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PRACTICE ENGINE · QIYAS GAT

Qiyas GAT Practice Test.

60 free practice questions with answers and explanations.

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These are original study questions written from published exam objectives—not recalled, copied, or confidential live-exam items. Always confirm current coverage with the official sources linked on this page.

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The Qiyas GAT is administered by Education and Training Evaluation Commission (ETEC).

This free Qiyas GAT practice test has 60 original questions written to Education and Training Evaluation Commission (ETEC)'s official content outline, last checked against it on September 6, 2026. Every question shows a worked explanation, and nothing here requires a signup.

Practice Saudi Arabia Qiyas GAT by skill

Use this page to practise original multiple-choice questions for the Saudi Arabia Qiyas General Aptitude Test. The GAT measures verbal and quantitative abilities involving analytical, deductive and inferential reasoning, and it serves high-school graduates from all tracks seeking admission to higher education. This practice bank has 60 original questions: 10 each in ratios and percentages, algebra and word problems, geometry and measurement, data interpretation, verbal relationships, and reading comprehension. You can filter by topic, answer questions instantly, and read explanations that show the reasoning behind the correct choice. These study allocations are ours, not official section weights, and the bank size is not the number of questions in the official exam. For broader preparation, use the GAT study guide and GAT cheat sheet alongside this practice.

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QUESTION 1 / 60Ratios and percentagesEasy0/0
In a study group, the ratio of students who prefer individual revision to students who prefer group revision is 5:7. There are 36 students in the group. What percentage of the group prefers group revision?
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  1. 1. In a study group, the ratio of students who prefer individual revision to students who prefer group revision is 5:7. There are 36 students in the group. What percentage of the group prefers group revision?

    • A. 41⅔%
    • B. 58⅓%
    • C. 60%
    • D. 70%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Let the two groups be 5 parts and 7 parts, so the total is 12 parts. Since 12 parts represent 36 students, 1 part represents 36 ÷ 12 = 3 students. Group revision students = 7 × 3 = 21. The percentage is 21 ÷ 36 × 100 = 58.333...%, which is 58⅓%. Check: 58⅓% of 36 is 21, so the result matches the ratio. A likely mistake is to use 7 ÷ 5 instead of 7 ÷ 12; the base must be the whole group, not only the individual-revision group.

  2. 2. A jacket is first reduced by 15% from its marked price of 240 riyals. The reduced price is then increased by 10% because of a special packaging charge. Compared with the original marked price, what is the overall percentage change?

    • A. 5% decrease
    • B. 6.5% decrease
    • C. 6.5% increase
    • D. 25% decrease
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    First find the reduced price: 15% of 240 = 36, so the price becomes 240 − 36 = 204. Then increase this by 10%: 10% of 204 = 20.4, so the final price is 204 + 20.4 = 224.4. Compared with the original 240, the decrease is 240 − 224.4 = 15.6. The percentage decrease is 15.6 ÷ 240 × 100 = 6.5%. Check using multipliers: 240 × 0.85 × 1.10 = 224.4, confirming the same result. A common mistake is to subtract 15% and add 10% directly to get a 5% decrease, but the 10% increase is applied to the reduced price, not the original price.

  3. 3. A drink mixture contains water and syrup in the ratio 4:1. There are 25 liters of the mixture. How many liters of water must be added so that the new ratio of water to syrup becomes 6:1?

    • A. 5 liters
    • B. 8 liters
    • C. 10 liters
    • D. 15 liters
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    The original ratio has 4 + 1 = 5 parts. Since the mixture is 25 liters, each part is 25 ÷ 5 = 5 liters. Water = 4 × 5 = 20 liters, and syrup = 1 × 5 = 5 liters. Syrup does not change when only water is added. For the new ratio 6:1, 5 liters of syrup must match 6 × 5 = 30 liters of water. The mixture already has 20 liters of water, so the amount of water to add is 30 − 20 = 10 liters. Check: after adding 10 liters, water:syrup = 30:5 = 6:1. A likely mistake is to make the total mixture 6 + 1 = 7 parts without keeping the syrup amount fixed.

  4. 4. A two-digit number has digits whose sum is 11. When its digits are reversed, the new number is 27 less than the original number. What is the original number?

    • A. 47
    • B. 65
    • C. 74
    • D. 83
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Let the tens digit be a and the ones digit be b. The original number is 10a + b, and the reversed number is 10b + a. The digit sum gives a + b = 11. The reversed number is 27 less than the original, so 10b + a = 10a + b − 27. Rearranging gives 9b − 9a = −27, so b − a = −3, or a − b = 3. Now solve a + b = 11 and a − b = 3. Adding the equations gives 2a = 14, so a = 7. Then b = 4. The original number is 74. Check: 7 + 4 = 11, and the reverse 47 is 27 less than 74. A likely mistake is to give 47, which is the reversed number, not the original.

  5. 5. Read the passage and answer the question. A school activity team collected registration forms for a weekend workshop. There were 180 forms in total. Exactly 60% were submitted online, and the rest were submitted on paper. The team checked the forms before filing them. One-sixth of the online forms needed correction because an email or phone number was missing. One-quarter of the paper forms needed correction because a signature was missing. Forms needing correction were kept aside. All complete forms were placed into boxes, with exactly 18 complete forms in each box and no box left partly filled. How many boxes of complete forms were filled?

    • A. 6 boxes
    • B. 7 boxes
    • C. 8 boxes
    • D. 10 boxes
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Total forms = 180. Online forms = 60% of 180 = 108. Paper forms = 180 − 108 = 72. Online forms needing correction = 1/6 of 108 = 18, so complete online forms = 108 − 18 = 90. Paper forms needing correction = 1/4 of 72 = 18, so complete paper forms = 72 − 18 = 54. Total complete forms = 90 + 54 = 144. Each box holds 18 complete forms, so boxes filled = 144 ÷ 18 = 8. Check: 8 boxes hold 8 × 18 = 144 complete forms. A likely mistake is to subtract only one correction group or to apply 25% to all 180 forms instead of only the paper forms.

  6. 6. A sequence of ratios is shown: 2:3, 4:9, 8:27, 16:81, ... If the same rule continues, what is the next ratio?

    • A. 32:162
    • B. 32:243
    • C. 48:243
    • D. 64:162
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Compare consecutive ratios. The first number doubles each time: 2, 4, 8, 16, so the next first number is 32. The second number triples each time: 3, 9, 27, 81, so the next second number is 243. Therefore, the next ratio is 32:243. Check: from 16:81 to 32:243, the first term is multiplied by 2 and the second by 3, matching the earlier pattern. A likely mistake is to multiply both terms by the same number, but the displayed pattern uses different multipliers for the two positions.

  7. 7. In a group of students, 40% chose mathematics as their favorite subject. Of the remaining students, 30% chose physics. The students who chose neither mathematics nor physics numbered 84. How many students were in the group?

    • A. 160
    • B. 180
    • C. 200
    • D. 240
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Let the total number of students be T. Mathematics students are 40% of T, so the remaining students are 60% of T. Physics students are 30% of the remaining 60%, which is 0.30 × 0.60T = 0.18T. Students choosing neither are the remaining part after mathematics and physics: T − 0.40T − 0.18T = 0.42T. We are told 0.42T = 84, so T = 84 ÷ 0.42 = 200. Check: 40% of 200 = 80; remaining = 120; 30% of 120 = 36; neither = 200 − 80 − 36 = 84. A likely mistake is to take 30% of the whole group instead of 30% of the remaining students.

  8. 8. A quantity is increased by 20% and then the new quantity is decreased by 20%. The final result is 288. What was the original quantity?

    • A. 276
    • B. 288
    • C. 300
    • D. 320
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Let the original quantity be x. After a 20% increase, it becomes 1.20x. Then a 20% decrease leaves 80% of that amount: 0.80 × 1.20x = 0.96x. The final value is 288, so 0.96x = 288. Thus x = 288 ÷ 0.96 = 300. Check: 20% increase of 300 gives 360; 20% decrease of 360 is 72; 360 − 72 = 288. A likely mistake is to think a 20% increase and a 20% decrease cancel exactly. They do not, because the second percentage is taken from the increased value.

  9. 9. EMBARGO is to TRADE as QUARANTINE is to _____.

    • A. contact
    • B. illness
    • C. medicine
    • D. permission
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    First identify the relationship in the first pair. An embargo is a restriction placed on trade. Now apply the same relationship: a quarantine is a restriction placed on contact or movement between people. The exact matching answer is “contact.” A likely mistake is to choose “illness,” because quarantine may be used during illness, but illness is the reason for the restriction, not the activity being restricted.

  10. 10. Three students, Amal, Badr, and Camil, share a project budget. Amal’s share to Badr’s share is 3:4. Badr’s share to Camil’s share is 2:5. If Camil receives 140 riyals more than Amal, what is the total budget?

    • A. 280 riyals
    • B. 320 riyals
    • C. 340 riyals
    • D. 420 riyals
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    We need one combined ratio for Amal, Badr, and Camil. Amal:Badr = 3:4. Badr:Camil = 2:5. Make Badr’s parts match. In the first ratio, Badr has 4 parts. In the second, Badr has 2 parts, so multiply the second ratio by 2: Badr:Camil = 4:10. Therefore Amal:Badr:Camil = 3:4:10. Camil receives 10 parts and Amal receives 3 parts, so the difference is 7 parts. This difference equals 140 riyals, so 1 part = 140 ÷ 7 = 20 riyals. Total parts = 3 + 4 + 10 = 17, so the total budget is 17 × 20 = 340 riyals. Check: Amal = 60, Badr = 80, Camil = 200; Camil − Amal = 140. A likely mistake is to join the ratios as 3:4:5 without making Badr’s value consistent.

  11. 11. A workshop receives parts from two machines. Machine A produces 3/5 of all parts and has a defect rate of 4%. Machine B produces the rest and has a defect rate of 7%. If 78 defective parts are expected in total, how many parts are produced altogether?

    • A. 1200 parts
    • B. 1400 parts
    • C. 1500 parts
    • D. 1800 parts
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Machine A produces 3/5 = 60% of all parts. Machine B produces the remaining 40%. The overall defect rate is a weighted average: from Machine A, 60% × 4% = 0.60 × 0.04 = 0.024 = 2.4% of all parts. From Machine B, 40% × 7% = 0.40 × 0.07 = 0.028 = 2.8% of all parts. Total defect rate = 2.4% + 2.8% = 5.2%. If 78 parts are 5.2% of the total, then total parts = 78 ÷ 0.052 = 1500. Check: Machine A makes 900 parts, with 36 defects; Machine B makes 600 parts, with 42 defects; 36 + 42 = 78. A likely mistake is to average 4% and 7% as 5.5%, ignoring that the machines produce different amounts.

  12. 12. Tank A and Tank B initially contain water in the ratio 7:5. Then 20% of the water in Tank A is transferred to Tank B. After that, 10 liters of water are added to Tank A. The final ratio of water in Tank A to water in Tank B is 3:2. How many liters of water were in the two tanks altogether at the start?

    • A. 24 liters
    • B. 30 liters
    • C. 36 liters
    • D. 40 liters
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Let the initial amounts be A = 7x and B = 5x. Transferring 20% of Tank A means moving 0.20 × 7x = 1.4x from A to B. After the transfer, Tank A has 7x − 1.4x = 5.6x, and Tank B has 5x + 1.4x = 6.4x. Then 10 liters are added to Tank A, so the final amounts are A = 5.6x + 10 and B = 6.4x. The final ratio is 3:2, so (5.6x + 10) ÷ 6.4x = 3 ÷ 2. Cross-multiply: 2(5.6x + 10) = 3(6.4x), so 11.2x + 20 = 19.2x. Thus 20 = 8x, so x = 2.5. The initial total is 7x + 5x = 12x = 12 × 2.5 = 30 liters. Check: initially A = 17.5 and B = 12.5. Transfer 3.5 liters: A = 14, B = 16. Add 10 to A: A = 24, B = 16, giving 24:16 = 3:2. A likely mistake is to calculate 20% of the total water instead of 20% of Tank A only.

  13. 13. At a school event, 3 adult tickets and 5 student tickets cost SAR 205. Also, 2 adult tickets and 3 student tickets cost SAR 130. What is the cost of 4 adult tickets and 2 student tickets?

    • A. SAR 160
    • B. SAR 180
    • C. SAR 190
    • D. SAR 220
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Let a be the price of one adult ticket and s be the price of one student ticket. The information gives 3a + 5s = 205 and 2a + 3s = 130. To eliminate a, multiply the first equation by 2: 6a + 10s = 410. Multiply the second equation by 3: 6a + 9s = 390. Subtracting gives s = 20. Substitute into 2a + 3s = 130: 2a + 60 = 130, so 2a = 70 and a = 35. The required cost is 4a + 2s = 4(35) + 2(20) = 140 + 40 = 180. Check: 3(35) + 5(20) = 205 and 2(35) + 3(20) = 130, so the prices fit. A likely mistake is to subtract the original equations directly and get a + 2s = 75, which is not enough to find the final cost.

  14. 14. A water container has 180 liters at the start. Water drains out at 12 liters per minute. After exactly 4 minutes, a pump starts adding water at 5 liters per minute while the drain continues. How many minutes after the start will the container have 70 liters left?

    • A. 8 6/7 minutes
    • B. 10 2/7 minutes
    • C. 12 6/7 minutes
    • D. 16 minutes
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    During the first 4 minutes, only draining happens, so the amount lost is 12 × 4 = 48 liters. The container then has 180 − 48 = 132 liters. After that, water leaves at 12 liters per minute and enters at 5 liters per minute, so the net loss is 12 − 5 = 7 liters per minute. To go from 132 liters to 70 liters, the container must lose 132 − 70 = 62 liters. At 7 liters per minute, this takes 62/7 = 8 6/7 minutes after the pump starts. Total time from the start is 4 + 8 6/7 = 12 6/7 minutes. Check: over 12 6/7 minutes the drain removes 154 2/7 liters, while the pump adds 44 2/7 liters, for a net loss of 110 liters; 180 − 110 = 70. A likely mistake is to use the 7-liter net rate from the beginning, forgetting that the pump starts only after 4 minutes.

  15. 15. The sum of three consecutive even integers plus twice the smallest integer is 206. What is the middle integer?

    • A. 40
    • B. 42
    • C. 44
    • D. 46
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Let the smallest even integer be x. Then the three consecutive even integers are x, x + 2, and x + 4. Their sum plus twice the smallest is x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + 2x = 5x + 6. Set this equal to 206: 5x + 6 = 206. Then 5x = 200, so x = 40. The middle integer is x + 2 = 42. Check: the integers are 40, 42, and 44; their sum is 126, and twice the smallest is 80; 126 + 80 = 206. A likely mistake is to answer 40 because it is the first value found, but the question asks for the middle integer.

  16. 16. A jacket is discounted by 15%. After the discount, a coupon deducts another SAR 18, and the customer pays SAR 152. What was the original tag price of the jacket?

    • A. SAR 170
    • B. SAR 182
    • C. SAR 200
    • D. SAR 218
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Let P be the original tag price. A 15% discount means the customer first pays 85% of the tag price, so the discounted price is 0.85P. Then the coupon subtracts SAR 18, giving 0.85P − 18 = 152. Add 18 to both sides: 0.85P = 170. Divide by 0.85: P = 170 ÷ 0.85 = 200. Check: 15% of 200 is 30, so the price after discount is 170; after the SAR 18 coupon, the payment is 152. A likely mistake is to subtract 15% from 152 instead of applying the discount to the original unknown price.

  17. 17. Pipe A can fill a tank in 6 hours. Pipe B can fill the same tank in 9 hours. A drain can empty the full tank in 18 hours. If the tank is empty and all three are opened together, how long will it take to fill the tank?

    • A. 3 hours
    • B. 4.5 hours
    • C. 6 hours
    • D. 9 hours
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Work with rates in tanks per hour. Pipe A fills 1/6 of the tank per hour, and Pipe B fills 1/9 of the tank per hour. The drain removes 1/18 of the tank per hour. The net filling rate is 1/6 + 1/9 − 1/18. Using denominator 18, this is 3/18 + 2/18 − 1/18 = 4/18 = 2/9 of a tank per hour. Time equals total work divided by rate: 1 ÷ (2/9) = 9/2 = 4.5 hours. Check: in 4.5 hours, the net amount filled is (2/9)(4.5) = 1 full tank. A likely mistake is to add the drain rate instead of subtracting it.

  18. 18. A seller mixes 12 kg of almonds costing SAR 30 per kg with x kg of walnuts costing SAR 45 per kg. The mixture sells at an average cost of SAR 36 per kg. What is x?

    • A. 6 kg
    • B. 8 kg
    • C. 10 kg
    • D. 15 kg
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The total cost of the almonds is 12 × 30 = 360. The total cost of the walnuts is 45x. The total mass is 12 + x, and the average cost is 36, so (360 + 45x)/(12 + x) = 36. Multiply both sides by 12 + x: 360 + 45x = 36(12 + x) = 432 + 36x. Subtract 36x from both sides: 360 + 9x = 432. Subtract 360: 9x = 72, so x = 8. Check: total cost is 360 + 45(8) = 720 and total mass is 20 kg; 720 ÷ 20 = 36. A likely mistake is to average 30 and 45 directly to get 37.5, ignoring the different masses.

  19. 19. The length of a rectangle is 5 meters more than its width. Its area is 84 square meters. What is its perimeter?

    • A. 24 meters
    • B. 34 meters
    • C. 38 meters
    • D. 48 meters
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Let the width be w meters. Then the length is w + 5 meters. The area is w(w + 5) = 84, so w^2 + 5w − 84 = 0. Factor: w^2 + 5w − 84 = (w + 12)(w − 7). Thus w = 7 or w = −12. A negative width is impossible, so w = 7. The length is 12. The perimeter is 2(length + width) = 2(12 + 7) = 38 meters. Check: 7 × 12 = 84, and the length is 5 more than the width. A likely mistake is to stop at the dimensions and answer 12 or 7 instead of calculating the perimeter.

  20. 20. Three siblings share SAR 510 in savings. The ratio of Amal's share to Bader's share is 3:4. The ratio of Bader's share to Careem's share is 2:5. How much does Careem receive?

    • A. SAR 150
    • B. SAR 240
    • C. SAR 300
    • D. SAR 360
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    We need one consistent ratio for all three shares. Amal:Bader = 3:4. Also Bader:Careem = 2:5. To make Bader's number match, rewrite Bader:Careem by multiplying both parts by 2, giving 4:10. Now Amal:Bader:Careem = 3:4:10. The total number of parts is 3 + 4 + 10 = 17. Since the total is SAR 510, each part is 510 ÷ 17 = 30. Careem receives 10 parts, so Careem's share is 10 × 30 = 300. Check: Amal gets 90 and Bader gets 120, so Amal:Bader = 90:120 = 3:4; Bader:Careem = 120:300 = 2:5. A likely mistake is to combine the ratios as 3:4:5, but that would not preserve Bader:Careem = 2:5.

  21. 21. A taxi fare consists of a fixed starting fee plus a constant charge per kilometer. An 8 km trip costs SAR 34, and a 13 km trip costs SAR 51.50. During a promotion, the company gives a 10% discount on the distance charge only, not on the starting fee. What is the fare for a 20 km trip during the promotion?

    • A. SAR 63
    • B. SAR 69
    • C. SAR 70
    • D. SAR 76
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Let f be the fixed starting fee and r be the charge per kilometer. The two fares give f + 8r = 34 and f + 13r = 51.50. Subtract the first equation from the second: 5r = 17.50, so r = 3.50. Substitute into f + 8r = 34: f + 28 = 34, so f = 6. For a 20 km trip, the distance charge before discount is 20 × 3.50 = 70. A 10% discount on the distance charge reduces it by 7, leaving 63. Add the starting fee: 63 + 6 = 69. Check: without promotion, the 20 km fare would be 6 + 70 = 76, and only the distance part is discounted. A likely mistake is to apply the 10% discount to the entire SAR 76, which would not follow the condition in the question.

  22. 22. A right trapezoid has parallel horizontal sides of lengths 18 m and 10 m. Their left endpoints are joined by a perpendicular side, and the perpendicular distance between the parallel sides is 6 m. If edging is placed along the whole boundary, how many meters of edging are needed?

    • A. 42 m
    • B. 44 m
    • C. 48 m
    • D. 50 m
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The two parallel sides differ by 18 − 10 = 8 m. Because the left endpoints are joined by the perpendicular side, the horizontal offset occurs on the slanted side. The perpendicular side equals the height, so it is 6 m. The slanted side forms a right triangle with horizontal leg 8 m and vertical leg 6 m. Its length is √(8² + 6²) = √(64 + 36) = √100 = 10 m. The perimeter is 18 + 10 + 6 + 10 = 44 m. Check: all four outer sides have been counted exactly once. A likely mistake is to add only the two bases and the height, forgetting the slanted side.

  23. 23. Choose the option that best completes the relationship: A PILOT follows a FLIGHT PLAN; a TEACHER follows a _____.

    • A. lesson plan
    • B. textbook
    • C. exam
    • D. notice board
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A flight plan guides a pilot’s intended route and actions during a flight. The matching idea for a teacher is not simply a book or classroom, but a planned guide for teaching. A teacher follows a lesson plan. “Textbook” is tempting because teachers may use it, but it is a resource, not the same kind of planned course of action. “Exam” measures learning rather than guiding instruction.

  24. 24. A rectangular metal plate is 16 cm long and 10 cm wide. A semicircle whose diameter is the 10 cm side is cut out from one end of the plate. Using π = 3.14, what is the area of the remaining metal?

    • A. 81.50 cm²
    • B. 120.75 cm²
    • C. 128.60 cm²
    • D. 152.15 cm²
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    First find the area of the rectangle: 16 × 10 = 160 cm². The semicircle has diameter 10 cm, so its radius is 5 cm. The area of the full circle would be 3.14 × 5² = 3.14 × 25 = 78.5 cm². The semicircle area is half of that: 78.5 ÷ 2 = 39.25 cm². Remaining area = 160 − 39.25 = 120.75 cm². Check: the answer must be less than 160 cm² but not by a full circle’s area. A likely mistake is using 10 cm as the radius instead of the diameter.

  25. 25. A quadrilateral has four interior angles measuring (3x + 10)°, (2x + 20)°, 90°, and (x + 60)°. What is the largest angle of the quadrilateral?

    • A. 80°
    • B. 90°
    • C. 100°
    • D. 120°
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    The interior angles of a quadrilateral sum to 360°. So (3x + 10) + (2x + 20) + 90 + (x + 60) = 360. Combine like terms: 6x + 180 = 360. Then 6x = 180, so x = 30. Now compute the angles: 3x + 10 = 100°, 2x + 20 = 80°, the given angle is 90°, and x + 60 = 90°. Two angles are 90°, but neither is the largest. The largest angle is 100°. Check: 100 + 80 + 90 + 90 = 360, so the values are consistent. A likely mistake is to stop at x = 30 and choose 30° instead of finding the requested angle.

  26. 26. On a scale drawing, 1 cm represents 4 m. A rectangular courtyard is drawn as 8 cm by 5 cm. A circular fountain in the courtyard is drawn with radius 1 cm. Using π = 3.14, what is the real area of the courtyard not occupied by the fountain?

    • A. 589.76 m²
    • B. 623.20 m²
    • C. 636.86 m²
    • D. 640.00 m²
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Convert the drawing dimensions to real dimensions. The rectangle is 8 × 4 = 32 m by 5 × 4 = 20 m, so its real area is 32 × 20 = 640 m². The fountain’s drawn radius is 1 cm, so its real radius is 1 × 4 = 4 m. Its area is 3.14 × 4² = 3.14 × 16 = 50.24 m². The remaining area is 640 − 50.24 = 589.76 m². Check: scaling lengths by 4 makes areas scale by 16, not by 4. A likely mistake is to subtract the drawing-circle area directly from the real courtyard area.

  27. 27. A rectangular tank has a base measuring 90 cm by 40 cm. A solid cube with edge length 30 cm is completely submerged in the water, and no water spills out. By how many centimeters does the water level rise?

    • A. 6 cm
    • B. 7.5 cm
    • C. 8.25 cm
    • D. 15 cm
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The cube displaces a volume of water equal to its own volume. The cube’s volume is 30³ = 30 × 30 × 30 = 27,000 cm³. The tank’s base area is 90 × 40 = 3,600 cm². Water-level rise = displaced volume ÷ base area = 27,000 ÷ 3,600 = 7.5 cm. Check: base area × rise = 3,600 × 7.5 = 27,000 cm³, matching the cube volume. A likely mistake is to divide by the tank perimeter instead of the base area.

  28. 28. At the same time of day, a 3 m pole casts a 4.5 m shadow. A building’s roof casts a shadow reaching 27 m from its base, while the top of an antenna on the roof casts a shadow reaching 30.75 m from the same base. How tall is the antenna?

    • A. 2.25 m
    • B. 2.5 m
    • C. 3 m
    • D. 20.5 m
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The height-to-shadow ratio is the same for vertical objects at the same time of day. For the pole, the ratio is 3 ÷ 4.5 = 2/3. The building height is therefore (2/3) × 27 = 18 m. The total height up to the antenna top is (2/3) × 30.75 = 20.5 m. So the antenna height is 20.5 − 18 = 2.5 m. Check: the antenna adds 30.75 − 27 = 3.75 m of shadow, and (2/3) × 3.75 = 2.5 m. A likely mistake is to report the total height, 20.5 m, instead of the antenna height.

  29. 29. An L-shaped plot has vertices, in order, at (0,0), (12,0), (12,5), (7,5), (7,9), and (0,9), where each unit represents 1 meter. A 2 m gate is left unfenced along one side. How many meters of fence are needed?

    • A. 38 m
    • B. 40 m
    • C. 42 m
    • D. 44 m
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Find the length of each outer side. From (0,0) to (12,0) is 12 m. From (12,0) to (12,5) is 5 m. From (12,5) to (7,5) is 5 m. From (7,5) to (7,9) is 4 m. From (7,9) to (0,9) is 7 m. From (0,9) back to (0,0) is 9 m. The full perimeter is 12 + 5 + 5 + 4 + 7 + 9 = 42 m. Since a 2 m gate is not fenced, fence needed = 42 − 2 = 40 m. Check: the two sides around the inward corner are still part of the outer boundary. A likely mistake is to treat the shape as a 12 by 9 rectangle and ignore the notch.

  30. 30. A pattern is made from unit squares, then enlarged so that each unit square has side length 3 cm. The first figures are: Figure 1: ■ Figure 2: ■■ ■ Figure 3: ■■■ ■■ ■ Figure 4: ■■■■ ■■■ ■■ ■ Following this rule, what is the perimeter of Figure 7 after enlargement?

    • A. 56 cm
    • B. 72 cm
    • C. 84 cm
    • D. 96 cm
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Figure n has rows of n, n − 1, n − 2, and so on down to 1 square, all aligned on the left. Count only the outside boundary. The top edge contributes n unit sides, and the left edge contributes n unit sides. From the top-right corner down to the bottom-left, the staircase boundary consists of n vertical unit sides and n horizontal unit sides: for example, it goes down once, then alternates left and down until the final bottom horizontal side is included. Thus the total perimeter in unit sides is n + n + n + n = 4n. For Figure 7, that is 4 × 7 = 28 unit sides. Each unit side is enlarged to 3 cm, so the perimeter is 28 × 3 = 84 cm. Check with small figures: Figure 1 has perimeter 4 unit sides, and Figure 2 has perimeter 8 unit sides, matching 4n. A likely mistake is to count the number of squares instead of the outside boundary.

  31. 31. A rhombus has diagonals of lengths 24 cm and 10 cm. The diagonals intersect at right angles and bisect each other. What is the perimeter of the rhombus?

    • A. 48 cm
    • B. 50 cm
    • C. 52 cm
    • D. 58 cm
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    The diagonals bisect each other, so half of the 24 cm diagonal is 12 cm and half of the 10 cm diagonal is 5 cm. These half-diagonals meet at a right angle, forming a right triangle whose hypotenuse is one side of the rhombus. The side length is √(12² + 5²) = √(144 + 25) = √169 = 13 cm. A rhombus has four equal sides, so the perimeter is 4 × 13 = 52 cm. Check: the 5-12-13 right triangle fits the half-diagonals. A likely mistake is to add the diagonals, getting 34, but diagonals are not the outer sides.

  32. 32. A cylindrical container has diameter 14 cm and height 10 cm. It is filled to 3/5 of its capacity, then all the water is poured into a rectangular container with base 22 cm by 7 cm. Using π = 22/7, what is the height of the water in the rectangular container?

    • A. 5 cm
    • B. 6 cm
    • C. 7.5 cm
    • D. 10 cm
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The cylinder’s radius is half the diameter: 14 ÷ 2 = 7 cm. Its full volume is πr²h = (22/7) × 7² × 10 = (22/7) × 49 × 10 = 1,540 cm³. It is filled to 3/5, so the water volume is (3/5) × 1,540 = 924 cm³. The rectangular container’s base area is 22 × 7 = 154 cm². Water height = volume ÷ base area = 924 ÷ 154 = 6 cm. Check: 154 × 6 = 924 cm³, the same water volume. A likely mistake is to use 14 cm as the radius, which would make the cylinder volume four times too large.

  33. 33. Which pair has the same relationship as the following pair? SCALPEL : SURGEON

    • A. chisel : sculptor
    • B. canvas : painter
    • C. court : judge
    • D. medicine : patient
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A scalpel is a specialized tool used by a surgeon. We need a pair in which the first item is a specialized tool used by the second person. “Chisel : sculptor” fits: a chisel is a tool a sculptor may use. “Canvas : painter” is tempting, but a canvas is mainly a surface or medium, not a tool like a scalpel. “Court : judge” gives a place and person, while “medicine : patient” gives treatment and receiver.

  34. 34. The table shows the number of visitors to a school library over five days. Sunday: 240 Monday: 180 Tuesday: 210 Wednesday: 270 Thursday: 300 What percentage of the five-day total visited on Wednesday and Thursday together?

    • A. 42.5%
    • B. 47.5%
    • C. 52.5%
    • D. 57%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    First find the five-day total: 240 + 180 + 210 + 270 + 300 = 1200 visitors. Wednesday and Thursday together had 270 + 300 = 570 visitors. The required percentage is 570 ÷ 1200 × 100 = 47.5%. A likely mistake is to divide 570 by only the two-day total, but the question asks for the percentage of the five-day total.

  35. 35. A practice test report lists three groups of students. Science track: 48 students, average score 76 Humanities track: 32 students, average score 82 Business track: 20 students, average score 70 What is the overall average score of all 100 students?

    • A. 76
    • B. 76.72
    • C. 77.2
    • D. 78
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Use a weighted average because the groups have different sizes. Science total points: 48 × 76 = 3648. Humanities total points: 32 × 82 = 2624. Business total points: 20 × 70 = 1400. Total points = 3648 + 2624 + 1400 = 7672. Total students = 48 + 32 + 20 = 100. Overall average = 7672 ÷ 100 = 76.72. A common error is to average 76, 82, and 70 directly, which ignores the different group sizes.

  36. 36. A stationery shop recorded the following sales for one week. Notebooks: 250 units sold, selling price 18 riyals each, cost 11 riyals each Calculators: 90 units sold, regular selling price 75 riyals each, cost 52 riyals each Backpacks: 60 units sold, selling price 120 riyals each, cost 82 riyals each Of the 90 calculators, 20 were sold with a discount of 10 riyals each. What was the shop’s total profit for the week?

    • A. 5,000 riyals
    • B. 5,700 riyals
    • C. 5,900 riyals
    • D. 6,800 riyals
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Calculate revenue and cost separately. Notebook revenue = 250 × 18 = 4500; notebook cost = 250 × 11 = 2750. Calculator revenue: 70 calculators at 75 gives 70 × 75 = 5250, and 20 discounted calculators at 65 gives 20 × 65 = 1300, so calculator revenue = 6550. Calculator cost = 90 × 52 = 4680. Backpack revenue = 60 × 120 = 7200; backpack cost = 60 × 82 = 4920. Total revenue = 4500 + 6550 + 7200 = 18250. Total cost = 2750 + 4680 + 4920 = 12350. Profit = 18250 − 12350 = 5900 riyals. A likely mistake is to apply the calculator discount to all 90 calculators instead of only 20.

  37. 37. Read the passage and answer the question. During a four-week recycling campaign, a school recorded the kilograms collected in three categories. In Week 1, students collected 120 kg of paper, 45 kg of plastic, and 35 kg of metal. In Week 2, they collected 135 kg of paper, 50 kg of plastic, and 40 kg of metal. In Week 3, they collected 150 kg of paper, 60 kg of plastic, and 42 kg of metal. In Week 4, they collected 140 kg of paper, 80 kg of plastic, and 38 kg of metal. The campaign report said that Week 4 had the greatest total collection and that plastic was the only category that increased every week. Which statement is best supported by the passage?

    • A. Week 4 exceeded Week 3 by 6 kg, mainly because plastic increased while paper and metal decreased.
    • B. Paper was the only category that increased every week.
    • C. Week 4 exceeded Week 1 by exactly 68 kg.
    • D. The total metal collected over the four weeks was greater than the total plastic collected.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Compute the weekly totals. Week 1 total = 120 + 45 + 35 = 200 kg. Week 2 total = 135 + 50 + 40 = 225 kg. Week 3 total = 150 + 60 + 42 = 252 kg. Week 4 total = 140 + 80 + 38 = 258 kg, so Week 4 is the greatest. From Week 3 to Week 4, plastic increased by 20 kg, while paper decreased by 10 kg and metal decreased by 4 kg. The net change is +20 − 10 − 4 = +6 kg. So Week 4 exceeded Week 3 by 6 kg mainly because of the plastic increase. A likely mistake is to notice that paper is largest in most weeks and assume it drove the final increase, but paper actually fell in Week 4.

  38. 38. A clerk records the cumulative number of packages prepared at the end of each day. The pattern is: Day 1: 6 Day 2: 9 Day 3: 15 Day 4: 24 Day 5: 30 Day 6: 33 Day 7: 39 Day 8: 48 Day 9: 54 The daily increases repeat in this order: +3, +6, +9, +6. If the same pattern continues, what will the cumulative number be at the end of Day 12?

    • A. 63
    • B. 66
    • C. 72
    • D. 75
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    Look at the stated repeating increases: +3, +6, +9, +6. From Day 9, the next increase is the first in the cycle, +3, so Day 10 = 54 + 3 = 57. Day 11 then adds +6, giving 57 + 6 = 63. Day 12 then adds +9, giving 63 + 9 = 72. A likely mistake is to keep adding 6 because several differences are 6, but the full four-step cycle must be followed.

  39. 39. A cafeteria recorded meals sold over three days. Sunday: rice 180, sandwiches 120, salads 60 Monday: rice 150, sandwiches 160, salads 70 Tuesday: rice 170, sandwiches 140, salads 90 On which day did sandwiches form the greatest fraction of that day’s total meals, and what was that fraction?

    • A. Sunday, 1/3
    • B. Monday, 8/19
    • C. Tuesday, 7/20
    • D. Monday, 4/15
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Find each day’s total and sandwich fraction. Sunday total = 180 + 120 + 60 = 360, so sandwich fraction = 120/360 = 1/3. Monday total = 150 + 160 + 70 = 380, so sandwich fraction = 160/380 = 8/19. Tuesday total = 170 + 140 + 90 = 400, so sandwich fraction = 140/400 = 7/20. Compare the values: 1/3 ≈ 0.333, 8/19 ≈ 0.421, and 7/20 = 0.35. The greatest is Monday, 8/19. A common error is to choose Tuesday because its total is largest, but the question asks for the fraction, not the total number of meals.

  40. 40. A survey of student travel times gave these results. Walk: 40 students, average 12 minutes Bus: 30 students, average 28 minutes Car: 10 students, average 18 minutes Then 20 cyclists were added to the survey. After including the cyclists, the average travel time for all 100 students became 19.5 minutes. What was the average travel time of the cyclists?

    • A. 18.5 minutes
    • B. 20 minutes
    • C. 22.5 minutes
    • D. 25 minutes
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: C
    First find the total travel minutes for the original 80 students. Walkers: 40 × 12 = 480 minutes. Bus students: 30 × 28 = 840 minutes. Car students: 10 × 18 = 180 minutes. Original total = 480 + 840 + 180 = 1500 minutes. After adding 20 cyclists, there are 100 students with average 19.5 minutes, so the new total is 100 × 19.5 = 1950 minutes. Cyclists’ total minutes = 1950 − 1500 = 450. Cyclists’ average = 450 ÷ 20 = 22.5 minutes. A likely mistake is to average the four group averages directly, but the cyclist average is unknown and the group sizes matter.

  41. 41. A teacher recorded test scores with the following frequency table. Score 60: 3 students Score 65: 4 students Score 70: 5 students Score 75: 6 students Score 80: 4 students Score 85: 2 students Later, one student with a score of 60 left the class, and one new student with a score of 90 joined. What is the new median score?

    • A. 72.5
    • B. 75
    • C. 77.5
    • D. 80
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    The total number of students remains 24 because one left and one joined. Update the frequencies: score 60 becomes 2 students; score 90 becomes 1 student; all other frequencies stay the same. For 24 students, the median is the average of the 12th and 13th ordered scores. Cumulative positions after the change: 60 covers positions 1–2; 65 covers 3–6; 70 covers 7–11; 75 covers 12–17. Therefore both the 12th and 13th scores are 75, so the new median is 75. A likely mistake is to average 60 and 90 because those are the changed scores, but the median depends on the middle positions after ordering all scores.

  42. 42. A water tank contained 1200 liters at 8:00 a.m. The following changes happened: 8:00–10:00: water was added at 150 liters per hour 10:00–11:00: 220 liters were used 11:00–1:00: water was added at 90 liters per hour, but a leak lost 30 liters per hour during the same period 1:00–2:00: 160 liters were drained How many liters were in the tank at 2:00 p.m.?

    • A. 1,180 liters
    • B. 1,240 liters
    • C. 1,300 liters
    • D. 1,400 liters
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Start with 1200 liters. From 8:00 to 10:00, 2 hours of adding 150 liters per hour gives 2 × 150 = 300 liters, so the tank reaches 1500 liters. From 10:00 to 11:00, 220 liters are used: 1500 − 220 = 1280. From 11:00 to 1:00, the net gain per hour is 90 − 30 = 60 liters. Over 2 hours, that is 2 × 60 = 120 liters, so the tank reaches 1400 liters. From 1:00 to 2:00, 160 liters are drained: 1400 − 160 = 1240 liters. A likely mistake is to add 90 liters per hour without subtracting the leak.

  43. 43. A student club’s budget last year was 240,000 riyals, divided as follows. Rent: 30% Salaries: 45% Supplies: 15% Events: 10% This year, rent increased by 10%, salaries stayed the same amount, supplies decreased by 20%, and events doubled. What fraction of this year’s total budget was spent on salaries?

    • A. 9/22
    • B. 45/100
    • C. 5/12
    • D. 11/24
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    First convert last year’s percentages into amounts. Rent = 30% of 240,000 = 72,000. Salaries = 45% of 240,000 = 108,000. Supplies = 15% of 240,000 = 36,000. Events = 10% of 240,000 = 24,000. Apply this year’s changes: rent becomes 72,000 × 1.10 = 79,200; salaries stay 108,000; supplies become 36,000 × 0.80 = 28,800; events become 24,000 × 2 = 48,000. This year’s total = 79,200 + 108,000 + 28,800 + 48,000 = 264,000. Salary fraction = 108,000/264,000 = 108/264 = 9/22. A likely mistake is to keep salaries at 45%, but the total budget changed.

  44. 44. PREFACE is to BOOK as OVERTURE is to _____.

    • A. opera
    • B. chapter
    • C. library
    • D. author
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A preface comes before the main text of a book and introduces or prepares for it. An overture is an introductory musical piece that comes before a larger staged musical work. Therefore, the best parallel is “opera.” A common mistake is “chapter,” because a preface appears near chapters, but an overture is not a section of a chapter-like item; it introduces the larger performance.

  45. 45. CAMOUFLAGE is to DETECTION as INSULATION is to _____.

    • A. heat loss
    • B. warmth
    • C. blanket
    • D. temperature
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Camouflage is used to prevent or reduce detection. Now find what insulation prevents or reduces. Insulation reduces heat loss or unwanted heat transfer. The closest answer is “heat loss.” A likely mistake is “warmth,” because insulation may keep something warm, but it does so by reducing heat loss; the relationship asks for what is prevented, not what is preserved.

  46. 46. ARCHIVE is to RECORDS as RESERVOIR is to _____.

    • A. water
    • B. dam
    • C. river
    • D. shore
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    An archive is a place where records are stored and preserved. A reservoir is a place where water is stored. So the answer must be “water.” A tempting error is “dam,” because dams may create reservoirs, but a dam is not what a reservoir stores. Another error is “river,” which may feed a reservoir but is not the stored contents in the same direct way.

  47. 47. CONCISE is to WORDY as CANDID is to _____.

    • A. evasive
    • B. brief
    • C. frank
    • D. curious
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Concise and wordy are opposites: concise means expressed in few words, while wordy means using too many words. Therefore, candid should be paired with its opposite. Candid means honest or direct, so the opposite is “evasive.” A likely mistake is “brief,” because brief is related to concise, not to candid. Another mistake is “frank,” which is a synonym of candid, not an opposite.

  48. 48. Read the passage, then answer the question. In a coastal town, many families once repaired fishing nets by hand. When a new machine arrived, some residents expected the craft to disappear. Instead, the workshop owner trained older net-makers to inspect the machine’s output and fix unusual tears that the machine could not recognize. Younger workers learned to operate the machine and record common faults. Within a year, the town produced more nets, but the most respected workers were still the ones who understood knots, currents, and fish behavior. The machine changed the routine work, yet it increased the value of judgment learned through experience. According to the passage, what is the relationship between the machine and the experienced net-makers?

    • A. They complement each other: the machine handles routine work, while experienced workers solve unusual problems.
    • B. The machine fully replaces experienced workers because it performs every task better.
    • C. The experienced workers reject the machine and continue only with hand repair.
    • D. The machine makes knowledge of knots, currents, and fish behavior irrelevant.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The passage says some people expected the craft to disappear, but that did not happen. The older net-makers inspected the machine’s output and repaired unusual tears the machine could not recognize. The final sentence states that the machine changed routine work while increasing the value of experienced judgment. So the machine and experienced net-makers are complementary: the machine handles routine production, while people provide judgment for difficult cases. A likely mistake is to say the machine replaced them completely, but the passage explicitly says the most respected workers still used their experience.

  49. 49. Complete the pattern by following the same verbal relationship: scribe → manuscript composer → symphony architect → blueprint cartographer → _____

    • A. map
    • B. compass
    • C. voyage
    • D. mountain
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Each pair connects a creator or specialist with the kind of product or representation that person makes. A scribe produces or copies a manuscript; a composer creates a symphony; an architect creates a blueprint. A cartographer makes a map. “Compass” is tempting because cartographers may use one, but the pattern asks for the product, not the tool. “Voyage” is an activity, and “mountain” may appear on a map but is not produced by the cartographer.

  50. 50. Choose the word that completes the analogy: FILTER is to IMPURITIES as EDITOR is to _____.

    • A. errors
    • B. writer
    • C. paper
    • D. ink
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    A filter removes impurities from a liquid, air flow, or similar mixture. Apply the same relationship to an editor: an editor removes or corrects errors from writing. Therefore, the best answer is “errors.” “Writer” is tempting because an editor works with writers, but that is not the removed item. “Paper” is the medium, and “ink” is part of writing materials, not the flaw being removed.

  51. 51. Passage: At a public library, staff debated whether to keep the building open until midnight during exams. A survey of 200 university students found that most preferred later hours. However, the library’s gate records showed a different pattern: visits by students increased sharply from 7 p.m. to 10 p.m., then fell quickly after 10:30 p.m. The records also showed that younger pupils, who were not included in the survey, used the library mainly between 4 p.m. and 6 p.m. The manager finally extended the closing time by one hour, not three, and added more staff in the late afternoon. Question: Which conclusion is best supported by the passage?

    • A. The manager balanced survey opinions with attendance records because the survey covered only part of the library’s users.
    • B. The manager rejected all requests for later hours because students stopped visiting after 7 p.m.
    • C. The survey proved that younger pupils preferred to study after 10:30 p.m.
    • D. The library extended closing by three hours because most visitors arrived near midnight.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The survey favored later hours, but it represented only university students. The gate records gave wider evidence about actual use and showed two important patterns: student use dropped after 10:30 p.m., while younger pupils used the library in the late afternoon. The manager’s decision combined both pieces of evidence: a small evening extension plus more late-afternoon staffing. Therefore, the best conclusion is that the manager did not rely on the survey alone because it missed some users and did not fully match actual attendance. A likely mistake is to say the survey was useless; the passage says it influenced the one-hour extension, but it was incomplete.

  52. 52. Passage: A coastal town began restoring a strip of mangroves beside its harbor. Some shop owners complained that the young trees blocked the sea view from their cafés. The project leader replied that the first year would look untidy, but the trees would later reduce wave damage, trap litter before it reached fishing areas, and attract birds that tourists liked to photograph. She also noted that the town had spent heavily repairing the same walkway after two winter storms. The council voted to continue the restoration but required clearer signs explaining its purpose. Question: What is the central idea of the passage?

    • A. A restoration project with short-term drawbacks can be continued when its long-term benefits are clearly explained.
    • B. The town ended the mangrove project because shop owners opposed losing the sea view.
    • C. The main purpose of mangroves is to replace cafés with bird-watching platforms.
    • D. The council decided that signs were more important than protecting the harbor from storms.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The passage presents a disagreement: shop owners dislike the short-term appearance, while the project leader argues for longer-term protection and environmental benefits. The council continues the project but asks for signs, showing it accepts the project’s purpose while recognizing public misunderstanding. The central idea is not merely that cafés lost a view or that signs are decorative. It is that an unpopular-looking restoration may have practical benefits that need to be explained. A likely mistake is to focus only on tourism, but tourism is just one of several benefits mentioned.

  53. 53. Passage: Lina packed boxes for a school book sale. Each box held either novels or science books, never both. The novels were light, so she put 18 in each novel box. The science books were heavier, so she put 12 in each science box. By noon she had filled 5 boxes and packed 78 books altogether. Her friend guessed that most of the boxes must contain novels because 78 is closer to 90, the number in five full novel boxes, than to 60, the number in five full science boxes. Lina said the exact mixture could be found without guessing. Question: How many of the 5 boxes contained novels?

    • A. 2
    • B. 3
    • C. 5
    • D. 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: B
    Let the number of novel boxes be n. Then the number of science boxes is 5 - n. Novel boxes hold 18 books each, and science boxes hold 12 books each, so the total is 18n + 12(5 - n). This equals 78. Simplify: 18n + 60 - 12n = 78, so 6n + 60 = 78. Subtract 60: 6n = 18. Divide by 6: n = 3. Check: 3 novel boxes hold 54 books, and 2 science boxes hold 24 books; 54 + 24 = 78. The friend’s closeness idea is not exact reasoning.

  54. 54. Passage: A teacher asked two groups to revise the same article. Group One corrected spelling mistakes first and then discussed the article’s argument. Group Two discussed the argument first and corrected spelling only at the end. Both groups found the same number of spelling mistakes, but Group Two suggested more improvements to the order of ideas. When asked why, one student said, “Once we fixed the small errors, we felt the article was nearly finished.” The teacher concluded that the order of revision can influence what students notice, even when the final task list is the same. Question: Which statement best expresses the teacher’s conclusion?

    • A. Starting with surface errors may make students less likely to notice deeper problems in organization.
    • B. Correcting spelling at the end causes students to miss spelling mistakes.
    • C. Students should never correct spelling when revising an article.
    • D. Group One suggested more improvements to the order of ideas than Group Two did.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Both groups had the same tasks and found the same spelling errors, so the difference was not spelling ability. The key difference was the order: Group One handled small errors first and then treated the article as almost finished; Group Two examined the argument first and suggested more structural changes. Therefore, the teacher concluded that task order affects attention. A likely mistake is to claim Group Two was simply better, but the passage does not say the groups differed in ability.

  55. 55. Passage: The old market clock had stopped at 6:15 for months, yet people still arranged to meet “under the clock.” A visitor found this strange and asked a fruit seller why no one repaired it. The seller laughed and said, “If it worked, people would check the time and hurry away. Now they stand here, compare watches, ask questions, and often buy something while waiting.” Later, the visitor noticed that the clock was painted freshly and surrounded by benches, although its hands had not moved. Question: What can be inferred about the market clock?

    • A. It is deliberately kept useful as a landmark even though it no longer tells the correct time.
    • B. It was removed because visitors complained that it confused them.
    • C. It is ignored by sellers because it has no effect on the market.
    • D. It was repaired after the visitor asked the fruit seller about it.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The clock is broken, but people still use it as a meeting place. The fruit seller explains that its broken state keeps people nearby, talking and sometimes buying. The fresh paint and benches show that the market maintains the clock as a landmark, even without repairing its timekeeping function. Thus, the clock’s value is social and commercial rather than practical as a clock. A likely mistake is to infer neglect, but fresh paint and benches show attention, not neglect.

  56. 56. Passage: A school introduced a “quiet corridor” rule near the examination rooms. Posters asked students to lower their voices, and monitors reminded them politely. During the first week, complaints from examinees fell, but teachers noticed that students began crowding at the corridor entrance to finish conversations before entering. This caused delays and blocked the staircase. In the second week, the school added a small discussion area away from the exam rooms. The corridor became clear, and complaints remained low. Question: Why was the discussion area added?

    • A. To solve the crowding caused by the quiet rule while keeping noise away from examination rooms.
    • B. To encourage students to speak inside the examination rooms before the test began.
    • C. To remove the need for monitors and posters throughout the school.
    • D. To make the staircase a regular meeting place for students.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The quiet corridor reduced noise complaints, so the original rule partly worked. However, it created a new problem: students gathered at the entrance to finish conversations, causing delays and blocking the staircase. The discussion area gave students another place to talk away from exam rooms. The result confirms the reason: the corridor cleared while complaints stayed low. A likely mistake is to say the discussion area replaced the quiet rule; the passage says complaints remained low, meaning the quiet purpose continued.

  57. 57. Passage: Nasser read a review of a new phone application that organizes homework deadlines. The reviewer praised its clean design and fast reminders but warned that it “rewards neatness more than judgment.” The app placed every task on a calendar, yet it could not tell whether a short worksheet was less important than preparing for a difficult presentation. Students who simply followed the order of notifications sometimes spent an hour polishing easy work while leaving complex tasks until late at night. Question: In the passage, what does the phrase “rewards neatness more than judgment” mean?

    • A. The app helps students arrange tasks neatly but does not help them decide which tasks deserve priority.
    • B. The app refuses to record homework unless the student’s handwriting is neat.
    • C. The app is difficult to use because its design is messy and its reminders are slow.
    • D. The app automatically completes the hardest homework before the easiest homework.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The phrase is explained by the sentences that follow it. The app neatly places tasks on a calendar and sends reminders, but it cannot judge importance or difficulty. Students who follow the notifications may work in a tidy order without making wise priorities. Therefore, the phrase means the app supports organization better than decision-making. A likely mistake is to think the app is described as slow or ugly, but the review praises its clean design and fast reminders.

  58. 58. Passage: In a debate club, Mariam argued that short speeches are not always simpler than long ones. She compared a two-minute speech to a small suitcase: it forces the speaker to choose carefully. A longer speech, she said, can hide weak points among examples, jokes, and repeated ideas. To test this, the club asked members to explain the same topic twice, once in eight minutes and once in two. Most members found the shorter version harder because they had to decide what to leave out. Question: Which idea would Mariam most likely agree with?

    • A. A brief speech can be difficult because it requires careful selection of the most important points.
    • B. A long speech is always clearer because it includes jokes and repeated ideas.
    • C. Speakers should avoid planning short speeches because planning makes them longer.
    • D. The club found the eight-minute version harder because members had nothing to say.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    Mariam’s comparison shows that limited space or time forces careful selection. The club test supports her view: most members found the two-minute speech harder because they had to decide what to omit. So she would agree that a short speech can require more careful planning than a longer one. A likely mistake is to assume shorter always means easier; the passage directly challenges that assumption.

  59. 59. Passage: A neighborhood planted shade trees along one side of a walking path. In the first summer, walkers still preferred the opposite side in the morning but shifted to the planted side after noon. A committee member claimed the trees had failed because they did not attract walkers all day. Another member disagreed, pointing out that the sun struck the two sides differently: the new trees shaded the path mainly in the afternoon, when the heat was strongest. The committee decided to plant a second row on the other side the next year. Question: Which evaluation of the tree project is most reasonable?

    • A. The project was partly successful because the trees provided useful afternoon shade, but another row was needed for fuller coverage.
    • B. The project completely failed because no walkers ever used the planted side of the path.
    • C. The project was unnecessary because the sun struck both sides in exactly the same way all day.
    • D. The trees attracted walkers in the morning only, so the committee removed them.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The first committee member judges success too broadly, expecting walkers all day. The second member uses the sun pattern to interpret the behavior: walkers shift to the planted side after noon because that is when the shade matters most. The decision to plant a second row suggests the first row helped but did not solve the whole-day shade problem. Therefore, the most reasonable evaluation is partial success with a need for expansion. A likely mistake is to call it a total failure, but afternoon use increased on the planted side.

  60. 60. Passage: A museum guide described a display of ancient cooking pots. She warned visitors not to imagine that every pot in the case had been used by wealthy families. Some were carefully decorated, but others were plain and repaired many times. The repairs, she explained, were especially important: a cracked pot would not have been mended repeatedly unless it remained useful to someone. The guide said the plain pots helped historians understand ordinary meals better than rare golden bowls, which were often made for display rather than daily use. Question: Why does the guide emphasize the repaired plain pots?

    • A. Because their repeated repairs suggest everyday use, making them valuable evidence about ordinary meals.
    • B. Because they prove that all ancient families owned golden bowls for daily cooking.
    • C. Because plain pots were never useful after they cracked the first time.
    • D. Because decorated pots were the only objects historians used to study ordinary meals.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: A
    The guide contrasts decorated or golden objects with plain, repaired pots. Repeated repairs show that the pots stayed useful in daily life. Because the guide wants visitors to understand ordinary meals, these practical objects provide stronger evidence than rare display pieces. Therefore, she emphasizes the repaired plain pots because they reveal everyday use. A likely mistake is to think expensive objects are always more informative; the passage says golden bowls were often for display, not daily meals.

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How to review mistakes and use this practice

After each question, read the explanation before moving on, even when you guessed correctly. Label the error: concept, calculation, reading, or time pressure. A concept error means you should revisit the guide; a memory or formula error is a good reason to review the cheat sheet. For percentages, check that the part, base, and percent are in the right places: a percent proportion compares amount divided by base with percent divided by 100. In geometry, write known angle facts on the page: a right angle is 90 degrees, a triangle’s interior angles sum to 180 degrees, and a quadrilateral’s interior angles sum to 360 degrees.

Practise in short sets. For example, answer 10 questions from one topic, review every explanation, then redo only the missed topic two days later. For data interpretation, describe the table or graph in one sentence before calculating. For verbal relationships, state the relationship in your own words before looking at the options. For reading comprehension, underline the sentence that proves your answer; if no sentence supports it, the option may be too broad or unsupported. The Academic Achievement Test for Scientific Tracks is separate from GAT, so keep this practice focused on aptitude skills rather than memorising science-course content.

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Frequently asked questions

Is this an official Qiyas GAT mock test?

No. It is an original practice bank for skill building, not an official mock test, exam dump, or set of actual test questions.

How many questions are in the practice bank?

The bank has 60 original multiple-choice questions, with 10 questions in each of the six listed topics.

Who is the Saudi Arabia Qiyas GAT designed for?

It serves high-school graduates from all tracks who are seeking admission to higher education.

Should I practise all topics equally?

Equal topic practice is a useful starting plan here, but the allocations on this page are study choices, not official section weights.

Is the Academic Achievement Test the same as GAT?

No. The Academic Achievement Test for Scientific Tracks is separate from GAT and focuses on academic attainment in natural and applied sciences.