PRACTICE ENGINE · VA SALESPERSON

VA Salesperson Practice Exam.
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QUESTION 1 / 13Property Ownership and Land UseMedium
A title search reveals that a prior owner's ex-spouse may still hold a vague, unresolved interest in a property that is about to be sold. The ex-spouse is willing to sign over whatever interest they might have but refuses to make any promises about the quality of that interest. Which instrument is most appropriate to resolve this cloud on title?
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  1. 1. A title search reveals that a prior owner's ex-spouse may still hold a vague, unresolved interest in a property that is about to be sold. The ex-spouse is willing to sign over whatever interest they might have but refuses to make any promises about the quality of that interest. Which instrument is most appropriate to resolve this cloud on title?

    • A. A general warranty deed from the ex-spouse
    • B. A special warranty deed from the ex-spouse
    • C. A quitclaim deed from the ex-spouse
    • D. A new title insurance policy for the buyer
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    A quitclaim deed conveys only whatever interest the grantor may have, with no warranties, and is commonly used exactly for this purpose — clearing clouds on title. Both warranty deed options fail because they would require the ex-spouse to warrant title, and this ex-spouse refuses to make any promises: a general warranty deed warrants against defects arising at any time and a special warranty deed warrants against defects from the grantor's ownership period. The tempting answer is title insurance, but a policy protects against losses from covered defects that were unknown when it issued; this interest is already known, and insurance would not remove it from the record the way a quitclaim release does.

  2. 2. An elderly owner signs a properly drafted deed naming her nephew as grantee. The deed identifies the parties, contains words of conveyance and an adequate legal description, and bears her signature. She locks it in her personal safe, planning to hand it over someday, and dies without ever telling the nephew it exists. Did title transfer to the nephew?

    • A. Yes, because the deed was signed by a competent grantor
    • B. Yes, because the deed contained words of conveyance and an adequate legal description
    • C. No, because the deed was never delivered to and accepted by the nephew
    • D. No, because the deed was never recorded in the county land records
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Even a deed that satisfies every formal requirement — competent parties, words of conveyance, an adequate legal description, and the grantor's signature — must also be delivered to and accepted by the grantee to transfer title. Here the deed never left the safe and the nephew never knew of it, so no delivery or acceptance occurred and title did not pass. The tempting wrong answer is the recording choice: recording provides constructive notice and establishes priority against competing claims, but it is not what makes the transfer itself effective, so the absence of recording is not the reason this transfer failed.

  3. 3. A small office building generates a net operating income of 30,000 dollars per year. An investor evaluating the property applies a capitalization rate of 10 percent. What is the estimated value of the property under the income capitalization approach?

    • A. 3,000 dollars
    • B. 33,000 dollars
    • C. 300,000 dollars
    • D. 3,000,000 dollars
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Under the income capitalization approach, net operating income divided by the capitalization rate yields the estimated value: 30,000 dollars divided by 0.10 equals 300,000 dollars. Choice A is the tempting error of multiplying NOI by the cap rate instead of dividing. Choice B merely adds 10 percent to the income, and Choice D results from a misplaced decimal when converting the percentage.

  4. 4. A property's annual tax bill is 3,600 dollars, payable in arrears at the end of the year. The sale closes on April 15, with the seller responsible for the day of closing. Using a 360-day banker's year with 30-day months, what proration entry appears on the closing statement?

    • A. A 1,050 dollar credit to the buyer
    • B. A 1,050 dollar credit to the seller
    • C. A 1,036 dollar credit to the buyer
    • D. A 2,550 dollar credit to the buyer
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    With a 360-day banker's year, the daily rate is the annual amount divided by 360: 3,600 dollars divided by 360 is 10 dollars per day. The seller's period of ownership runs from January 1 through April 15, which under 30-day months is 90 days for January through March plus 15 days in April, or 105 days — 105 times 10 dollars is 1,050 dollars. Because the taxes are paid in arrears, the seller credits the buyer for the seller's share, since the buyer will pay the full bill later. Choice B is the tempting reversal of the credit direction, which applies only to prepaid expenses. Choice C comes from using a 365-day calendar year instead of the banker's year the question specifies, and Choice D charges the seller for the buyer's 255 remaining days instead of the seller's own 105.

  5. 5. At an open house, a buyer who has signed no representation agreement asks the listing salesperson whether the roof leaks. The salesperson knows the roof has a documented leak. Which statement best describes the salesperson's obligation to this buyer?

    • A. None — the salesperson's duties run entirely to the seller, so the leak need not be mentioned.
    • B. The salesperson must disclose the known material defect and deal with the buyer honestly, but owes the buyer no fiduciary duties.
    • C. The salesperson owes the buyer the full set of OLD CAR fiduciary duties because the buyer asked a direct question.
    • D. The salesperson must disclose the leak only after the buyer signs a representation agreement.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    This buyer is a customer, not a client. Customers are owed honesty, fair dealing, and disclosure of known material defects — a known roof leak qualifies — but not fiduciary duties. Choice A is the tempting trap: loyalty to the seller-client never permits concealing a known material defect from a customer. Choice C overstates the relationship; fiduciary duties belong to clients, and a question alone does not create agency.

  6. 6. A buyer finances a home purchase by signing two documents: a promissory note and a mortgage. What role does the mortgage play in this transaction?

    • A. It is the buyer's personal promise to repay the borrowed money.
    • B. It pledges the property as security for repayment of the promissory note.
    • C. It conveys legal title of the property from the seller to the buyer.
    • D. It insures the lender against loss if the buyer defaults.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    A mortgage (or deed of trust in some states) pledges the property as collateral securing repayment of the promissory note. The tempting answer A actually describes the promissory note itself — the note is the promise to pay, while the mortgage is the security instrument. C describes a deed, and D describes mortgage insurance, not the mortgage document.

  7. 7. A buyer is purchasing a 300,000 dollar home with a conventional loan and plans to make a 30,000 dollar down payment. What should the salesperson tell the buyer to expect regarding mortgage insurance?

    • A. Private mortgage insurance will generally be required, because the down payment is only ten percent of the purchase price — below the twenty percent threshold.
    • B. No mortgage insurance is needed, because private mortgage insurance applies only to government-backed loans.
    • C. No mortgage insurance is needed, because conventional loans never carry mortgage insurance.
    • D. Mortgage insurance is required, but only because the loan will automatically be insured by the Federal Housing Administration.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Private mortgage insurance is generally required on conventional loans when the down payment is less than twenty percent of the purchase price. Here, 30,000 dollars is ten percent of 300,000 dollars, well below the threshold, so PMI should be expected. B and C have it backwards — PMI is specifically a feature of conventional lending. D confuses PMI with FHA insurance: FHA insurance applies to FHA loans, not conventional loans.

  8. 8. A buyer purchases a home for 300,000 dollars and finances 240,000 dollars of the price. To lower the note rate, the buyer agrees to pay two discount points at closing. How much will the points cost?

    • A. 2,400 dollars
    • B. 4,800 dollars
    • C. 6,000 dollars
    • D. 3,000 dollars
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Discount points are prepaid interest paid at closing to lower the note rate, and one point equals one percent of the loan amount — not the purchase price. One percent of the 240,000 dollar loan is 2,400 dollars, so two points cost 4,800 dollars. The tempting answer C applies two percent to the 300,000 dollar purchase price, which is the classic trap; A prices only one point, and D is one percent of the purchase price.

  9. 9. A buyer agrees to purchase a home for 200,000 dollars and applies for a loan of 152,000 dollars. The lender's appraisal comes in at 190,000 dollars. What loan-to-value ratio will the lender use for this loan?

    • A. 76 percent
    • B. 80 percent
    • C. 95 percent
    • D. 24 percent
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    LTV is the loan amount divided by the lesser of the appraised value or the purchase price. Because the appraisal of 190,000 dollars is lower than the 200,000 dollar purchase price, the calculation is 152,000 divided by 190,000, which equals 80 percent. Choice A is the tempting error of dividing by the higher purchase price, which understates the lender's true exposure. Choice C compares the appraisal to the price rather than the loan, and Choice D reflects a down-payment percentage, not the LTV.

  10. 10. A buyer submits a written offer on a house. The seller signs it but changes the closing date by one week and returns it. The buyer, unhappy with the new date, walks away. The seller then announces she now accepts the buyer's original offer exactly as written and insists a contract exists. Does one?

    • A. Yes — the seller's signature with only a minor date change was an effective acceptance.
    • B. Yes — the original offer revived the moment the seller agreed to its exact terms.
    • C. No — changing the closing date made the seller's response a counteroffer, which rejected and terminated the original offer, leaving nothing for the seller to accept.
    • D. Yes — provided the seller communicated acceptance before the buyer formally revoked the offer in writing.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Any change to the terms of an offer — even a seemingly minor one like the closing date — is a counteroffer that rejects and terminates the original offer. Once terminated, the original offer cannot be accepted later. Choices B and D reflect the common misconception that an offer stays open until it is expressly revoked; here the seller's own counteroffer killed it before any revocation was needed.

  11. 11. The core fiduciary duties an agent owes a client are commonly summarized by the acronym OLD CAR. Which of the following is NOT one of those duties?

    • A. Obedience
    • B. Confidentiality
    • C. Compensation
    • D. Accounting
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    OLD CAR stands for Obedience, Loyalty, Disclosure, Confidentiality, Accounting, and Reasonable care and diligence. Compensation is not a fiduciary duty — it is tempting because it starts with C, but the C in OLD CAR is Confidentiality. Obedience and Accounting (choices A and D) are both genuine OLD CAR duties.

  12. 12. An eligible veteran wants a home loan backed by a federal guaranty, while a co-worker with no military service wants a loan with no federal backing at all. Which pairing correctly matches each buyer to a loan type?

    • A. The veteran: a VA loan, guaranteed by the Department of Veterans Affairs; the co-worker: a conventional loan, which has no government insurance or guaranty.
    • B. The veteran: an FHA loan, which is guaranteed by the Department of Veterans Affairs; the co-worker: a VA loan.
    • C. Both buyers: FHA loans, because all low-down-payment loans must be federally insured.
    • D. The veteran: a conventional loan, because conventional loans are guaranteed by the federal government for veterans.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    VA loans are guaranteed by the Department of Veterans Affairs for eligible veterans, and a conventional loan is one that is not insured or guaranteed by the federal government — exactly matching the two buyers' goals. B is tempting because it mixes the programs' mechanics: FHA loans are insured by the Federal Housing Administration, not guaranteed by the VA. D reverses the definition of a conventional loan, and C wrongly assumes every loan carries federal insurance.

  13. 13. A home sells for 250,000 dollars under a listing that provides for a 6 percent commission. Per the brokers' agreement, the total commission is split equally between the listing broker and the selling broker. How much does the selling broker's side receive?

    • A. 3,750 dollars
    • B. 7,500 dollars
    • C. 12,500 dollars
    • D. 15,000 dollars
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Commission equals the sale price multiplied by the commission rate: 250,000 dollars times 6 percent is 15,000 dollars, which is then split between the listing and selling brokers per their agreement — an equal split leaves 7,500 dollars for the selling broker's side. Choice D is the tempting answer because it is the correct total commission, but it ignores the required split. Choice A splits the amount one time too many, and Choice C applies an incorrect 5 percent rate.