accomplishes this?

    • A. An open listing: it is non-exclusive, the seller may list with multiple brokers, and only the broker who procures the buyer is paid.
    • B. An exclusive-right-to-sell listing: the broker is paid if the property sells during the term regardless of who procures the buyer.
    • C. An exclusive-agency listing: the broker is paid unless the seller personally finds the buyer.
    • D. An open listing: every broker the seller hires shares the commission equally when the property sells.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    An open listing is a non-exclusive agreement in which the seller may list with multiple brokers and only the broker who procures the buyer earns a commission. Choice D correctly names the listing type but misstates the payment rule — the procuring broker alone is paid; the commission is not shared among all hired brokers. Choices B and C accurately describe the exclusive listing types, but neither allows the seller to hire multiple brokerages and pay only the procuring one.

  7. 7. At an open house, a buyer and seller verbally agree on a price for the home and shake hands on the deal, but nothing is put in writing or signed. Is their agreement enforceable as a contract for the sale of real estate?

    • A. No — a contract for the sale of real estate must be written and signed under the Statute of Frauds.
    • B. Yes — mutual assent through offer and acceptance is all that is required.
    • C. Yes — provided witnesses at the open house can confirm the terms.
    • D. No — because the buyer did not hand over an earnest money deposit.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A valid real estate contract requires competent parties, mutual assent, consideration, a lawful object, and — for real estate — a written and signed agreement under the Statute of Frauds; the missing writing is what defeats this deal. Choice D is the tempting wrong answer: earnest money is merely a good-faith deposit and is not among the essential elements, so its absence is not what makes the agreement unenforceable.

  8. 8. A buyer purchases a home for $240,000 with a conventional loan and makes a $30,000 down payment. Will the lender likely require private mortgage insurance?

    • A. No, because private mortgage insurance applies only to FHA loans.
    • B. No, because making any down payment eliminates the need for private mortgage insurance.
    • C. Yes, because private mortgage insurance is required on all conventional loans regardless of down payment.
    • D. Yes, because the down payment is less than twenty percent of the purchase price.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    Private mortgage insurance is generally required on conventional loans when the down payment is less than twenty percent of the purchase price. Here the $30,000 down payment is only 12.5 percent of the $240,000 price, so PMI would generally be required. Choice A has it backwards — FHA loans carry FHA insurance, while PMI is the conventional-loan requirement — and choice C is wrong because PMI turns on the down payment falling below the twenty percent threshold, not on the loan being conventional by itself.

  9. 9. Which of the following is NOT required for a deed to be valid and effective to transfer title?

    • A. The grantor's signature
    • B. The grantee's signature
    • C. An adequate legal description of the property
    • D. Words of conveyance
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    A valid deed requires competent parties, words of conveyance, an adequate legal description, and the grantor's signature, and it must then be delivered to and accepted by the grantee to transfer title. What is required from the grantee is acceptance of the deed — not a signature. Choice B is the classic trap because both parties sign the purchase contract, so it feels natural that both would sign the deed; but only the grantor, who is giving up the interest, must sign the instrument of conveyance.

  10. 10. A tenant-occupied rental house closes on the 10th of the month. On the 1st, the seller collected the tenant's full monthly rent of $1,200. The contract provides that the buyer owns the property beginning on the day of closing, and prorations are computed using a 360-day banker's year with 30-day months. Which entry should appear on the closing statement for the rent?

    • A. Credit the seller $840
    • B. Credit the buyer $840
    • C. Credit the buyer $360
    • D. Credit the seller $360
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Proration divides shared items such as rent between buyer and seller based on each party's period of ownership, using the closing date as the dividing point. With a 30-day month, the daily rent is $1,200 ÷ 30 = $40. The buyer owns the property from the 10th through the 30th — 21 days — so the buyer's share of the month's rent is 21 × $40 = $840. Because the seller already collected the entire month's rent in advance, the seller is holding money attributable to the buyer's ownership period, so the closing statement credits the buyer $840 (with a matching debit to the seller). Choice C is the classic mistake of crediting the buyer the seller's 9-day share ($360) instead of the buyer's 21-day share, and choice A reverses the direction of the adjustment entirely.

  11. 11. Which of the following best describes marketable title?

    • A. Title that is free from reasonable doubt or serious defects and that a prudent buyer would accept
    • B. Title that has been insured under a title insurance policy
    • C. Title that has been conveyed by a general warranty deed
    • D. Title that has been recorded in the county land records
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Marketable title is title free from reasonable doubt or serious defects that a prudent buyer would accept. The tempting wrong answers describe related but distinct concepts: title insurance protects against losses from covered defects that existed but were unknown when the policy issued, and recording provides constructive notice of the grantee's interest — but neither insuring nor recording is what defines marketability, and the type of deed used to convey does not by itself make the underlying title free of defects.

  12. 12. A buyer purchases a home for $300,000, makes a twenty percent down payment, and finances the balance. To lower the note rate, the buyer agrees to pay two discount points at closing. How much do the points cost?

    • A. $2,400
    • B. $4,800
    • C. $6,000
    • D. $3,000
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    First find the loan amount: with twenty percent down on a $300,000 purchase, the buyer finances $240,000 — an eighty percent loan-to-value. Discount points are prepaid interest, and one point equals one percent of the loan amount, so two points cost 2% of $240,000, or $4,800. The tempting $6,000 answer applies two percent to the $300,000 purchase price, but points are always calculated on the loan amount, not the price; $2,400 is the cost of only one point, and $3,000 is one percent of the purchase price.

  13. 13. A seller signs an exclusive-right-to-sell listing with a broker. Midway through the listing term, the seller's coworker — who never contacted any licensee — offers to buy the home directly from the seller, and the seller accepts. The seller now argues that no commission is owed because the broker did not procure the buyer. Is the seller correct?

    • A. No — under an exclusive-right-to-sell listing, the broker earns the commission if the property sells during the term regardless of who procures the buyer, including the seller.
    • B. Yes — a broker can only earn a commission by personally procuring the buyer.
    • C. Yes — because the seller personally found the buyer, no commission is owed.
    • D. No — but the broker is limited to half the commission when the seller finds the buyer.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The defining feature of an exclusive-right-to-sell listing is that the broker is paid on any sale during the listing period no matter who procures the buyer — even the seller. Choice C is the classic trap: it states the rule for an exclusive-agency listing, under which a seller who personally finds the buyer owes no commission. Choice B describes the payment logic of an open listing, where only the procuring broker is paid, and choice D invents a half-commission rule that is not a feature of this listing type.

  14. 14. For the first few years of a 30-year fixed-rate, fully amortized loan, a borrower makes every scheduled payment on time. Reviewing an annual statement, the borrower is surprised to see the principal balance has decreased only slightly. What best explains this?

    • A. Early payments on an amortized loan are applied mostly to interest, and principal reduction accelerates later in the term.
    • B. The lender has necessarily misapplied the borrower's payments and owes a correction.
    • C. The interest rate must have adjusted upward based on an index plus a margin.
    • D. Amortized payments are applied entirely to principal until half of the loan is repaid.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Amortization repays principal and interest through scheduled payments, with early payments applied mostly to interest and later payments mostly to principal — so slow principal reduction early in the term is normal, not a servicing error (choice B). Choice C is tempting but wrong because a fixed-rate mortgage keeps the same rate for the entire term; a rate that changes based on an index plus a margin describes an adjustable-rate mortgage. Choice D reverses how amortization actually works.

  15. 15. A seller's existing mortgage carries an attractive interest rate, and the loan documents include a due-on-sale clause. A buyer proposes to purchase the home and simply take over (assume) the seller's existing loan payments. Which statement is correct?

    • A. The buyer may take over the payments automatically, because loan assumption is a buyer's legal right.
    • B. The lender may demand full repayment of the loan when the property is sold, so the buyer cannot assume the loan without the lender's approval.
    • C. The due-on-sale clause requires the seller to pay discount points at closing before the home may be sold.
    • D. The due-on-sale clause converts the loan into an adjustable-rate mortgage when the property is transferred.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    A due-on-sale clause allows the lender to demand full repayment if the property is sold, which is precisely what prevents a buyer from assuming the loan without lender approval — so the 'automatic' assumption in choice A is exactly what the clause blocks. Choice C confuses the clause with discount points, which are prepaid interest paid at closing to lower the note rate, and choice D invents a rate conversion the clause does not cause.

  16. 16. Which of the following is NOT required for a valid contract for the sale of real estate?

    • A. Competent parties
    • B. Consideration
    • C. A written and signed agreement complying with the Statute of Frauds
    • D. An earnest money deposit
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    A valid real estate contract requires competent parties, mutual assent, consideration, a lawful object, and — under the Statute of Frauds — a written and signed agreement. Earnest money is only a good-faith deposit held in the broker's trust account; it is not evidence of consideration by itself and is not a required element. It is the tempting answer to get wrong because nearly every real transaction includes a deposit, but a contract without one can still be fully valid.

  17. 17. A sale closes on May 15. The annual property taxes of $3,600 are paid in arrears at the end of the year, and the contract makes the seller responsible for taxes through the day of closing. Prorations are computed using a 360-day banker's year with 30-day months. Which entry should appear on the closing statement?

    • A. A $1,350 credit to the buyer
    • B. A $1,350 credit to the seller
    • C. A $2,250 credit to the buyer
    • D. A $1,800 credit to the buyer
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Proration divides a shared expense between the parties using the closing date as the dividing point. Under a 360-day banker's year, the daily rate is $3,600 ÷ 360 = $10. The seller's period runs from January 1 through May 15, which is four 30-day months plus 15 days, or 135 days, so the seller's share is 135 × $10 = $1,350. Because the taxes are paid in arrears (the buyer will pay the full bill later), the seller credits the buyer for the seller's share — so choice B, which reverses the direction, is wrong; that direction applies to expenses the seller prepaid. Choice C is the buyer's remaining share of the year, and choice D splits the year in half while ignoring the actual closing date.

  18. 18. An investor is evaluating a small retail property with a stable net operating income of $30,000 per year. When the investor first looked at the property, buyers in this market were applying a capitalization rate of 6 percent; by the time the investor makes an offer, market capitalization rates have risen to 8 percent while the property's NOI is unchanged. Under the income capitalization approach, what happens to the property's estimated value?

    • A. It increases, because a higher rate signals stronger investor demand
    • B. It decreases, because the same income is divided by a larger capitalization rate
    • C. It stays the same, because the net operating income has not changed
    • D. It cannot be determined without knowing the monthly gross rent
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Value under the income approach equals net operating income divided by the capitalization rate, so a larger denominator produces a smaller value: $30,000 ÷ 0.06 = $500,000, but $30,000 ÷ 0.08 = $375,000. Choice C is the tempting distractor — unchanged income does not mean unchanged value, because the rate investors demand is the other half of the formula. Choice A reverses the relationship, and choice D confuses this approach with the gross rent multiplier, which is the tool that uses monthly gross rent.

  19. 19. A lender will make a loan up to a maximum ninety percent loan-to-value ratio. A buyer is purchasing a home for $220,000, and the appraisal also comes in at $220,000. What is the minimum down payment the buyer must make?

    • A. $22,000
    • B. $198,000
    • C. $2,200
    • D. $44,000
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    LTV is the loan amount divided by the lesser of the appraised value or purchase price; here both figures are $220,000, so the maximum loan is 90 percent of $220,000, or $198,000. The down payment is the remaining percentage — 10 percent of $220,000, which is $22,000. Choice B is the maximum loan amount itself, not the down payment. Choice D applies the familiar twenty percent down figure, but this lender's maximum LTV requires only ten percent down. Choice C is a decimal error.

  20. 20. Three weeks into a six-month listing, the seller dies unexpectedly. The broker has already spent money marketing the home, and the seller's adult child — who inherits the property — wants the marketing to continue without interruption. What is the status of the listing agreement?

    • A. It terminated by operation of law upon the seller's death; the heir must enter a new agreement before the broker can represent her.
    • B. It remains in effect because the heir, as the new owner, wants the broker to continue.
    • C. It remains binding on the seller's estate until the six-month term expires.
    • D. It terminates only if the broker agrees to release the estate from the contract.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Agency may terminate by operation of law, such as the death or incapacity of either party, so the seller's death ended the agency automatically — the broker's marketing expenses and the remaining term do not keep it alive, which is why choice C fails. Because an agency is created by a principal authorizing the agent to act on the principal's behalf, the heir must grant that authorization herself through a new agreement; her mere wish that marketing continue (choice B) does not revive the old one, and no consent from the broker is needed for the termination (choice D).

  21. 21. A salesperson represents the seller of a home. An unrepresented buyer — a customer — begins working with the salesperson to view the property and asks what obligations the salesperson owes her. Which answer is correct?

    • A. Honesty, fair dealing, and disclosure of known material defects.
    • B. The full fiduciary duties, including loyalty and obedience, because she is working directly with the salesperson.
    • C. No duties at all, because the salesperson's client is the seller.
    • D. Confidentiality regarding anything the buyer reveals about her finances or motivation.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Customers, unlike clients, are owed only honesty, fair dealing, and disclosure of known material defects — not fiduciary duties. Choice B is the common misconception that working directly with a licensee creates client-level duties; fiduciary duties such as loyalty, obedience, and confidentiality belong to the agency relationship with the client, and choice C is wrong because a licensee still owes customers baseline duties of honesty and disclosure.

  22. 22. A buyer financing a home purchase in a lien-theory state is worried that the bank will 'own' the house until the loan is fully repaid. Is the buyer's concern accurate?

    • A. Yes; in every state the lender or a trustee holds legal title until the debt is repaid.
    • B. Yes; signing the promissory note transfers legal title to the lender at closing.
    • C. No; a lender or trustee can never hold legal title to mortgaged property in any state.
    • D. No; in a lien-theory state the borrower retains title and the lender holds only a lien.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    In a lien-theory state the borrower retains title and the lender merely holds a lien, so the buyer's fear is misplaced. Choice A is the tempting overgeneralization: it is in title-theory states — not every state — that legal title is held by the lender or a trustee until the debt is repaid, and choice C fails for the mirror-image reason, since title-theory states do exist. Choice B is wrong because the promissory note is the repayment obligation; the mortgage or deed of trust is what pledges the property as security, and in a lien-theory state neither transfers title to the lender.

  23. 23. An eligible veteran tells a salesperson he wants a home loan that is guaranteed by the federal government rather than merely insured or privately backed. Which loan type matches what the veteran is describing?

    • A. A conventional loan
    • B. An FHA loan
    • C. A VA loan
    • D. A conventional loan with private mortgage insurance
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    A VA loan is guaranteed by the Department of Veterans Affairs for eligible veterans, which is exactly the federal guarantee the veteran described. Choice B is the tempting wrong answer: an FHA loan is government-backed, but it is insured by the Federal Housing Administration, not guaranteed. A conventional loan is not insured or guaranteed by the federal government at all, and private mortgage insurance is private backing, not a federal guarantee.

  24. 24. A purchase contract sets a closing date of June 1 and expressly states that time is of the essence. Through no fault of the seller, the buyer is not prepared to close until June 3. The seller declares the buyer in breach. Is the seller's position correct?

    • A. No — closing dates are generally flexible, so a delay of only two days must be excused.
    • B. No — the clause merely permits the seller to postpone the closing; it does not create a breach.
    • C. Yes — a time-is-of-the-essence clause makes the stated deadline strictly enforceable, and failing to perform by the date constitutes a breach.
    • D. Yes — but only if the seller first proves a financial loss caused by the delay.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    A time-is-of-the-essence clause makes the contract's stated deadlines strictly enforceable, and failure to perform by the date constitutes a breach — so the seller may treat the buyer's missed closing date as a breach without more. Choice A is the tempting answer because parties often accommodate short delays, but the whole point of the clause is to eliminate that flexibility and make the date binding. Choice D wrongly adds a proof-of-loss precondition that the clause does not require: missing the deadline is itself the breach.

  25. 25. A cautious buyer tells her salesperson she wants the deed that gives her the greatest possible protection — including protection against title defects that arose before the seller ever owned the property. Which deed should she request?

    • A. A special warranty deed
    • B. A quitclaim deed
    • C. A general warranty deed
    • D. A deed of trust
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    A general warranty deed offers the greatest protection because the grantor warrants against all title defects arising at any time — even before the grantor owned the property — through covenants such as seisin, quiet enjoyment, and warranty forever. The special warranty deed is the tempting wrong answer: it sounds protective but warrants only against defects that arose during the grantor's own period of ownership, which fails this buyer's requirement. A quitclaim deed conveys whatever interest the grantor may have with no warranties at all, and a deed of trust is not a conveyance warranty — it is a financing instrument that pledges the property as security for a debt.

  26. 26. At closing, a buyer receives and accepts a properly executed deed but, in the confusion of moving, never records it. Which statement best describes the buyer's legal position?

    • A. The buyer does not yet own the property, because a deed transfers title only once it is recorded.
    • B. The deed has become void, and the buyer must obtain a new deed from the grantor.
    • C. The buyer owns the property, and recording would add nothing because delivery and acceptance fully protect the buyer against all later claims.
    • D. The buyer owns the property, but the unrecorded deed gives the world no constructive notice of the buyer's interest, so the buyer risks losing priority to a later party who records first.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    Title transfers when a valid deed is delivered to and accepted by the grantee — which happened here at closing — so the buyer owns the property and choices A and B are wrong: recording is not what conveys title. What recording does is provide constructive notice to the world of the grantee's interest and establish priority, generally protecting the first party to record. Choice C is the tempting overstatement: delivery and acceptance made the buyer the owner, but without the constructive notice that recording provides, the buyer's interest is invisible in the land records and vulnerable on priority against a later party who records first.

  27. 27. A homeowner is selling her own house without a broker and without placing any advertising. She refuses a full-price offer solely because of the buyer's race, claiming that as a private owner selling her own home she is exempt from federal fair-housing requirements. Which statement is correct?

    • A. She is correct; a private owner selling without a broker or advertising faces no federal restrictions
    • B. She is wrong, because the Civil Rights Act of 1866 prohibits all racial discrimination in property transactions with no exemptions
    • C. She is protected by the Mrs. Murphy exemption
    • D. Her refusal is lawful as long as she never puts the reason in writing
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Whatever exemption a private seller might claim under other laws, the Civil Rights Act of 1866 separately prohibits all racial discrimination in property transactions and contains no exemptions, so refusing a buyer because of race is always illegal. Choice C is the tempting distractor, but the Mrs. Murphy exemption concerns owner-occupied buildings of four or fewer units and never applies to race in any event. Keeping the reason unwritten does not change the legality of the refusal.

  28. 28. Which type of deed conveys only whatever interest the grantor may have, makes no warranties of title, and is commonly used to clear a cloud on title?

    • A. General warranty deed
    • B. Special warranty deed
    • C. Quitclaim deed
    • D. Deed of trust
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    A quitclaim deed conveys only whatever interest the grantor may have, with no warranties, and is commonly used to clear clouds on title. A general warranty deed is the tempting opposite: it offers the greatest protection because the grantor warrants against all title defects arising at any time, even before the grantor owned the property. A special warranty deed still makes a warranty, limited to the grantor's period of ownership, and a deed of trust is a financing instrument that pledges property as security for a note — it does not clear title.

  29. 29. A grantor delivers a deed to a parcel to Buyer A, who accepts it but never records it. A week later, the same grantor delivers a second deed to the same parcel to Buyer B, who accepts it and promptly records, having found nothing about Buyer A in the county land records. Under general recording principles, whose interest is generally protected?

    • A. Buyer A, because Buyer A's deed was delivered and accepted first
    • B. Buyer B, because recording establishes priority and generally protects the first party to record
    • C. Buyer A, because even an unrecorded deed gives constructive notice to the world of the grantee's interest
    • D. Neither buyer, because a second deed to the same parcel is automatically void
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Recording a deed in the county land records provides constructive notice to the world and establishes priority, generally protecting the first party to record — here, Buyer B. Choice A is the tempting trap: delivery and acceptance did transfer an interest to Buyer A first, but because that deed was never recorded, the land records gave the world no constructive notice of it, and the recording system generally resolves the competing claims in favor of the party who recorded first. Choice C inverts the rule — it is recording, not the unrecorded deed, that supplies constructive notice.

  30. 30. A seller signs an exclusive-agency listing with a broker. Three weeks into the listing term, the seller's neighbor — who learned the home was for sale directly from the seller and never contacted any licensee — agrees to buy it. Is the broker owed a commission?

    • A. Yes, because the property sold during the listing period, which by itself entitles the broker to a commission.
    • B. Yes, because the seller may not sell the property without the broker under any exclusive arrangement.
    • C. No, because under an exclusive-agency listing no commission is owed when the seller personally finds the buyer.
    • D. No, because a commission is owed only when a cooperating broker procures the buyer.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Under an exclusive-agency listing, the broker earns a commission unless the seller personally finds the buyer — and here the seller did, with no licensee involvement, so no commission is owed. Choice A is the classic trap: being paid whenever the property sells during the term, regardless of who procures the buyer, is the rule for an exclusive-right-to-sell listing, not an exclusive-agency listing. Choice D describes no listing type — under an exclusive-agency listing the broker is paid in every case except a sale the seller personally procures.

  31. 31. An owner lives in one unit of her four-unit building and rents out the other three units herself, without using a real estate licensee. She posts an online ad for a vacant unit that reads 'Christian tenants preferred.' Which statement is correct?

    • A. The ad is lawful, because an owner-occupied building of four or fewer units qualifies for the Mrs. Murphy exemption.
    • B. The ad is lawful, because no real estate licensee is involved in the rental.
    • C. The ad is illegal, because advertising that indicates a preference based on a protected class is prohibited even when the underlying transaction would be exempt.
    • D. The ad is illegal under the Civil Rights Act of 1866, which contains no exemptions.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Advertising that indicates a preference or limitation based on a protected class — here, religion — is illegal even if the underlying transaction itself would be exempt, and the Mrs. Murphy exemption for owner-occupied buildings of four or fewer units cannot be combined with discriminatory advertising. Choice A is the tempting trap: the building may fit the exemption's profile, but the exemption is unavailable once discriminatory advertising is used. Choice D is wrong because the Civil Rights Act of 1866 prohibits racial discrimination in property transactions; a religious preference is instead reached by the Fair Housing Act's advertising rule.

  32. 32. A salesperson's buyer-client wants to make an offer on a home the same salesperson has listed for a seller-client. What must happen before the salesperson may lawfully continue in the transaction as a dual agent?

    • A. Both the buyer and the seller must give informed written consent to the dual agency.
    • B. Only the seller must consent, because the listing agreement was signed first.
    • C. The salesperson must disclose the dual agency orally to both parties no later than closing.
    • D. Nothing — the salesperson may proceed as long as she negotiates the best possible price for the buyer.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Dual agency is legal only with the informed written consent of both parties, so consent from one party (B) or a late oral disclosure (C) is not enough. Choice D fails twice: consent is missing, and a dual agent cannot advocate for one party against the other, so negotiating hardest for the buyer would itself violate the dual agent's position.

  33. 33. A buyer finances the purchase of a home and at closing signs both a promissory note and a mortgage in favor of the lender. Which statement best describes the function of the mortgage?

    • A. It is the buyer's personal promise to repay the debt.
    • B. It conveys legal title of the home from the seller to the buyer.
    • C. It pledges the property as security for repayment of the promissory note.
    • D. It authorizes a broker to market the property and find a buyer.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Most financed purchases use a mortgage or deed of trust that pledges the property as security for repayment of the promissory note. Choice A is tempting because both documents are signed at closing, but the promissory note — not the mortgage — is the repayment obligation itself. Choice B describes a deed, the instrument that conveys title from a grantor to a grantee, and choice D describes a listing agreement.

  34. 34. A licensee's fiduciary duties to a client are commonly summarized by the acronym OLD CAR. Which of the following is NOT one of those fiduciary duties?

    • A. Obedience
    • B. Honesty and fair dealing
    • C. Confidentiality
    • D. Accounting
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    OLD CAR stands for Obedience, Loyalty, Disclosure, Confidentiality, Accounting, and Reasonable care and diligence — the fiduciary duties owed to clients. Honesty and fair dealing is tempting because licensees do owe it, but it is owed to customers (along with disclosure of known material defects); it is a general duty owed to everyone, not one of the fiduciary duties reserved for clients.

  35. 35. Which of the following best describes a listing agreement?

    • A. An employment contract between a seller and a broker that authorizes the broker to market the property and find a ready, willing, and able buyer
    • B. A contract between a buyer and a seller stating the price and terms of the sale
    • C. A written instrument that conveys title to real property from a grantor to a grantee
    • D. An agreement that gives the broker an ownership interest in the seller's property until it is sold
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A listing agreement is an employment contract: the seller hires the broker to market the property and produce a ready, willing, and able buyer. It is not a contract of sale between buyer and seller, and it conveys no interest in the property itself — the instrument that conveys title from a grantor to a grantee is a deed, which makes choice C the tempting mix-up.

  36. 36. A purchase contract contains a 'time is of the essence' clause and sets closing for June 1. The buyer's loan is fully approved, but the lender cannot fund until June 4, and the seller refuses to move the date. When June 1 passes without a closing, what is the buyer's legal position?

    • A. The buyer automatically receives a reasonable grace period, so there is no breach
    • B. The buyer has breached the contract, because the clause makes the stated closing date strictly enforceable
    • C. The closing date extends by operation of law until the lender is able to fund
    • D. The buyer may cancel under a financing contingency and recover the earnest money deposit
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    A time-is-of-the-essence clause makes stated deadlines strictly enforceable, so failing to perform by the closing date is a breach — there is no automatic grace period or extension. Choice D is the tempting escape hatch, but a financing contingency lets a buyer cancel and recover the deposit only when the condition is not met; here the loan was approved, so the financing condition was satisfied and the contingency offers no protection against missing the deadline.

  37. 37. A buyer submits a written offer on a house. The seller crosses out the proposed closing date, writes in a later date, signs the document, and returns it. Before the buyer responds, the seller has second thoughts and notifies the buyer that she now accepts the buyer's original offer as written. What is the legal result?

    • A. A binding contract exists on the buyer's original terms, because the seller ultimately accepted the original offer.
    • B. A binding contract exists on the seller's modified terms, because the seller signed the changed document.
    • C. No contract exists, because the seller's change of terms was a counteroffer that rejected and terminated the original offer.
    • D. No contract exists, because no earnest money has been deposited yet.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Any change to the terms of an offer is a counteroffer, and a counteroffer rejects and terminates the original offer. Once the seller altered the closing date, the buyer's original offer was extinguished, so the seller could not later 'accept' it — forming a contract now requires new mutual assent from the buyer. Choice A is tempting because the seller ended up agreeing to the original terms, but there was no longer a live offer to accept. Choice D is wrong because earnest money is simply a good-faith deposit held in the broker's trust account; it is not one of the essential elements of a valid contract.

  38. 38. An investor wants a quick tool to compare several rental houses that recently sold in the same market. How is the gross rent multiplier (GRM) calculated?

    • A. Sale price divided by the monthly gross rent
    • B. Sale price divided by the annual gross rent
    • C. Monthly gross rent divided by the sale price
    • D. Net operating income divided by the capitalization rate
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The gross rent multiplier is found by dividing the sale price by the monthly gross rent, giving investors a quick comparison tool. Choice B is the tempting trap because some multipliers are quoted on annual income, but the GRM as defined here uses monthly gross rent. Choice C inverts the formula, and choice D is the income capitalization formula used to estimate the value of an income property, not the GRM.

  39. 39. A salesperson lists a home that later sells for $450,000. The listing agreement provides for a total commission rate of 5 percent of the sale price. What is the total commission generated by the sale?

    • A. $22,500
    • B. $2,250
    • C. $27,000
    • D. $45,000
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Commission equals the sale price multiplied by the commission rate: $450,000 × 0.05 = $22,500. Choice B results from a misplaced decimal (0.5 percent), choice C applies a 6 percent rate instead of the 5 percent stated in the agreement, and choice D applies 10 percent. Always use the rate actually stated in the listing agreement.

  40. 40. An appraiser is estimating the value of a small office building using the income approach. The property produces a net operating income of $42,000 per year, and the appraiser applies a capitalization rate of 7 percent. What is the estimated value of the property?

    • A. $600,000
    • B. $2,940
    • C. $6,000
    • D. $294,000
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Net operating income divided by the capitalization rate yields the estimated value: $42,000 ÷ 0.07 = $600,000. Choice B multiplies NOI by the rate instead of dividing, which produces the annual return on a known value rather than the value itself. Choice C divides by 7 instead of 7 percent (a decimal error), and choice D multiplies NOI by 7. Remember the direction of the formula: income divided by rate equals value.

  41. 41. A buyer contracts to purchase a home for $200,000. The lender's appraisal comes in at $190,000, and the buyer obtains a loan of $152,000. What is the loan-to-value ratio the lender will use?

    • A. 76 percent
    • B. 80 percent
    • C. 95 percent
    • D. 20 percent
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    LTV is the loan amount divided by the lesser of the appraised value or the purchase price. Here the appraised value ($190,000) is less than the purchase price ($200,000), so LTV = $152,000 ÷ $190,000 = 80 percent. Choice A is the tempting trap: dividing by the $200,000 purchase price gives 76 percent, but the rule requires using the lesser figure. Choice C compares appraisal to price, and choice D reflects the down payment percentage rather than the loan-to-value ratio.

  42. 42. Which of the following creates an agency relationship between a seller and a real estate licensee?

    • A. The seller authorizes the licensee to act on the seller's behalf in dealings with third parties.
    • B. The licensee shows the seller's property to several prospective buyers.
    • C. The licensee receives a share of the commission when the property closes.
    • D. The buyer and seller sign a purchase contract with each other.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    An agency relationship arises when a principal (the client) authorizes an agent (the licensee) to act on the principal's behalf in dealings with third parties. Choice C is the tempting trap: compensation does not define agency — it is the principal's authorization, not the source of payment or the act of showing homes, that creates the relationship.

  43. 43. A grantor conveys an office property using a special warranty deed. After closing, the grantee discovers a serious title defect that was created a decade before the grantor ever acquired the property. Is the grantor liable to the grantee under the deed's warranties?

    • A. Yes, because a special warranty deed warrants against all title defects arising at any time
    • B. No, because a special warranty deed warrants only against defects that arose during the grantor's period of ownership
    • C. Yes, but only if the grantee also purchased a title insurance policy
    • D. No, because a special warranty deed conveys title with no warranties at all
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    A special warranty deed warrants only against defects that arose during the grantor's period of ownership, so a defect created before the grantor acquired the property falls outside the warranty. Choice A is the classic trap: it describes a general warranty deed, which warrants against all title defects arising at any time, even before the grantor owned the property. Choice D confuses the special warranty deed with a quitclaim deed, which is the deed that conveys with no warranties, and choice C is wrong because title insurance is a separate protection that does not create deed liability for the grantor.

  44. 44. A buyer purchased an owner's title insurance policy at closing. Two years later, the buyer suffers a financial loss connected to the property. Which of the following losses would the title insurance policy protect against?

    • A. A loss from a covered title defect that existed at the time the policy was issued but was unknown to everyone at that time
    • B. A loss from a title defect that first arose after the policy was issued
    • C. A loss caused by a decline in the property's market value after closing
    • D. A loss caused by the buyer's mortgage payments being applied mostly to interest in the early years of the loan
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Title insurance protects the insured against losses from covered title defects that existed but were unknown at the time the policy was issued — it looks backward at the state of title as of the policy date. The tempting wrong answer is B: a defect that first arises after issuance did not exist when the policy was issued, so it falls outside that protection. Market value declines are not title defects at all, and the fact that early amortized payments go mostly to interest is simply how scheduled loan repayment works, not an insurable title loss.

  45. 45. Under the federal Fair Housing Act, which of the following is one of the seven federally protected classes?

    • A. Marital status
    • B. Familial status
    • C. Age
    • D. Source of income
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The seven federally protected classes under the Fair Housing Act are race, color, religion, national origin, sex, familial status, and disability. Familial status — which protects households with children under eighteen and pregnant persons — is the only listed option among them. Marital status is the tempting wrong answer because it sounds similar, but it is not one of the seven federal classes; familial status concerns children in the household, not whether a person is married.

  46. 46. An appraiser analyzing the local investment market notes that a small income property recently sold for $500,000 at a time when it was producing a net operating income of $40,000 per year. What capitalization rate does this sale indicate buyers in this market are applying?

    • A. 8 percent
    • B. 12.5 percent
    • C. 0.8 percent
    • D. 80 percent
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Because net operating income divided by the capitalization rate yields value, the rate implied by an actual sale is found by dividing NOI by the sale price: $40,000 ÷ $500,000 = 0.08, or 8 percent. Choice B is the tempting reversal — dividing price by NOI ($500,000 ÷ $40,000 = 12.5) produces a multiplier, not a rate. Choices C and D are decimal-conversion errors when turning 0.08 into a percentage.

  47. 47. On a closing statement, what is the primary purpose of prorating a shared expense such as property taxes or rent?

    • A. To divide the expense between buyer and seller according to the portion of the period each party owns the property, using the closing date as the dividing point
    • B. To split the expense equally between buyer and seller regardless of when the closing occurs
    • C. To assign responsibility for the expense as of the date the purchase contract was signed
    • D. To require the seller to pay the entire expense for the year in which the sale closes
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Proration divides shared expenses such as taxes, rent, or interest between the buyer and the seller based on the portion of the period each party owns the property, and the closing date is the dividing point. Choice B is tempting because proration does 'split' a cost, but the split follows each party's time of ownership, not an automatic 50/50 division. Choice C uses the wrong date — the contract date has no role in proration — and choice D ignores that the buyer bears the expense for the portion of the period after closing.

  48. 48. A purchase contract contains a financing contingency. Despite diligent efforts, the buyer's loan application is denied before the contingency deadline, and the buyer cancels the contract under the contingency. What happens to the buyer's earnest money deposit?

    • A. The buyer recovers the deposit.
    • B. The seller keeps the deposit as damages for the failed sale.
    • C. The deposit is split between the seller and the listing broker.
    • D. The broker retains the deposit as compensation for time spent on the transaction.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Financing, inspection, and appraisal contingencies give the buyer the right to cancel and recover the deposit when the stated condition is not met — here, the loan denial triggered exactly that right, so the seller has no claim to the funds. Choice B reflects the misconception that a seller automatically keeps the deposit whenever a sale fails; that is not the case when a contingency excuses the buyer. The earnest money is a good-faith deposit held in the broker's trust account in the meantime, not the broker's compensation.

  49. 49. A salesperson lists a seller-client's home and decides she would like to acquire the property herself as an investment. Without disclosing her interest to the seller, she has a relative submit an offer on her behalf and urges the seller to accept it quickly. Which fiduciary duty does the salesperson's conduct most directly violate?

    • A. Obedience
    • B. Accounting
    • C. Loyalty
    • D. Confidentiality
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    The duty of loyalty requires the agent to place the principal's interests above the agent's own and to avoid conflicts of interest such as undisclosed self-dealing — which is exactly what secretly buying the client's property through a relative is. Accounting is the tempting wrong answer, but that duty concerns safeguarding money and property entrusted to the agent, which is not what this scenario involves; nothing here concerns entrusted funds, instructions (obedience), or the client's confidential information.

  50. 50. Late on a Friday, a broker receives a buyer's earnest money check and deposits it into the brokerage's general operating account, intending to transfer it to the trust account first thing Monday morning. Which fiduciary duty has the broker violated?

    • A. Accounting
    • B. Loyalty
    • C. Obedience
    • D. Disclosure
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Accounting requires the agent to safeguard money entrusted to the agent and prohibits commingling client funds with the agent's own funds; earnest money belongs in the broker's trust account. Mixing the deposit into the operating account is commingling even when it is meant to be brief, because the prohibition contains no exception for temporary convenience. Loyalty is the tempting distractor, but loyalty concerns placing the principal's interests above the agent's own and avoiding conflicts of interest — the specific duty governing the handling of entrusted funds is accounting.

  51. 51. At closing, a buyer signs a stack of documents and receives several more. Which instrument is the one that actually conveys title to the real property from the seller to the buyer?

    • A. The deed
    • B. The promissory note
    • C. The mortgage
    • D. The owner's title insurance policy
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A deed is the written instrument that conveys title to real property from a grantor to a grantee — it is the document of transfer itself. The promissory note is the buyer's promise to repay the loan, and the mortgage (or deed of trust) merely pledges the property as security for that repayment; neither one transfers ownership. The title insurance policy is also tempting because it concerns title, but it only protects the insured against losses from covered title defects — it does not convey anything.

  52. 52. A borrower takes out an adjustable-rate mortgage. As the first adjustment date approaches, the borrower asks how the new interest rate will be determined. Which answer is correct?

    • A. The lender may select any new rate at its sole discretion
    • B. The rate stays the same for the entire loan term
    • C. The rate is set according to the borrower's record of on-time payments
    • D. The rate changes periodically based on an index plus a margin
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    An adjustable-rate mortgage has a rate that changes periodically based on an index plus a margin — the adjustment is tied to a published index, not to the lender's whim or the borrower's payment record. Choice B describes a fixed-rate mortgage, which keeps the same interest rate for the entire term; that is the tempting mix-up because it is the other basic rate structure.

  53. 53. A salesperson meets buyers who recently immigrated to the country. Without being asked to limit the search, the salesperson schedules showings only in neighborhoods where most residents share the buyers' national origin and quietly skips suitable listings in other areas, believing the buyers will feel more comfortable. Which prohibited practice does this describe?

    • A. Blockbusting
    • B. Redlining
    • C. Steering
    • D. No violation, because the salesperson acted with good intentions
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Steering is channeling buyers toward or away from neighborhoods based on a protected class, and national origin is one of the seven federally protected classes — so limiting the showings this way is steering regardless of the salesperson's motives, which makes choice D the tempting trap. Blockbusting is different: it means inducing owners to sell by suggesting that people of a protected class are moving in. Redlining is denying loans or insurance in certain areas based on protected characteristics.