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PRACTICE ENGINE · MISSISSIPPI REAL ESTATE

Mississippi Real Estate Practice Exam.
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QUESTION 1 / 61Property Ownership, Land Use & InterestsMedium0/0
While drafting the transfer of a 200-acre farm outside Starkville, the seller's attorney grants the adjoining farmer a permanent right to cross the property to reach a county road. This right is best described as which type of interest?
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  1. 1. While drafting the transfer of a 200-acre farm outside Starkville, the seller's attorney grants the adjoining farmer a permanent right to cross the property to reach a county road. This right is best described as which type of interest?

    • A. An easement appurtenant that runs with the land to benefit the adjoining parcel
    • B. A leasehold interest limited to agricultural use
    • C. A license that can be revoked by either party at will
    • D. An easement in gross that terminates upon sale of either parcel
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Because the right to cross benefits a specific neighboring parcel (the dominant estate) rather than a particular person, it is an easement appurtenant, and it transfers automatically with the land to future owners of both parcels unless expressly extinguished. Describing it as a revocable license or a right tied only to an individual overlooks that the benefit and burden attach to the land itself, not to the current owners personally.

  2. 2. "Can I keep fishing off my dock even after the water level drops?" a buyer near a Delta river asks. The salesperson's best answer addresses which category of ownership right?

    • A. Riparian rights, which are tied to reasonable use of water bordering the land
    • B. Littoral rights, which apply only to oceanfront property
    • C. Mineral rights, which are severed from the surface estate by default
    • D. Avulsion rights, which apply only after a sudden channel change
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Land bordering a river carries riparian rights, which generally entitle the owner to reasonable use of the adjacent water even as natural water levels fluctuate, distinguishing it from littoral rights that apply to owners along lakes and oceans. Confusing riparian with littoral rights is a common distractor since both concern water access, but littoral specifically applies to standing bodies of water, not flowing rivers.

  3. 3. A landowner near Hattiesburg wants to convert a former single-family lot into a small retail shop, but current zoning designates the area strictly residential. To legally proceed, the owner should most likely pursue which action?

    • A. Recording a restrictive covenant releasing the residential limitation
    • B. Filing for a nonconforming use designation since the lot predates the zoning ordinance
    • C. Simply obtaining a building permit, since permits override zoning classifications
    • D. Applying to the zoning board for a variance or rezoning to permit the commercial use
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    Changing the legal use of land that conflicts with current zoning requires either a variance (relief from a specific requirement causing hardship) or a formal rezoning application decided by the local zoning authority, not a private covenant or a building permit alone. A nonconforming use only protects a use that already legally existed before the zoning changed, which does not apply to a new commercial use being introduced now.

  4. 4. A family transferring a 400-acre row-crop farm near Greenville to the next generation wants to keep the oil and gas rights for the grantor while conveying full surface ownership to the heir. This arrangement is accomplished through which method?

    • A. Executing a deed that severs the mineral estate from the surface estate, reserving minerals to the grantor
    • B. Establishing a joint tenancy between grantor and heir over the minerals
    • C. Recording a life estate reservation on the surface only
    • D. Placing the mineral rights into a leasehold estate held by the grantor
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Ownership of land can be split into a surface estate and a subsurface mineral estate; a deed can convey the surface while expressly reserving the mineral rights to the grantor, creating two separately owned estates in the same parcel. A life estate reservation would limit the surface conveyance itself rather than separate out mineral ownership, and a leasehold only grants temporary possessory rights, not the same as retaining ownership of the minerals.

  5. 5. "If I have written consent from both my buyer client and my seller client, can I represent them both on this same deal?" a newly licensed agent in Clarksdale asks her supervising broker during a mentorship session. What is this arrangement called?

    • A. Designated agency
    • B. Single agency
    • C. Dual agency
    • D. Subagency
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    When one licensee represents both the buyer and the seller in the same transaction, the arrangement is dual agency, which is only permissible with full disclosure and informed written consent from both parties because of the inherent conflict in advocating for opposing interests. Designated agency is a different structure where a broker appoints two separate licensees within the same firm to represent each party individually, which is not what is described here since one salesperson is representing both sides personally.

  6. 6. A buyer's agent in Biloxi discovers that the seller they are negotiating against is willing to accept far less than the listing price, information learned through the seller's agent's careless comment. What duty governs how the buyer's agent may use this information?

    • A. The buyer's agent owes no duty to the seller and may use the information to benefit the buyer client
    • B. The buyer's agent must refuse to negotiate further until the seller's agent corrects the disclosure
    • C. The buyer's agent must disclose the information to the seller out of general fairness
    • D. The buyer's agent must report the seller's agent to the brokerage before continuing
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A buyer's agent's fiduciary duties of loyalty and advocacy run to the buyer, not the seller, so information that benefits the buyer's negotiating position may generally be used to the buyer's advantage; the agent has no duty to protect the seller's interests. The instinct to disclose the information out of fairness misapplies the loyalty owed to one's own client and would actually breach the duty owed to the buyer.

  7. 7. For a listing agreement to create a valid agency relationship between a Jackson homeowner and a salesperson, which element must be present?

    • A. Mutual consent between the principal and agent regarding the scope of representation
    • B. The seller must pay a nonrefundable deposit to the brokerage
    • C. The agreement must be witnessed by a notary public
    • D. The property must already have an accepted offer
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Agency is a consensual relationship, so a valid listing agreement requires mutual consent between the seller (principal) and the salesperson/broker (agent) about what the agent is authorized to do, along with the other basic contract elements. Notarization and an existing offer are not requirements for creating agency, and a nonrefundable deposit describes an earnest money concept unrelated to forming the agency relationship itself.

  8. 8. A salesperson tells a buyer, "I represent the seller, not you, in this transaction." This statement is an example of which practice?

    • A. Breach of fiduciary duty to the buyer
    • B. Agency disclosure informing the buyer of the salesperson's representation
    • C. Dual agency consent
    • D. Transaction brokerage
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Clearly informing a customer which party the licensee represents is the core purpose of agency disclosure, allowing the unrepresented party to understand the salesperson is not advocating for their interests. This is not a breach of duty since a seller's agent has no fiduciary duty to the buyer in the first place, and it does not describe dual agency, which would require representing both parties, not disclosing sole representation of one.

  9. 9. In a market that permits designated agency, a broker appoints one affiliated salesperson to represent the seller and a different affiliated salesperson to represent the buyer in the same in-house transaction. What is the primary advantage of this structure over traditional dual agency?

    • A. It allows each party to have an individual advocate rather than one licensee trying to remain neutral toward both
    • B. It removes the broker's supervisory responsibility over either salesperson
    • C. It guarantees a higher commission split for the brokerage
    • D. It eliminates the need for any written agency disclosure
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Designated agency assigns a distinct salesperson to advocate for each party individually, preserving more meaningful representation than a single licensee attempting to stay neutral between two clients with opposing interests under dual agency. It does not eliminate disclosure requirements or the broker's overall supervisory duty, which remain regardless of how agency is structured within the firm.

  10. 10. During an estate auction near Belzoni, the gavel falls on a winning bid for a small parcel submitted by a 17-year-old bidder with no parent or guardian present. What is the legal status of the resulting purchase contract?

    • A. Enforceable only if a court appoints a guardian to ratify it within 30 days
    • B. Voidable at the minor's option because minors generally lack full contractual capacity
    • C. Fully enforceable once the minor turns 18, but not before
    • D. Void from the outset because minors cannot own real property
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Contracts entered into by minors are typically voidable rather than automatically void, meaning the minor has the option to affirm or disaffirm the agreement, generally even after reaching the age of majority within a reasonable time, while a competent adult on the other side of the contract remains generally bound. Describing the contract as void outright overstates the limitation, since minors can own property and can also choose to honor a contract if they wish.

  11. 11. "We had a handshake deal on the farmland," a seller near Louisville, Mississippi claims after refusing to sign any paperwork. Why would this oral agreement most likely be unenforceable in court?

    • A. Only contracts over a certain acreage require a written agreement
    • B. Real estate contracts fall under the statute of frauds and generally must be in writing to be enforceable
    • C. Oral contracts are always unenforceable under all circumstances
    • D. The seller can be forced to perform regardless, since real estate deals are exempt from writing requirements
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The statute of frauds requires most contracts for the sale of real property to be in writing and signed to be enforceable, which is why a purely oral handshake agreement for land typically cannot be enforced in court. It is not that all oral contracts are unenforceable in every context, but real estate transactions specifically fall within categories the statute of frauds targets due to the significant value and permanence involved.

  12. 12. Siblings inheriting a family farm near Louisville decide one sibling will convey her interest to the other using a deed that carries no warranties or guarantees about the title's history. Which type of deed did she most likely use?

    • A. Bargain and sale deed
    • B. General warranty deed
    • C. Quitclaim deed
    • D. Special warranty deed
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    A quitclaim deed conveys whatever interest the grantor currently holds without making any warranties or guarantees about the quality of title or its history, which fits a family transfer where the sibling simply wants to release her claim without assuming liability for past title issues. A general or special warranty deed, by contrast, includes specific promises about the title that a grantor using a quitclaim deed is deliberately avoiding.

  13. 13. A homebuyer near Batesville finances a purchase through a lender that requires the buyer to execute a deed of trust rather than a traditional mortgage document. What is a key practical difference this creates if the buyer later defaults?

    • A. A deed of trust requires the lender to obtain a court judgment before any foreclosure can proceed
    • B. A deed of trust prevents the lender from ever foreclosing on the property
    • C. A deed of trust automatically forgives the debt if the buyer defaults within the first year
    • D. A deed of trust involves a third-party trustee who can conduct a non-judicial foreclosure sale without going through court
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    A deed of trust involves a neutral third-party trustee who holds legal title as security and can conduct a non-judicial foreclosure sale outside the court system if the borrower defaults, which is typically faster than the judicial foreclosure process required under a traditional mortgage in many jurisdictions. This is the opposite of requiring a court judgment first, which describes judicial foreclosure under a mortgage instrument rather than the trustee-sale process under a deed of trust.

  14. 14. A buyer purchasing a home near Ocean Springs for $380,000 makes a down payment of $57,000, financing the remainder with a conventional loan. What is the resulting loan-to-value (LTV) ratio?

    • A. 90%
    • B. 80%
    • C. 85%
    • D. 15%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    The loan amount equals the purchase price minus the down payment, or $380,000 minus $57,000, which is $323,000; dividing that loan amount by the $380,000 price yields an LTV of 85%. The 15% figure is actually the down payment percentage, not the LTV, a common point of confusion, while 80% and 90% are simply round numbers that do not reflect the actual math from the given price and down payment.

  15. 15. At closing on a home sale near Pascagoula, the title company holds the buyer's earnest money deposit until all contract conditions are satisfied. What is the purpose of this arrangement?

    • A. To satisfy the buyer's down payment requirement in full
    • B. To hold funds neutrally on behalf of both parties until the transaction closes or a contingency fails
    • C. To cover the cost of the buyer's home inspection
    • D. To pay the seller's agent commission in advance of closing
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    An escrow arrangement holds funds with a neutral third party so that neither the buyer nor seller can unilaterally access the money before the transaction's conditions are met, protecting both sides until closing occurs or a contingency legitimately fails. It is not used to prepay commissions or inspection costs, and the earnest money itself is typically only a portion of, not a substitute for, the buyer's overall down payment.

  16. 16. A property manager reviewing acquisition targets for a client finds a triplex near Kosciusko listed at $410,000, generating $3,280 in monthly gross rent. What is the property's gross rent multiplier (GRM)?

    • A. 10
    • B. 130
    • C. 125
    • D. 120
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Gross rent multiplier is calculated by dividing the sale price by the monthly gross rent, so $410,000 divided by $3,280 equals 125. Dividing the price by the annual rent instead of the monthly figure produces the trap value of roughly 10, and nearby figures like 130 or 120 come from rounding or assuming a slightly different rent than the $3,280 actually given.

  17. 17. To value a one-of-a-kind, architect-designed home near Water Valley that lacks any closely comparable recent sales, an appraiser calculates the cost to rebuild the structure, subtracts depreciation, and adds the estimated land value. Which valuation approach does this reflect?

    • A. Gross rent multiplier method
    • B. Income capitalization approach
    • C. Sales comparison approach
    • D. Cost approach
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    The cost approach estimates value by calculating the cost to replace or reproduce the structure, subtracting accrued depreciation, and adding the estimated land value, which is especially useful when comparable sales are scarce, such as for unique or custom-built homes. The sales comparison approach instead relies on adjusting recent comparable sales prices, and the income approach and GRM method are used for income-producing property, not typically for a unique owner-occupied custom home.

  18. 18. While representing a seller near Petal, an agent receives multiple offers on the same day. How should the agent ethically handle presenting these offers to the seller?

    • A. Present only the highest offer and discard the others without the seller's knowledge
    • B. Automatically reject any offer below the asking price without seller input
    • C. Combine the best financial terms from each offer into a single counteroffer without disclosing the source
    • D. Present all offers received to the seller and let the seller decide how to proceed
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    An agent's fiduciary duty of full disclosure to the seller requires presenting all offers received so the seller, not the agent, can make an informed decision about which offer to accept, counter, or reject. Screening out offers or making decisions on the seller's behalf without disclosure substitutes the agent's judgment for the seller's, which violates the duty to keep the principal informed of all material matters.

  19. 19. Weighing a small medical office, a fast-casual restaurant pad, and continued surface parking as options for a vacant infill lot near Canton, an appraiser concludes the restaurant pad produces the greatest supportable value among all legally permissible, physically possible, and financially feasible uses. Which appraisal principle does this conclusion reflect?

    • A. Principle of progression
    • B. Principle of substitution
    • C. Principle of highest and best use
    • D. Principle of contribution
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Highest and best use identifies the legally permissible, physically possible, financially feasible, and maximally productive use of a site, and the retail strip use fitting all of those criteria while producing the greatest value is a textbook application of this principle. The principle of substitution instead concerns how a buyer will not pay more for a property than the cost of an equally desirable substitute, which is a different concept applied within the sales comparison approach rather than choosing among a site's potential uses.

  20. 20. A homeowner near Brandon asks their listing agent for a formal appraisal of the property's market value. How should the agent respond regarding a comparative market analysis (CMA) versus a formal appraisal?

    • A. The agent should perform the appraisal personally since licensees are qualified to issue one
    • B. A CMA is legally identical to a certified appraisal and can be used interchangeably for lending purposes
    • C. The agent should explain that a CMA is an informal pricing opinion, while a certified appraisal must be performed by a licensed appraiser
    • D. The agent should decline to provide any pricing guidance at all
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    A CMA is a real estate licensee's informal opinion of value based on comparable listings and sales, useful for pricing strategy, but it is not the same as a certified appraisal, which must be performed by a licensed or certified appraiser and is generally required for lending decisions. Claiming the two are interchangeable, or that a salesperson may personally perform a certified appraisal, misrepresents the distinct qualifications and legal weight each type of valuation carries.

  21. 21. A seller in Gulfport knows the home's foundation has a significant crack that was patched but not properly repaired, yet says nothing to a prospective buyer. What is the seller's disclosure obligation regarding this defect?

    • A. The seller has no duty to disclose since the defect was cosmetically patched
    • B. The seller generally must disclose known material defects that affect the property's value or safety
    • C. Only the buyer's home inspector is responsible for finding such defects
    • D. Disclosure is only required if the buyer specifically asks about the foundation
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Sellers generally have a duty to disclose known material facts, such as significant structural defects, that would affect a reasonable buyer's decision to purchase or the price they would pay, regardless of whether the buyer specifically asks. A defect that was patched but not properly repaired remains a material fact known to the seller, so cosmetic patching does not eliminate the underlying disclosure obligation, and relying solely on the buyer's inspector does not excuse the seller's own duty.

  22. 22. After a listing near Waveland expires without a sale, the former seller asks the agent to share the confidential financial information the seller had disclosed during the listing period with a new potential buyer. What is the agent's obligation?

    • A. The agent may disclose the information only to other licensees within the same firm
    • B. The agent may freely disclose any information now that the listing has expired
    • C. The agent generally must continue to protect confidential client information even after the agency relationship ends
    • D. The agent must disclose the information only if a new listing agreement is signed
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    The duty of confidentiality generally survives the termination of the agency relationship, meaning a licensee must continue protecting a former client's confidential information even after a listing expires, unless the client authorizes its release. Assuming the duty automatically ends when the agency relationship ends, or that sharing within the same firm is exempt, both misstate how confidentiality protections are meant to continue safeguarding a client's interests.

  23. 23. An agent near Picayune places a large sign advertising a listing but omits the name of the brokerage firm entirely, listing only a personal cell phone number. What is the primary concern with this practice?

    • A. It is acceptable as long as the agent's license number appears somewhere on the sign
    • B. It may violate advertising rules requiring the brokerage's identity to be disclosed in real estate advertisements
    • C. It is a purely aesthetic issue with no regulatory concern
    • D. It is only a problem if the sign is placed on a public roadway
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Advertising rules in real estate generally require that the responsible brokerage's identity be disclosed in advertisements, since consumers should be able to identify which licensed firm is actually responsible for the listing, not just the individual agent's personal contact information. Treating the omission as merely aesthetic, or assuming a license number alone satisfies the requirement, overlooks the specific purpose of requiring the brokerage's name to appear in advertising.

  24. 24. During a property management walkthrough of a vacant rental unit near Brookhaven, the owner instructs the leasing agent to reject any applicant whose household includes children under 12, citing wear-and-tear concerns. Under federal fair housing law, this instruction most likely violates protections based on which characteristic?

    • A. Sex
    • B. Familial status
    • C. National origin
    • D. Religion
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Federal fair housing law prohibits discrimination based on familial status, which protects households with children under 18, so refusing to rent solely because a family has young children is generally unlawful regardless of noise concerns. None of the other listed characteristics relate to the presence of children in a household, making familial status the specific protected class implicated here.

  25. 25. A prospective tenant near Ocean Springs who uses a wheelchair asks the landlord to install a permanent ramp at the entrance and requests a reserved parking space near the door because of a mobility disability. How should the landlord evaluate these requests under fair housing law?

    • A. Require the tenant to pay double the standard security deposit before allowing either request
    • B. Deny both requests, since disability accommodations are optional for private landlords
    • C. Grant the reasonable accommodation for a reserved parking space, but the tenant is typically responsible for the reasonable modification costs of a permanent structural ramp
    • D. Approve only the ramp request and deny the parking request as unrelated to the disability
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Fair housing law distinguishes between a reasonable accommodation, such as a policy change like a reserved parking space, which the landlord generally must provide at their own expense, and a reasonable modification, such as a structural change like a permanent ramp, where the tenant is typically responsible for the cost unless other rules apply. Denying both requests outright ignores the legal obligation to engage with legitimate disability-related requests, and treating the ramp and the parking space identically overlooks this accommodation-versus-modification distinction.

  26. 26. "Most of their monthly income comes from a public assistance program, so let's deny this one even though their credit otherwise checks out," an underwriter tells a loan processor reviewing a mortgage file near Philadelphia, Mississippi. Which federal law is most directly implicated by factoring in this income source to deny credit?

    • A. The Community Reinvestment Act
    • B. The Fair Housing Act
    • C. The Servicemembers Civil Relief Act
    • D. The Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    The Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits lenders from discriminating against credit applicants based on factors including receipt of income from public assistance programs, since such income is a protected basis under the law when the applicant otherwise meets lending criteria. The Fair Housing Act addresses housing discrimination more broadly rather than credit decisions specifically, and the Community Reinvestment Act and Servicemembers Civil Relief Act address different concerns, namely bank lending obligations to communities and protections for military servicemembers, not this specific credit discrimination issue.

  27. 27. Scrolling through an apartment ad near Starkville, a fair housing advocate flags this line: "ideal for a young bachelor, absolutely no children." What is the primary fair housing concern with this wording?

    • A. It is problematic only if a family actually applies and is rejected
    • B. It expresses a discriminatory preference based on familial status, which is prohibited in housing advertisements
    • C. It fails to mention the exact square footage of the unit
    • D. It violates truth-in-advertising rules regarding rental pricing
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Fair housing law prohibits advertisements that indicate a preference, limitation, or discrimination based on protected characteristics such as familial status, and language like "no kids please" directly signals such a preference regardless of whether a family ever actually applies. The violation exists in the discriminatory language itself, not merely in whether an actual rejection later occurs, and this issue is unrelated to square footage disclosure or pricing accuracy rules.

  28. 28. An enthusiastic 17-year-old Mississippi resident who has completed the required pre-license coursework wants to apply immediately for a salesperson license. What issue prevents the application from being approved right now?

    • A. The applicant must first work as an unlicensed assistant for one year
    • B. The applicant must complete an additional 60 hours of coursework beyond what is typical
    • C. The applicant must obtain a broker's license before a salesperson license
    • D. The applicant must be at least 18 years of age to apply for a Mississippi salesperson license
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    Mississippi requires a salesperson applicant to be a resident of the state and at least 18 years of age at the time the application is submitted, so a 17-year-old cannot be approved regardless of completed coursework until that age requirement is met. None of the other options describe an actual barrier under Mississippi licensing law; there is no unlicensed-assistant prerequisite or requirement to hold a broker's license before becoming a salesperson.

  29. 29. An applicant near Tupelo has their Mississippi salesperson license application notarized but then delays mailing it to the Commission for several months. What problem does this delay create?

    • A. The application must be received by the Commission within 60 days of the notary date or it becomes invalid
    • B. Notarized applications never expire and can be submitted at any time
    • C. The delay only matters if the applicant has changed addresses
    • D. The applicant must have the application re-signed but not re-notarized
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Mississippi requires that a notarized salesperson application be received by the Commission within 60 days of the notary date, so an applicant who sits on a notarized application for several months risks having it rejected as untimely and needing to start the notarization process over. Assuming notarized applications remain valid indefinitely, or that only an address change matters, ignores this specific filing deadline tied to the notary date itself.

  30. 30. While completing the Mississippi salesperson license application, an applicant near Corinth needs to secure signed recommendations from other individuals attesting to their character. What does Mississippi require regarding these references?

    • A. They must be signed by a single character reference of any relation to the applicant
    • B. They must be signed by three citizens who are real estate owners and not related to the applicant
    • C. They must be notarized by a judge rather than a standard notary public
    • D. They must be signed by two licensed brokers who currently employ the applicant
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Mississippi's salesperson application requires a recommendation signed by three citizens who own real estate and are not related to the applicant, which is intended to provide an independent character assessment from members of the community rather than from family or from an employer. Requiring only a single unrelated reference, or requiring brokers/employers specifically, does not match the actual independent, unrelated-citizen structure of this requirement.

  31. 31. A newly licensed salesperson near Vicksburg begins independently negotiating and closing transactions without any involvement or knowledge of their supervising broker. What is the primary regulatory problem with this practice under Mississippi license law?

    • A. The issue only arises if a client formally complains about the transaction
    • B. A salesperson must operate under the active supervision of a licensed broker and cannot conduct real estate business independently of that broker
    • C. There is no problem, since salespersons are independently licensed to transact business
    • D. Supervision only applies to a salesperson's first six months of licensure
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    A Mississippi real estate salesperson is licensed to work under and be supervised by a sponsoring broker, and conducting transactions entirely independent of that broker's knowledge and oversight undermines the supervisory structure the license law is built around. It is not the case that supervision is optional, complaint-dependent, or limited to a probationary period; the broker's ongoing supervisory responsibility for licensed activity is a continuing requirement.

  32. 32. A salesperson near Columbus personally accepts an earnest money check from a buyer and deposits it into their own personal bank account for safekeeping until closing. What is wrong with this handling of the funds?

    • A. The funds should have been given directly to the seller for safekeeping instead
    • B. Earnest money may only be deposited by the buyer's own bank, never by any agent
    • C. Nothing is wrong as long as the salesperson returns the funds at closing
    • D. The salesperson should have delivered the funds to their supervising broker for proper handling in the brokerage's trust account
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    Earnest money and other client funds must be handled through the supervising broker's trust account rather than a salesperson's personal account, since trust account handling is a core protection ensuring client funds are kept separate from personal funds and properly accounted for. Simply intending to return the funds later does not cure the fundamental problem of a salesperson personally holding client money outside the broker's regulated trust account structure.

  33. 33. A Mississippi brokerage near Meridian closes a transaction and a salesperson wants to keep the client's file at home rather than in the brokerage's records. Under Mississippi license law, who bears responsibility for maintaining proper transaction records?

    • A. Only the closing attorney is responsible for retaining transaction records
    • B. No party is required to retain any records once a transaction closes
    • C. The buyer's lender is solely responsible for record retention
    • D. The supervising broker bears responsibility for maintaining the brokerage's transaction records and documents
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    Mississippi license law places responsibility for maintaining proper transaction records and documents on the supervising broker, consistent with the broker's overall supervisory role over the firm's licensed activity, rather than allowing an individual salesperson to informally keep client files outside the brokerage's system. Records responsibility does not shift to the lender or closing attorney, who play separate roles in the transaction unrelated to the brokerage's own recordkeeping obligations.

  34. 34. A salesperson near Natchez begins working with a buyer who has not signed any representation agreement and is simply touring homes at open houses. At what general point should the salesperson clarify which party they represent?

    • A. Only after a written offer has been submitted
    • B. Disclosure is optional if the salesperson only represents the seller
    • C. Only if the buyer directly asks who the agent represents
    • D. At or before the point of substantive contact with the buyer regarding the transaction
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    Mississippi's agency disclosure duties generally require a licensee to clarify their representation status at or before substantive contact with a party to the transaction, so that the party understands whose interests the agent is advocating for before providing significant assistance or information. Waiting until an offer is submitted, or only responding if directly asked, delays this disclosure well past the point where the unrepresented party may have already relied on the agent's guidance.

  35. 35. A licensee near Greenville is accused of mishandling client funds, and a formal complaint is filed with the state regulator. Which entity has the authority to investigate the complaint and potentially discipline the licensee's Mississippi real estate license?

    • A. The local county sheriff's office
    • B. The Mississippi Real Estate Commission
    • C. The National Association of Realtors
    • D. The buyer's title insurance company
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The Mississippi Real Estate Commission holds statutory authority to investigate complaints against licensees and to take disciplinary action, including suspension or revocation of a license, for violations of license law, making it the proper regulatory body for this complaint. A national trade association has no licensing or disciplinary authority over an individual's state license, and a title company or sheriff's office likewise has no jurisdiction over real estate license discipline.

  36. 36. A broker licensed only in Louisiana refers a buyer to purchase a home near Natchez and expects to receive a referral fee once the Mississippi transaction closes. What must generally occur for the Louisiana broker to lawfully receive that fee?

    • A. No referral fee may ever be paid to an out-of-state broker under any circumstance
    • B. The referral fee must be paid directly to the buyer instead of the broker
    • C. The Louisiana broker must cooperate through a Mississippi-licensed broker to lawfully receive compensation for activity involving Mississippi property
    • D. The Louisiana broker must personally attend the closing in Mississippi
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Mississippi license law generally requires an out-of-state broker to work through a properly licensed Mississippi broker to lawfully receive compensation connected to a transaction involving Mississippi real estate, since only licensed parties may be paid for licensed real estate activity within the state. It is not that out-of-state referral fees are entirely prohibited, nor that personal attendance at closing is what makes the fee lawful; the key requirement is cooperation with an in-state licensed broker.

  37. 37. A seller near Hernando is preparing to list a home and asks the agent what Mississippi requires regarding disclosing the property's physical condition to buyers. What should the agent explain?

    • A. Mississippi law exempts all residential sellers from any written disclosure obligation
    • B. Only commercial property sellers are required to provide written disclosures
    • C. Disclosure obligations apply exclusively to the listing brokerage, never the seller personally
    • D. Mississippi requires the seller to complete a written property condition disclosure statement addressing known material defects
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    Mississippi requires sellers of residential property to complete a written property condition disclosure statement addressing known material defects, giving buyers documented information about the property's condition before the sale proceeds. It is not accurate that residential sellers are entirely exempt, that the requirement applies only to commercial sellers, or that the obligation belongs solely to the brokerage rather than the seller who actually possesses knowledge of the property's condition.

  38. 38. A team of salespersons near Oxford brands all of their yard signs and online listings under a catchy team name without referencing their sponsoring brokerage anywhere in the advertisement. What is the concern under Mississippi advertising rules?

    • A. Mississippi advertising rules generally require the sponsoring brokerage's name to appear in advertisements, even when a team name is also used
    • B. Only print advertising, not internet advertising, is subject to any disclosure rules
    • C. The requirement applies only if the team name includes the word "realty"
    • D. Team names are entirely prohibited in Mississippi real estate advertising
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Mississippi advertising requirements generally require that a licensee's advertising, whether a physical yard sign or an internet listing, identify the sponsoring brokerage, since a team name alone does not satisfy the obligation to disclose which licensed firm stands behind the advertisement. It is not that team names are banned outright, nor that internet advertising is somehow exempt from the same disclosure expectations that apply to print and yard signs.

  39. 39. A licensed salesperson near Biloxi moves to a new address but never updates this information with the Mississippi Real Estate Commission. Why does this create a licensing maintenance problem?

    • A. Licensees generally must keep their contact information current with the Commission as part of maintaining an active license in good standing
    • B. The requirement only applies if the salesperson changes brokerages at the same time
    • C. Address changes have no bearing on license status under Mississippi law
    • D. Only brokers, not salespersons, are required to report address changes
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Maintaining a Mississippi real estate license in good standing generally includes keeping current contact information on file with the Commission, since the regulator needs a reliable way to reach licensees regarding renewal notices, complaints, or other official communications. Assuming address changes are irrelevant, or that the requirement is limited to brokers or tied only to changing firms, misunderstands that basic licensee recordkeeping obligations apply broadly to maintaining active licensure.

  40. 40. To give the public constructive notice of a farm's new ownership after closing near Grenada, the buyer's attorney takes which action with the deed?

    • A. Files the deed with the state real estate commission
    • B. Records the deed in the appropriate county land records
    • C. Mails a copy of the deed to the county tax assessor only
    • D. Publishes the deed in a local newspaper
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Recording a deed in the county land records is the act that creates constructive notice to the world of the change in ownership, protecting the new owner's interest against later claims by third parties who did not have actual knowledge of the transfer. Simply notifying the tax assessor or publishing in a newspaper does not create the same legal constructive notice that recording in the public land records provides.

  41. 41. A life tenant in a historic Natchez home wants to sell the property outright to a buyer who will take a fee simple title. What is the legal effect of this attempted sale on the remainder interest held by the tenant's niece?

    • A. The sale automatically converts the niece's remainder interest into a life estate of her own.
    • B. The niece must consent in writing before the deed can be recorded, or the sale is void.
    • C. The buyer can only receive the life tenant's interest, and the niece's remainder interest survives unaffected.
    • D. The sale extinguishes the remainder interest because a life tenant may convey a fee simple title.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    A life tenant holds only a possessory interest measured by a lifetime and cannot convey greater rights than they own, so any buyer takes subject to the future interest and the remainder passes to the niece intact once the life tenant dies, regardless of the sale. The tempting wrong choice assumes a life estate owner has full fee simple authority to convey, which misunderstands the limited nature of a life estate and would improperly cut off a vested future interest without the remainderman's participation.

  42. 42. To determine whether a homeowners association in a Ridgeland subdivision can prevent a buyer from parking a commercial trailer in the driveway, the agent should first review which document?

    • A. The county's comprehensive land use plan
    • B. The property's title insurance policy
    • C. The recorded deed restrictions or restrictive covenants for the subdivision
    • D. The property's most recent appraisal report
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Restrictive covenants recorded against a subdivision's lots are private agreements that bind all owners within the development and commonly regulate matters like parking, exterior appearance, and permitted vehicles, so they control this dispute rather than a title policy or an appraisal, which address ownership insurance and value, not use restrictions. A comprehensive land use plan is a government planning tool, not the enforceable document between neighbors in a private subdivision.

  43. 43. Two unmarried co-investors buying a duplex near Southaven want the surviving owner to automatically receive the deceased owner's share without going through probate. Which form of co-ownership accomplishes this?

    • A. Severalty ownership shared between the two buyers
    • B. Tenancy in common
    • C. Joint tenancy with right of survivorship
    • D. A partnership interest recorded as a general lien
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Joint tenancy includes the right of survivorship, meaning a deceased joint tenant's interest passes automatically to the surviving joint tenant(s) outside of probate, which is exactly the outcome the investors want. Tenancy in common, by contrast, allows each owner's share to pass through their estate to heirs rather than automatically to the co-owner, and severalty describes sole ownership by one person, not shared ownership between two buyers.

  44. 44. "I never signed anything with that agent, so I don't owe them a commission," a seller tells a new listing agent about a prior expired listing. What agency concept determines whether the seller's statement is accurate?

    • A. Ratification, which requires the seller to approve the agent's actions after the fact
    • B. Termination of agency, since an expired listing agreement ends the agent's authority to act for the seller
    • C. Estoppel, which creates agency automatically once a house is shown
    • D. Vicarious liability, which binds the seller regardless of any agreement
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    An agency relationship created by a listing agreement ends when the agreement expires, terminating the agent's authority to act on the seller's behalf and any claim to a commission under that expired agreement, unless a protection period clause applies. Vicarious liability and ratification describe different legal doctrines about responsibility for an agent's acts, not the straightforward fact that an expired agreement simply ends the agency relationship.

  45. 45. A broker in Meridian is legally responsible for supervising the daily activities of the salespeople affiliated with the firm. If a salesperson makes a misrepresentation to a buyer during a showing, which principle most directly exposes the broker to liability?

    • A. Comparative negligence
    • B. Strict liability regardless of any connection to the transaction
    • C. Vicarious liability for acts within the scope of the salesperson's employment
    • D. Res ipsa loquitur
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Because a broker supervises and is responsible for the licensed activities of affiliated salespeople, the broker can be held vicariously liable for a salesperson's misrepresentation made within the scope of representing a client, even without the broker's personal knowledge of the statement. This is distinct from strict liability, which would impose responsibility without any connection to the underlying supervisory relationship, and from comparative negligence, which apportions fault rather than establishing the basis for liability itself.

  46. 46. Two cooperating salespersons from different firms both claim to be the procuring cause of a sale near Clinton after the buyer viewed the home with one agent but wrote the offer through another. How is a procuring cause dispute typically resolved?

    • A. Whichever agent physically wrote the final contract is automatically the procuring cause
    • B. The buyer decides which agent is paid, regardless of either agent's involvement
    • C. The listing broker automatically keeps the full commission in any dispute
    • D. By examining which agent's efforts were the direct and continuous cause leading to the completed transaction
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    Procuring cause analysis looks at the chain of events and asks which agent's uninterrupted efforts actually brought about the successful transaction, not simply who happened to write the final offer or who the buyer prefers to reward. Assuming that whoever drafted the paperwork automatically wins ignores that procuring cause turns on the continuity and effectiveness of the agent's efforts throughout the deal, which is often resolved through arbitration between brokers.

  47. 47. "Financing fell through and we notified the seller in writing—what happens now?" a buyer near Tupelo asks after failing to get mortgage approval within the 30-day contingency window in the sale agreement for an estate property. What is the typical result under a standard financing contingency provision?

    • A. The contract terminates and the earnest money is typically returned to the buyer
    • B. The contract remains binding until the buyer finds an alternative lender
    • C. The buyer forfeits the earnest money regardless of the contingency
    • D. The seller may sue for specific performance despite the failed contingency
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A financing contingency clause protects the buyer by making the contract's enforceability conditional on securing loan approval; when the condition fails through no fault of the buyer and proper notice is given, the contract generally terminates and earnest money is returned. Forcing forfeiture or continued enforcement of the contract despite a failed financing contingency would defeat the entire purpose of including that protective clause.

  48. 48. A buyer under contract to purchase a duplex near Laurel wants to transfer their rights and obligations under the purchase agreement to a business partner before closing, with the seller's consent releasing the original buyer entirely. This is best described as:

    • A. An assignment, since only rights transfer without releasing the original party
    • B. A unilateral modification requiring no seller involvement
    • C. A novation, since a new party is substituted and the original buyer is released from the obligation
    • D. An anticipatory breach of the purchase agreement
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    A novation replaces one of the original parties to a contract with a new party and, with the consent of all involved, fully releases the original party from further obligation, which matches a scenario where the seller agrees to release the original buyer. A simple assignment typically transfers rights to a new party but usually leaves the original party still liable unless a release is separately granted, so it does not fit a situation where the original buyer is fully released.

  49. 49. A buyer under contract for a commercial lot near Columbus defaults without a valid excuse just days before closing. The purchase agreement includes a liquidated damages clause allowing the seller to retain the earnest money as full compensation. What is the primary legal purpose of this type of clause?

    • A. To guarantee the seller can still force the sale through specific performance
    • B. To automatically void the entire contract without any remedy to either party
    • C. To pre-establish a reasonable estimate of damages when actual damages would be difficult to calculate at the time of breach
    • D. To punish the defaulting buyer beyond the seller's actual loss
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Liquidated damages clauses are enforceable when they represent a reasonable, pre-agreed estimate of the harm a breach would cause, particularly because actual damages from a failed real estate sale can be hard to quantify precisely at the time the contract is signed. A clause designed purely to punish the breaching party rather than reasonably estimate loss risks being challenged as an unenforceable penalty rather than valid liquidated damages.

  50. 50. A commercial property owner near Meridian refinances with a new loan balance of $296,000, and the lender charges 3.5 points as an origination fee for the transaction. What is the dollar cost of these points?

    • A. $11,840
    • B. $8,880
    • C. $10,360
    • D. $2,960
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Each point equals one percent of the loan amount, so 3.5 points on a $296,000 loan equals 0.035 multiplied by $296,000, which comes to $10,360. Calculating with a lower rate like 3% or a higher rate like 4% produces the tempting but incorrect nearby figures, and treating the charge as just a single point rather than 3.5 points understates the actual origination cost on the refinance.

  51. 51. "Since you're only putting 12% down on this duplex, the lender is going to add an extra monthly premium to protect itself against default," a property manager explains to a first-time investor closing near Corinth. What is this required insurance called?

    • A. Hazard insurance
    • B. Homeowners insurance
    • C. Private mortgage insurance (PMI)
    • D. Title insurance
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Private mortgage insurance protects the lender, not the borrower, against loss if a borrower with a smaller down payment defaults, and it is typically required on conventional loans when the down payment is below the standard 20% threshold. Homeowners and hazard insurance protect against property damage, and title insurance protects against defects in the chain of title, neither of which relate to the lender's risk from a low down payment.

  52. 52. Comparing a fixed-rate mortgage to an adjustable-rate mortgage for a buyer near Southaven who plans to stay in the home for at least 15 years, which factor most favors the fixed-rate option?

    • A. The fixed-rate loan automatically qualifies the buyer for a lower loan amount
    • B. The fixed-rate loan requires no down payment
    • C. The fixed-rate loan guarantees a lower initial interest rate than any adjustable-rate loan
    • D. The fixed-rate loan provides predictable payments unaffected by future interest rate increases over a long holding period
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    A fixed-rate mortgage locks in the interest rate and payment for the life of the loan, which is valuable to a buyer planning a long-term stay because it removes the risk of rising payments that an adjustable-rate mortgage could bring after its initial fixed period ends. It is not true that fixed rates are always lower than adjustable rates initially; in fact, adjustable-rate loans often start with a lower introductory rate, which is the very risk-reward tradeoff fixed-rate buyers are avoiding.

  53. 53. An elderly farmer near Yazoo City wants to sell 150 acres directly to a young buyer who cannot qualify for a conventional bank loan, while the farmer continues to hold legal title until the full purchase price is paid over time. This arrangement is best described as:

    • A. A subordinate second mortgage
    • B. A deed of trust with a third-party trustee
    • C. A leasehold estate with an option to purchase
    • D. A land contract (contract for deed) with seller financing
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    A land contract, also called a contract for deed, allows a seller to finance the sale directly, retaining legal title as security while the buyer makes installment payments and typically receives full title only once the price is paid in full, which fits a seller who wants to help a buyer who cannot get bank financing. This differs from a deed of trust, where a lender (not the seller) is repaid through a third-party trustee arrangement, and from a lease-option, where the buyer would not yet have equitable ownership through direct installment payments toward the purchase price.

  54. 54. During settlement on a farm sale near Louisville, the closing agent divides the year's property tax bill between the buyer and seller based on how long each will have owned the property during the tax year. This process is called:

    • A. Subordination
    • B. Amortization
    • C. Proration
    • D. Capitalization
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Proration divides ongoing expenses like property taxes between the buyer and seller according to their respective periods of ownership during the applicable billing period, ensuring each party pays only their fair share as of the closing date. Amortization refers to paying down loan principal over time, subordination refers to the priority ranking of liens, and capitalization is a valuation technique, none of which describe splitting a shared expense at closing.

  55. 55. An investor evaluating a small commercial strip center near Meridian finds it generates a net operating income (NOI) of $66,000 per year, and comparable commercial cap rates in the area run at 5.75%. Using the income capitalization approach, what is the indicated value of the property?

    • A. $1,200,000
    • B. $1,147,826
    • C. $1,100,000
    • D. $942,857
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The income capitalization approach derives value by dividing net operating income by the capitalization rate, so $66,000 divided by 0.0575 produces approximately $1,147,826. Using a rounder cap rate like 6% or 5.5% instead of the actual 5.75% produces the tempting but incorrect nearby values, and using a 7% cap rate instead reflects the same type of substitution error rather than a valid step in the capitalization formula.

  56. 56. In preparing a comparative market analysis for a listing near Starkville, an agent adjusts a comparable sale's price upward because that comparable lacks a feature the subject property has. What does this adjustment reflect?

    • A. The subject property's value should be reduced to match the comparable
    • B. The adjustment corrects for a difference in financing terms only
    • C. The comparable would have sold for more if it had that feature, so its price is adjusted to be more comparable to the subject
    • D. The comparable is worth more than the subject property overall
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    When a comparable lacks a feature the subject has, its price is adjusted upward to estimate what it likely would have sold for with that feature, making it a fairer comparison point for estimating the subject's value; adjustments are always made to the comparable, not the subject. Concluding that the subject's value should instead be reduced misapplies the adjustment process, which exists specifically to bring the comparable in line with the subject rather than the reverse.

  57. 57. "Just don't mention the water stains in the closet ceiling," a seller near Diamondhead tells the listing agent before a showing. How should the agent respond to this instruction?

    • A. Refuse to represent the seller in the sale going forward, effective immediately
    • B. Explain to the seller that known material defects generally must be disclosed and that helping conceal them could expose both the seller and the agent to liability
    • C. Follow the instruction only if no buyer specifically asks about water damage
    • D. Comply, since the agent's duty of confidentiality to the seller outweighs any disclosure concern
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    An agent should counsel the seller that concealing a known material defect like water damage from prospective buyers can expose both the seller and the agent to legal liability for misrepresentation, since the duty to disclose material facts generally overrides a seller's preference for silence. Simply complying with instructions to hide a known defect, or waiting until directly asked, would make the agent complicit in nondisclosure rather than fulfilling the professional obligation to advise the client properly.

  58. 58. A house near Pass Christian dates back to 1972, and federal law requires prospective buyers to receive a specific disclosure because of the property's age. What must the seller and agent provide?

    • A. An asbestos abatement certificate
    • B. A flood zone elevation certificate
    • C. A radon gas disclosure pamphlet
    • D. A lead-based paint disclosure, since the home predates the 1978 federal ban on lead-based residential paint
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: D
    Federal law requires sellers and agents to provide a lead-based paint disclosure and an EPA-approved information pamphlet for homes built before 1978, when lead-based residential paint was banned, and this 1965-built home falls squarely within that requirement. Asbestos, radon, and flood elevation disclosures may be relevant in specific situations, but they are not the federally mandated age-based disclosure that specifically applies to pre-1978 housing.

  59. 59. An agent near Bay St. Louis learns during a listing that the seller has a pending lawsuit affecting the property's boundary line with a neighbor. The seller insists this is a private legal matter unrelated to the sale. How should the agent evaluate this situation?

    • A. Recognize that a pending boundary dispute is likely a material fact that could affect a buyer's decision and generally should be disclosed
    • B. Agree with the seller since boundary lawsuits are always confidential attorney-client matters
    • C. Report the lawsuit to the county clerk instead of disclosing it to the buyer
    • D. Ignore the lawsuit unless the buyer's attorney specifically requests litigation records
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A pending boundary dispute directly affects what a buyer would be purchasing and could result in future litigation costs or loss of land, making it a material fact that a reasonable buyer would want to know before proceeding, regardless of the seller's characterization of it as private. Dismissing it as confidential or waiting for the buyer's attorney to stumble upon it ignores the affirmative duty to disclose material facts that could influence a buyer's decision.

  60. 60. A salesperson near Southaven consistently shows homes in majority-white neighborhoods only to white buyers and homes in majority-Black neighborhoods only to Black buyers, regardless of each buyer's stated preferences. This practice is best described as:

    • A. Redlining
    • B. Steering
    • C. Blockbusting
    • D. Puffing
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Steering occurs when an agent guides buyers toward or away from certain neighborhoods based on a protected characteristic like race rather than the buyer's own stated preferences and needs, which is exactly what is happening in this scenario. Redlining specifically involves lenders or insurers denying services to entire neighborhoods based on demographics, and blockbusting involves persuading owners to sell by suggesting minority group members are moving in, neither of which matches an agent directing buyers based on race during showings.

  61. 61. A title company near Laurel offers a real estate agent a monthly cash payment in exchange for referring the agent's clients exclusively to that title company. What federal law most directly prohibits this type of arrangement?

    • A. The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA)
    • B. The Equal Credit Opportunity Act
    • C. The Fair Credit Reporting Act
    • D. The Truth in Lending Act
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    RESPA generally prohibits giving or accepting kickbacks or unearned fees for the referral of settlement service business, such as a title company paying an agent for exclusive client referrals, because such arrangements can inflate costs and limit consumer choice. The Truth in Lending Act and Equal Credit Opportunity Act address different concerns, namely credit disclosure and lending discrimination, and the Fair Credit Reporting Act governs the accuracy and use of consumer credit reports, none of which specifically target referral kickbacks in real estate settlement services.

2026 statistics

Key facts: Mississippi Real Estate exam

120
MCQ questions
General portion 70%
To pass
4h
Time limit
$75
Exam fee

The Mississippi Real Estate is administered by Mississippi Real Estate Commission, with 120 scored questions, a 4 hours time limit and a General portion 70% (56 of 80); state portion 75% (30 of 40) result.

This free Mississippi Real Estate practice test has 61 original questions written to Mississippi Real Estate Commission's official content outline, last checked against it on August 10, 2026. Every question shows a worked explanation, and nothing here requires a signup.

As of 2026, the Mississippi Real Estate exam fee is $75.

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Frequently asked questions

How many questions are on the real Mississippi salesperson exam?

The combined exam has 120 questions across two portions: 80 general (national) questions in 2.5 hours and 40 Mississippi state-law questions in 1.5 hours, for a total of 4 hours.

What score do I need to pass?

You must pass each portion separately: 70% (56 of 80 points) on the general portion and 75% (30 of 40 points) on the state-law portion.

Is this practice test free, and do I need to sign up?

Yes, this practice test is free to use and does not require creating an account or providing payment information.

Which topics should I prioritize when I practice?

Contracts carries the heaviest weight on the general portion at 19%, followed by Agency at 13% and Practice of Real Estate at 12%, so spend extra time drilling those areas alongside the state-law sections on Agency Disclosure and Duties.

How should I use a practice test to prepare effectively?

Take a full-length timed practice test first to identify weak content areas, then review explanations for missed questions and retest on those specific topics before moving on.

Does the practice test include unscored experimental questions like the real exam?

The real PSI-administered exam may include 5 to 10 unscored experimental questions mixed in, which are not identified to the candidate; a good practice test should expose you to that same unpredictability.