FE Civil Practice Exam.
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1. A batch of concrete cylinders has a mean 28-day compressive strength of 32 MPa with a standard deviation of 2 MPa. Assuming a normal distribution, what is the z-score for a cylinder that tests at 28 MPa?
- A. -0.5
- B. -4
- C. -2
- D. 2
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Answer: C
A z-score measures how many standard deviations a value lies from the mean, computed as (value minus mean) divided by the standard deviation. Here (28 - 32) / 2 = -2. Dropping the negative sign, using the raw difference without dividing by the standard deviation, or inverting the ratio between the difference and the standard deviation all produce numbers that don't correctly express the cylinder's position relative to the distribution.2. Two support reactions satisfy the equilibrium equations R1 + R2 = 20 kN and 2R1 - R2 = 4 kN. What is the value of R1?
- A. 10 kN
- B. 6 kN
- C. 12 kN
- D. 8 kN
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Answer: D
Adding the two equations eliminates R2: (R1 + R2) + (2R1 - R2) = 20 + 4, which gives 3R1 = 24, so R1 = 8 kN. Confusing R1 with the resulting value of R2, simply averaging the two given totals, or making a sign error while combining the equations produces a value that does not actually satisfy both original equilibrium equations simultaneously.3. Using one iteration of the Newton-Raphson method to find a root of f(x) = x^2 - 7, starting at x0 = 3 and using f'(x) = 2x, what is x1?
- A. 3.00
- B. 3.33
- C. 2.00
- D. 2.67
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Answer: D
Newton-Raphson updates the estimate as x1 = x0 - f(x0)/f'(x0). Here f(3) = 9 - 7 = 2 and f'(3) = 6, so x1 = 3 - 2/6 = 2.67. Adding the correction term instead of subtracting it, using an incorrect value for the function or its derivative, or simply leaving the estimate unchanged all fail to move the estimate toward the actual root of the function.4. A licensed engineer discovers that a colleague's retaining wall design does not adequately account for surcharge loads, creating a risk to public safety. What is the engineer's primary obligation in this situation?
- A. Report the safety concern through appropriate professional or regulatory channels, since protecting public health and safety is the engineer's paramount duty
- B. Wait until the wall shows visible signs of failure before taking any action
- C. Mention the concern informally to friends but take no formal action
- D. Ignore the issue because it is not the engineer's own project
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Answer: A
Engineering codes of ethics consistently place protection of public health, safety, and welfare above loyalty to a colleague or client. When a design flaw poses a genuine safety risk, the engineer is obligated to raise the concern through proper channels so it can be evaluated and corrected. Staying silent, delaying until harm actually occurs, or only discussing the matter casually all fail to act on the duty to safeguard the public that the discovery of the flaw creates.5. An engineer providing design services for a municipal bridge project is offered a paid consulting role by a materials supplier that is bidding on the same project. What is the most appropriate ethical action?
- A. Accept the role but mention it only if a client happens to ask directly
- B. Decline the client relationship entirely rather than disclosing anything about the offer
- C. Accept the consulting role quietly, believing it will not affect professional judgment
- D. Disclose the potential conflict of interest to the client and recuse from decisions involving that supplier
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Answer: D
A situation where an engineer could personally benefit from a party involved in the same project creates a conflict of interest that must be disclosed proactively, not hidden or revealed only when asked. Full disclosure, combined with stepping back from decisions affecting that supplier, allows the client to make an informed judgment and preserves the engineer's independence. Quietly accepting the arrangement or waiting to be asked both leave the client unable to evaluate the engineer's impartiality.6. A structural engineer is asked to certify a specialized geotechnical seismic analysis that falls outside their area of training and experience. What should the engineer do?
- A. Sign the certification anyway, since a license permits sealing any civil engineering work
- B. Delegate the entire analysis to a junior drafter without independent technical review
- C. Decline to sign the certification unless a qualified specialist is engaged or the necessary competence is obtained
- D. Estimate the results using general engineering judgment and certify without further study
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Answer: C
Ethical practice requires engineers to work only within their area of competence, or to bring in qualified expertise when a task falls outside it, before putting their name and seal on the results. Signing off on unfamiliar specialized work, handing it to an unsupervised junior with no technical oversight, or relying on rough judgment instead of proper analysis all risk certifying conclusions the engineer cannot actually stand behind.7. What is the present worth of a single future payment of $10,000 to be received in 5 years, at an annual interest rate of 8% compounded annually?
- A. $6,806
- B. $8,000
- C. $10,800
- D. $14,693
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Answer: A
Present worth of a single future sum is found by discounting it back using P = F / (1+i)^n. With F = $10,000, i = 8%, and n = 5, this gives 10,000 / 1.4693 ≈ $6,806. Applying the compounding factor forward instead of discounting it backward, using simple interest instead of compound interest, or adding only a single year of interest all produce values that don't correctly reflect the time value of money over the full five-year horizon.8. A contractor can buy a paving machine for $80,000 that will generate net savings of $20,000 per year for 5 years, with no salvage value. What is the approximate simple payback period?
- A. 4 years
- B. 2 years
- C. 5 years
- D. 3 years
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Answer: A
The simple payback period is the initial investment divided by the annual net savings: 80,000 / 20,000 = 4 years. Confusing the payback period with the full useful life of the machine, rounding down without doing the actual division, or otherwise misapplying the ratio between cost and annual savings all give a period that does not correctly reflect when the cumulative savings actually recover the initial cost.9. Equipment purchased for $120,000 has an estimated useful life of 8 years and a salvage value of $16,000. Using straight-line depreciation, what is the annual depreciation charge?
- A. $17,333
- B. $13,000
- C. $15,000
- D. $10,400
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Answer: B
Straight-line depreciation spreads the depreciable value, which is the purchase cost minus salvage value, evenly over the useful life: (120,000 - 16,000) / 8 = 13,000 per year. Ignoring the salvage value and dividing the full purchase price by the life, or dividing by an incorrect number of years, both distort the depreciable base or the recovery period and yield an annual charge that does not match the asset's actual value decline.10. A 6 m long floor beam rests on two simple supports and carries a single 12 kN point load positioned 2 m in from the left end. What is the resulting reaction force at the right support?
- A. 8 kN
- B. 4 kN
- C. 6 kN
- D. 3 kN
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Answer: B
Taking moments about the left support, the right-support reaction times the 6 m span must balance the load times its 2 m distance from the left support: R_right × 6 = 12 × 2, giving R_right = 4 kN. Assigning the value that actually belongs to the left support, using half the total load, or dividing by an incorrect span length all fail to satisfy the moment equilibrium equation about either support.11. A surveyor's total station is dropped from a height of 20 m above the ground with zero initial velocity. Neglecting air resistance and using g = 9.81 m/s^2, how long does it take to hit the ground?
- A. 1.43 s
- B. 1.02 s
- C. 4.08 s
- D. 2.02 s
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Answer: D
For free fall from rest, the fall time is found from h = 0.5gt^2, rearranged as t = √(2h/g) = √(40/9.81) ≈ 2.02 s. Omitting the square root and using 2h/g directly, or taking the square root of h/g instead of 2h/g, both produce a time that does not correctly satisfy the constant-acceleration kinematics equation governing the fall.12. A 1500 kg construction elevator accelerates upward from rest at 1.2 m/s^2. Using g = 9.81 m/s^2, what is the tension in the supporting cable?
- A. 12,915 N
- B. 14,715 N
- C. 1,800 N
- D. 16,515 N
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Answer: D
For an elevator accelerating upward, Newton's second law gives cable tension T = m(g + a), since the cable must support the weight and also provide the net upward force: 1500 × (9.81 + 1.2) = 16,515 N. Accounting only for the static weight while ignoring the acceleration, accounting only for the accelerating force while ignoring gravity, or subtracting the acceleration term instead of adding it all understate the true tension the cable must carry.13. A pile driver hammer with a mass of 800 kg falls freely from a height of 3 m onto a pile head. Using energy methods and g = 9.81 m/s^2, what is the hammer's velocity just before impact?
- A. 3.83 m/s
- B. 5.42 m/s
- C. 7.67 m/s
- D. 58.86 m/s
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Answer: C
Conservation of energy for free fall gives the impact velocity as v = √(2gh) = √(2 × 9.81 × 3) ≈ 7.67 m/s. Forgetting to take the square root of the energy expression, taking the square root of only gh instead of 2gh, or simply halving the correct value all fail to correctly convert the potential energy lost during the fall into the kinetic energy the hammer actually gains.14. A steel rod with a cross-sectional area of 500 mm^2 carries an axial tensile load of 100 kN. What is the normal stress in the rod?
- A. 200 MPa
- B. 20 MPa
- C. 50 MPa
- D. 2,000 MPa
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Answer: A
Normal stress equals axial force divided by cross-sectional area. Converting 100 kN to 100,000 N and dividing by 500 mm^2 gives 200 N/mm^2, which is 200 MPa. Shifting a decimal place in either direction, or dividing by an incorrect area value, changes the result by a factor of ten or more and no longer reflects the actual force spread over the rod's true cross section.15. A steel bar 2 m long with a cross-sectional area of 300 mm^2 and modulus of elasticity of 200 GPa is subjected to an axial tensile force of 60 kN. What is the elongation of the bar?
- A. 2 mm
- B. 4 mm
- C. 20 mm
- D. 0.2 mm
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Answer: A
Axial elongation is given by δ = PL / (AE). Converting to consistent units, δ = (60,000 N × 2 m) / (300×10^-6 m^2 × 200×10^9 Pa) = 0.002 m, or 2 mm. Shifting a decimal place from an area or modulus unit-conversion slip, or doubling the result by forgetting the bar is only 2 m long rather than 4 m, both produce an elongation that does not match the actual load, geometry, and stiffness of the bar.16. A rectangular beam cross-section is 200 mm wide and 400 mm deep and is subjected to a bending moment of 80 kN·m. Using the section modulus S = bh^2/6, what is the maximum bending stress?
- A. 30 MPa
- B. 22.5 MPa
- C. 7.5 MPa
- D. 15 MPa
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Answer: D
The section modulus is S = (200)(400)^2/6 ≈ 5.33×10^6 mm^3, and maximum bending stress equals moment divided by section modulus: (80×10^6 N·mm) / (5.33×10^6 mm^3) = 15 MPa. Using bh^2/3 instead of bh^2/6 halves the true denominator and doubles the stress, while using bh^2/12 doubles the denominator and halves the stress; both misapply the correct section modulus formula for a rectangular section.17. A test specimen has an applied stress of 150 MPa producing a strain of 0.00075 within the elastic range. What is the modulus of elasticity of the material?
- A. 2,000 GPa
- B. 200 GPa
- C. 20 GPa
- D. 112.5 GPa
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Answer: B
Within the elastic range, Hooke's law gives modulus of elasticity as stress divided by strain: 150 MPa / 0.00075 = 200,000 MPa, or 200 GPa. Shifting a decimal place while converting strain, or multiplying stress by strain instead of dividing, both give a modulus that would not actually reproduce the observed strain when the same stress is reapplied.18. A structural material has an ultimate tensile strength of 400 MPa. If a factor of safety of 2.5 is applied, what is the allowable stress?
- A. 160 MPa
- B. 200 MPa
- C. 1,000 MPa
- D. 390 MPa
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Answer: A
Allowable stress is found by dividing the ultimate strength by the factor of safety: 400 / 2.5 = 160 MPa. Multiplying instead of dividing, using a smaller factor of safety than the one actually specified, or simply subtracting a small percentage from the ultimate strength all fail to apply the intended margin between the material's ultimate capacity and the stress it is allowed to safely carry in service.19. Which of the following best describes a brittle material's behavior under increasing tensile load compared to a ductile material?
- A. It exhibits a long, flat yielding plateau followed by significant necking before fracture
- B. It absorbs more energy before fracture than an equivalent ductile material would
- C. It fractures with minimal plastic deformation, whereas a ductile material undergoes substantial plastic deformation before failing
- D. It deforms plastically far beyond yield before eventually fracturing, much like a ductile material
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Answer: C
A brittle material typically fractures suddenly near its elastic limit with little to no visible plastic deformation, in contrast to a ductile material, which yields and stretches noticeably, often with necking, before it finally breaks. Describing a long yielding plateau, extensive plastic stretching, or high energy absorption before fracture instead describes ductile behavior, which is the opposite of how brittle materials actually respond to increasing tensile load.20. Water flows through a pipe that narrows from a diameter of 300 mm to 150 mm. If the velocity in the larger section is 2 m/s, what is the velocity in the smaller section using the continuity equation?
- A. 8 m/s
- B. 1 m/s
- C. 16 m/s
- D. 4 m/s
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Answer: A
The continuity equation requires A1V1 = A2V2, and since pipe area is proportional to diameter squared, the velocity ratio equals the square of the diameter ratio: (300/150)^2 = 4, so V2 = 2 × 4 = 8 m/s. Using the diameter ratio directly without squaring it, inverting the ratio so velocity decreases instead of increases, or squaring the already-squared ratio a second time all misapply the relationship between pipe area and flow velocity.21. Water flows through a horizontal pipe at a velocity of 3 m/s and pressure of 200 kPa. Downstream, the pipe narrows and the velocity increases to 6 m/s at the same elevation. Using Bernoulli's equation with water density 1000 kg/m^3, what is the downstream pressure?
- A. 173 kPa
- B. 186.5 kPa
- C. 213.5 kPa
- D. 200 kPa
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Answer: B
Bernoulli's equation at the same elevation gives P1 + 0.5ρV1^2 = P2 + 0.5ρV2^2. Here 200,000 + 0.5(1000)(3^2) = P2 + 0.5(1000)(6^2), so P2 = 200,000 + 4,500 - 18,000 = 186,500 Pa, or 186.5 kPa. Adding the velocity-head difference instead of subtracting it, assuming pressure is unaffected by the velocity change, or forgetting the one-half factor in the kinetic energy term all give a downstream pressure inconsistent with the actual energy trade-off between velocity and pressure.22. An open rectangular channel has a hydraulic radius of 0.6 m and a bed slope of 0.002. Using Manning's equation V = (1/n)R^(2/3)S^(1/2) with a roughness coefficient n = 0.013, what is the approximate flow velocity?
- A. 0.11 m/s
- B. 2.45 m/s
- C. 0.032 m/s
- D. 2.06 m/s
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Answer: B
Manning's equation gives V = (1/0.013)(0.6)^(2/3)(0.002)^(1/2) ≈ 76.9 × 0.711 × 0.0447 ≈ 2.45 m/s. Leaving out the 1/n roughness factor, using the slope directly instead of taking its square root, or using the hydraulic radius to the first power instead of the two-thirds power all fail to correctly combine roughness, geometry, and slope as Manning's equation requires.23. What is the specific weight of water at standard conditions, given a density of 1000 kg/m^3 and g = 9.81 m/s^2?
- A. 1000 kN/m^3
- B. 98.1 kN/m^3
- C. 0.981 kN/m^3
- D. 9.81 kN/m^3
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Answer: D
Specific weight equals density times gravitational acceleration: γ = ρg = 1000 × 9.81 = 9,810 N/m^3, or 9.81 kN/m^3. Treating the density value itself as the specific weight ignores gravitational acceleration entirely, and shifting a decimal place in either direction through a unit-conversion slip both give a specific weight that would not correctly reproduce the actual weight of a given volume of water.24. A pump delivers water at a flow rate of 0.05 m^3/s and must increase the total head by 20 m. Using water density 1000 kg/m^3, g = 9.81 m/s^2, and assuming 100% efficiency, what is the required pump power?
- A. 9.81 kW
- B. 98.1 kW
- C. 0.98 kW
- D. 19.62 kW
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Answer: A
Pump power for raising water is P = ρgQH = 1000 × 9.81 × 0.05 × 20 = 9,810 W, or about 9.81 kW. Shifting a decimal place through a unit slip changes the result by a factor of ten, and doubling the flow rate or the head by mistake doubles the true power, both of which no longer reflect the actual combination of flow rate and head that the pump must overcome.25. A wastewater discharge with a flow of 0.2 m^3/s and a BOD concentration of 150 mg/L mixes completely with a river flow of 4.8 m^3/s having a background BOD of 2 mg/L. Using a conservative mass balance, what is the BOD concentration immediately after mixing?
- A. 6 mg/L
- B. 15.84 mg/L
- C. 76 mg/L
- D. 7.92 mg/L
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Answer: D
A flow-weighted mass balance gives the mixed concentration as (Q1C1 + Q2C2) / (Q1+Q2) = (0.2×150 + 4.8×2) / 5.0 = 39.6/5.0 ≈ 7.92 mg/L. Taking a simple unweighted average of the two concentrations ignores how much more river flow there is relative to the discharge, and dropping one of the two flow contributions from the numerator both distort the true dilution the discharge actually receives.26. A stormwater detention pond receives an average inflow of 3.0 m^3/s for a 2-hour storm event, while the outflow structure releases a constant 1.2 m^3/s. Assuming no other losses, what volume of water is temporarily stored in the pond?
- A. 12,960 m^3
- B. 21,600 m^3
- C. 6,480 m^3
- D. 8,640 m^3
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Answer: A
Stored volume equals the net inflow rate, inflow minus outflow, multiplied by the duration: (3.0 - 1.2) m^3/s × 2 hours × 3600 s/hr = 1.8 × 7,200 = 12,960 m^3. Using only the inflow rate or only the outflow rate instead of the net difference between them, or using just one hour instead of the full two-hour storm duration, all misrepresent the actual volume that accumulates in the pond over the event.27. A town of 25,000 people generates wastewater at an average per-capita rate of 380 L/person/day. What is the average daily wastewater flow?
- A. 95,000 m^3/day
- B. 950 m^3/day
- C. 9,500 m^3/day
- D. 6,500 m^3/day
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Answer: C
Average daily wastewater flow equals population multiplied by the per-capita generation rate: 25,000 × 380 L/day = 9,500,000 L/day, which converts to 9,500 m^3/day. Shifting a decimal place while converting liters to cubic meters, or substituting a different per-capita rate than the one actually given, both produce a flow that does not correctly represent the town's true daily wastewater generation.28. A rectangular sedimentation tank has a volume of 900 m^3 and receives a flow of 0.05 m^3/s. What is the hydraulic retention time in hours?
- A. 0.5 hours
- B. 2.5 hours
- C. 50 hours
- D. 5 hours
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Answer: D
Hydraulic retention time equals tank volume divided by flow rate: 900 m^3 / 0.05 m^3/s = 18,000 s, which converts to 5 hours. Shifting a decimal place while performing the division, or halving the correct time as if only part of the tank volume were available for storage, both give a retention time that does not correctly reflect how long water actually spends in the tank at the given flow rate.29. During a rainfall event on a paved urban surface compared to a vegetated natural surface, which statement about the runoff response is most accurate?
- A. Paved surfaces increase infiltration because compacted materials absorb more water than loose soil
- B. Vegetated surfaces always generate more total runoff volume than paved surfaces
- C. Infiltration rate is essentially unaffected by the type of surface cover present
- D. Paved surfaces generate greater and more rapid runoff because impervious cover reduces infiltration compared to vegetated soil
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Answer: D
Impervious surfaces such as pavement prevent most rainfall from soaking into the ground, so a much larger share of the rain becomes surface runoff, and it reaches drainage systems more quickly than on vegetated ground where soil and plant cover promote infiltration and slow the flow. Claiming vegetated surfaces always produce more runoff, that surface cover has no effect on infiltration, or that pavement somehow increases infiltration all contradict the basic hydrologic role that impervious cover plays in urban runoff generation.30. A floor beam supports a uniformly distributed dead load of 4 kN/m and a live load of 6 kN/m over a 5 m span. What is the maximum total factored distributed load, using load factors of 1.2 for dead load and 1.6 for live load?
- A. 13.6 kN/m
- B. 10 kN/m
- C. 14.4 kN/m
- D. 15 kN/m
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Answer: C
The factored load combines each load type with its own load factor: 1.2 × 4 + 1.6 × 6 = 4.8 + 9.6 = 14.4 kN/m. Simply adding the unfactored dead and live loads ignores the extra margin the load factors are meant to add, swapping which factor is applied to which load type changes the weighting between dead and live effects, and applying the same average factor to both loads also fails to reflect that live loads are assigned a larger factor than dead loads.31. A steel column has a length of 4 m, is pinned at both ends, and has a moment of inertia of 8×10^-6 m^4 with E = 200 GPa. Using Euler's buckling formula Pcr = π^2EI/L^2, what is the critical buckling load?
- A. 3,948 kN
- B. 247 kN
- C. 987 kN
- D. 1,974 kN
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Answer: C
Euler's formula gives Pcr = π^2 × 200×10^9 × 8×10^-6 / 4^2 = π^2 × 1.6×10^6 / 16 ≈ 986,960 N, or about 987 kN. Dividing by the column length instead of its square inflates the result far above the correct value, while dividing by an extra factor of four or two beyond the correct L^2 term produces values well below it; both errors misapply how strongly the buckling load depends on the squared unbraced length.32. Consider a 10 m simply supported girder loaded by a uniform 8 kN/m load along its full length together with a 20 kN point load applied 4 m from the left end. What reaction develops at the left support?
- A. 48 kN
- B. 60 kN
- C. 50 kN
- D. 52 kN
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Answer: D
Taking moments about the right support, the left reaction times the 10 m span must balance the distributed load's total force acting at midspan plus the point load acting at its actual distance from the right support: R_left × 10 = (8×10)(5) + 20(6) = 400 + 120 = 520, so R_left = 52 kN. Using the point load's distance from the left support instead of the right support, or splitting the total load evenly between the two reactions, both ignore how the specific positions of the loads actually shift the share of load each support must carry.33. A saturated clay layer 3 m thick has a compression index Cc = 0.3, initial void ratio e0 = 0.9, an initial effective stress of 80 kPa, and a stress increase of 40 kPa from a new foundation load. Using Sc = (Cc·H)/(1+e0) · log10[(σ'0+Δσ)/σ'0], what is the primary consolidation settlement?
- A. 41.7 mm
- B. 83.4 mm
- C. 158.5 mm
- D. 192 mm
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Answer: B
The consolidation settlement formula gives Sc = (0.3 × 3)/(1+0.9) × log10(120/80) = (0.9/1.9) × 0.176 ≈ 0.0834 m, or 83.4 mm. Leaving the (1+e0) term out of the denominator inflates the result well above the correct value, and using the natural logarithm instead of the base-10 logarithm the formula actually calls for also produces a settlement that does not match the intended consolidation relationship for this clay layer.34. A soil layer has a total unit weight of 18 kN/m^3, and the water table is at the ground surface. What is the effective vertical stress at a depth of 4 m, using a unit weight of water of 9.81 kN/m^3?
- A. 111.24 kPa
- B. 39.24 kPa
- C. 72 kPa
- D. 32.76 kPa
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Answer: D
Effective stress equals total vertical stress minus pore water pressure. Total stress is 18 × 4 = 72 kPa, and pore pressure is 9.81 × 4 = 39.24 kPa, so effective stress is 72 - 39.24 = 32.76 kPa. Reporting the total stress alone ignores the pore pressure that the water table actually generates, reporting the pore pressure alone ignores the soil's own weight, and adding the two together instead of subtracting reverses the relationship that governs how effective stress actually controls soil strength and settlement.35. A soil sample has a void ratio of 0.5. What is the corresponding porosity of the soil?
- A. 50%
- B. 66.7%
- C. 25%
- D. 33.3%
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Answer: D
Porosity relates to void ratio through n = e / (1+e), so for e = 0.5, n = 0.5 / 1.5 ≈ 33.3%. Treating the void ratio value itself as the porosity skips the required conversion entirely, and inverting the ratio or using an incorrect denominator both give a porosity that would not correctly correspond to a void ratio of 0.5 when converted using the actual relationship between the two quantities.36. A compacted fill has a field dry unit weight of 17.5 kN/m^3, and the maximum dry unit weight from laboratory Proctor testing is 19.0 kN/m^3. What is the relative compaction (percent compaction) of the fill?
- A. 92.1%
- B. 108.6%
- C. 86.5%
- D. 75%
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Answer: A
Percent compaction equals the field dry unit weight divided by the laboratory maximum dry unit weight, expressed as a percentage: (17.5 / 19.0) × 100 ≈ 92.1%. Inverting the ratio so the laboratory value is divided by the field value instead produces a number above 100%, which does not represent a physically meaningful compaction percentage, and using an incorrect maximum dry unit weight in the denominator also shifts the result away from the true relative compaction achieved in the field.37. A leveling survey records a backsight reading of 2.145 m on a benchmark with an elevation of 100.000 m, and a foresight reading of 1.320 m on the next point. What is the elevation of the foresight point?
- A. 100.000 m
- B. 103.465 m
- C. 98.535 m
- D. 100.825 m
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Answer: D
The height of instrument is found by adding the backsight reading to the known benchmark elevation: 100.000 + 2.145 = 102.145 m. The foresight point elevation is then the height of instrument minus the foresight reading: 102.145 - 1.320 = 100.825 m. Adding the foresight reading instead of subtracting it, or subtracting the backsight instead of adding it when finding the height of instrument, both break the sequence of additions and subtractions that differential leveling depends on to carry elevation between points.38. A horizontal curve begins at station 10+00 (1000 m along the alignment) and has a length of 250 m. At what station does the curve end?
- A. Station 15+00
- B. Station 12+50
- C. Station 12+00
- D. Station 10+25
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Answer: B
The ending station is found by adding the curve length directly to the beginning station distance: 1000 m + 250 m = 1250 m, which is written as station 12+50. Dividing the curve length by ten before adding it, or adding an incorrect multiple of the curve length, both shift the resulting station away from the point exactly 250 m further along the alignment from where the curve actually begins.39. On a section of highway, traffic flow is measured at 1,200 vehicles/hour with an average travel speed of 60 km/h. Using the fundamental relationship q = k·v, what is the traffic density?
- A. 1,140 veh/km
- B. 0.05 veh/km
- C. 20 veh/km
- D. 72,000 veh/km
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Answer: C
The fundamental traffic flow relationship gives density as flow divided by speed: k = q / v = 1,200 / 60 = 20 vehicles per kilometer. Multiplying flow by speed instead of dividing, inverting the ratio so speed is divided by flow instead, or subtracting speed from flow all violate the basic relationship linking flow, density, and speed on a roadway section.40. A vehicle travels at 20 m/s on a level roadway. Using a perception-reaction time of 1.5 s and a deceleration rate of 3.4 m/s^2 during braking, what is the total stopping distance, combining perception-reaction distance and braking distance?
- A. 88.8 m
- B. 58.8 m
- C. 30 m
- D. 147.6 m
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Answer: A
Perception-reaction distance is speed times reaction time: 20 × 1.5 = 30 m. Braking distance uses v^2/(2a) = 400/(2×3.4) ≈ 58.8 m. Adding the two gives a total stopping distance of about 88.8 m. Reporting only the braking portion, only the reaction portion, or forgetting the factor of two in the braking-distance denominator each omits or overstates part of the total distance the vehicle actually travels before coming to a stop.41. A civil engineer models the settlement of a foundation as s(t) = 0.5t^2 - 2t + 10 (mm), where t is time in years after construction. What is the rate of settlement, ds/dt, at t = 3 years?
- A. 8.5 mm/year
- B. 3 mm/year
- C. 1 mm/year
- D. -0.5 mm/year
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The rate of settlement is the derivative of the settlement function with respect to time. Differentiating 0.5t^2 - 2t + 10 term by term gives t - 2, and substituting t = 3 gives 1 mm/year. Dropping the constant term from the derivative, misapplying the power rule, or evaluating the position function itself instead of its derivative all lead to incorrect rates that don't reflect the true instantaneous slope of the settlement curve.42. Five soil density test results (kg/m3) are 1750, 1780, 1760, 1770, 1740. What is the arithmetic mean bulk density of these samples?
- A. 1750 kg/m3
- B. 1760 kg/m3
- C. 1780 kg/m3
- D. 1770 kg/m3
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
The arithmetic mean is the sum of all values divided by the count of values. Summing 1750, 1780, 1760, 1770, and 1740 gives 8800, and dividing by 5 gives 1760 kg/m3. Picking the median value, the minimum, or the maximum instead of actually summing and dividing all five readings gives a number that only coincidentally resembles a central tendency rather than the true average.43. A geotechnical lab reports the standard error of the mean for 25 identical soil samples as 0.4 kPa. If the sample size increases to 100 while the population standard deviation stays constant, what happens to the standard error of the mean?
- A. It decreases to 0.1 kPa
- B. It stays at 0.4 kPa
- C. It increases to 0.8 kPa
- D. It decreases to 0.2 kPa
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
The standard error of the mean equals the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size. Quadrupling the sample size from 25 to 100 doubles the square root of n, which halves the standard error to 0.2 kPa. Assuming the standard error scales directly with sample size, or assuming it is unaffected by sample size, both misrepresent the inverse square-root relationship that governs how additional samples improve the precision of an estimated mean.44. During construction materials testing, a compressive strength result falls just below the specified minimum. The project manager asks the engineer to average it with a nearby passing result to report a single passing value. How should the engineer respond?
- A. Report an estimated value that is conveniently close to the specified minimum
- B. Discard the failing result and report only the passing test
- C. Report the true individual result and evaluate it against the established acceptance criteria for nonconforming data
- D. Average the two results as requested so the project can move forward
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Honest reporting of test data is a core professional obligation, and it requires disclosing actual results even when they are inconvenient, then applying the established evaluation procedure for a result that does not meet specification. Averaging away a failing result, discarding it, or substituting a convenient estimate all misrepresent what was actually measured and could allow a nonconforming condition to go undetected and unaddressed.45. A pump costs $50,000 and is expected to last 10 years with no salvage value. Using an interest rate of 6% and a capital recovery factor (A/P, 6%, 10) of approximately 0.1359, what is the equivalent uniform annual cost?
- A. $6,795
- B. $7,450
- C. $11,870
- D. $5,000
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The equivalent uniform annual cost of a capital investment is found by multiplying the initial cost by the capital recovery factor: 50,000 × 0.1359 ≈ $6,795. Using straight-line depreciation without accounting for the time value of money, applying a recovery factor computed for a different interest rate, or applying a factor meant for a shorter recovery period all misstate the true annualized cost of financing the equipment over its full service life.46. A traffic sign bracket is held in equilibrium by two cables. Cable A pulls horizontally with a force of 300 N, and Cable B pulls at 40° above horizontal, its horizontal component balancing Cable A's pull. What is the tension in Cable B?
- A. 300 N
- B. 392 N
- C. 230 N
- D. 467 N
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
For horizontal equilibrium, the horizontal component of Cable B's tension must equal Cable A's 300 N pull: T·cos(40°) = 300, so T = 300 / cos(40°) ≈ 392 N. Using the sine of the angle instead of the cosine, ignoring the angle entirely, or multiplying by the cosine instead of dividing by it all misapply the geometry of force resolution and fail to produce a horizontal component that actually balances the opposing cable.47. A 50 kg crate rests on a horizontal floor with a static coefficient of friction of 0.3. Using g = 9.81 m/s^2, what is the minimum horizontal force required to just start the crate moving?
- A. 490.5 N
- B. 15 N
- C. 147.2 N
- D. 73.6 N
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The maximum static friction force equals the coefficient of friction times the normal force, which for a horizontal surface equals the weight: F = μmg = 0.3 × 50 × 9.81 ≈ 147.2 N. Using the crate's weight alone without applying the friction coefficient, omitting gravitational acceleration from the calculation, or otherwise dropping one of the three factors in the friction formula all produce a force that would not actually match the threshold needed to overcome static friction.48. A car travels around a flat horizontal curve of radius 150 m at a constant speed of 20 m/s. What is the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration?
- A. 0.133 m/s^2
- B. 1.33 m/s^2
- C. 2.67 m/s^2
- D. 5.33 m/s^2
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
Centripetal acceleration for circular motion is a = v^2 / r, so with v = 20 m/s and r = 150 m, a = 400/150 ≈ 2.67 m/s^2. Forgetting to square the speed before dividing by the radius, halving the radius as if it were a diameter, or dividing the squared speed by twice the radius all misapply the formula and produce an acceleration inconsistent with the actual curvature and speed given.49. A force of 100 N acts at an angle of 30° above the horizontal x-axis. What is the magnitude of its vertical (y) component?
- A. 100 N
- B. 30 N
- C. 50 N
- D. 86.6 N
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The vertical component of a force acting at an angle above horizontal equals the force magnitude times the sine of that angle: 100 × sin(30°) = 50 N. Using the cosine of the angle instead of the sine swaps the horizontal and vertical components, treating the entire force as vertical ignores the angle entirely, and using the angle value itself as if it were the component confuses degrees with newtons.50. A bolt with a diameter of 20 mm is subjected to a single-shear load of 25 kN. What is the average shear stress in the bolt?
- A. 159.2 MPa
- B. 79.6 MPa
- C. 25 MPa
- D. 39.8 MPa
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Average shear stress equals the shear load divided by the cross-sectional area resisting it, where area = (π/4)d^2 = (π/4)(20)^2 ≈ 314.2 mm^2. Dividing 25,000 N by 314.2 mm^2 gives about 79.6 MPa. Doubling the load path as if two shear planes resisted the force, halving the actual bolt area by mistake, or ignoring the cross-sectional area entirely all give a stress inconsistent with a true single-shear connection.51. What is the hydrostatic pressure at a depth of 5 m below the free surface of water with a density of 1000 kg/m^3, using g = 9.81 m/s^2 and ignoring atmospheric pressure?
- A. 4.905 kPa
- B. 490.5 kPa
- C. 245.25 kPa
- D. 49.05 kPa
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Hydrostatic pressure at a given depth equals fluid density times gravitational acceleration times depth: P = ρgh = 1000 × 9.81 × 5 = 49,050 Pa, or 49.05 kPa. Shifting a decimal place through a unit-conversion slip, or squaring the depth instead of using it directly, both produce a pressure that does not correctly scale linearly with depth as the hydrostatic pressure relationship requires.52. Water flows through a 100 mm diameter pipe at a velocity of 1.5 m/s, with a kinematic viscosity of 1.0×10^-6 m^2/s. Using Re = Vd/ν, what is the Reynolds number, and is the flow laminar or turbulent?
- A. Re ≈ 150,000, which indicates turbulent flow
- B. Re ≈ 1,500, which indicates laminar flow
- C. Re ≈ 150,000, which indicates laminar flow
- D. Re ≈ 15,000, which indicates turbulent flow
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
Reynolds number is computed as Re = Vd/ν = (1.5 × 0.1) / (1.0×10^-6) = 150,000. Because pipe flow is generally considered turbulent once Reynolds number rises well above roughly 4,000, this large value indicates clearly turbulent flow. A unit-conversion slip in the diameter can shrink the computed Reynolds number by a factor of ten or one hundred, and misremembering the transition threshold can lead to labeling a genuinely turbulent flow as laminar even when the correct numerical value is used.53. Using the Rational Method Q = CiA (with Q in m^3/s = C x i[mm/hr] x A[km^2] / 3.6), a drainage basin has a runoff coefficient C = 0.4, rainfall intensity i = 50 mm/hr, and area A = 2 km^2. What is the peak runoff rate?
- A. 11.11 m^3/s
- B. 40 m^3/s
- C. 2.78 m^3/s
- D. 4.44 m^3/s
Show answer & explanation
Answer: A
The Rational Method gives Q = (C × i × A) / 3.6 = (0.4 × 50 × 2) / 3.6 = 40 / 3.6 ≈ 11.11 m^3/s. Leaving out the unit-conversion factor entirely, or applying it twice instead of once, both produce a runoff rate that does not correctly convert the given rainfall intensity and area into consistent volumetric flow units.54. A water treatment plant treats a flow of 0.5 m^3/s and requires a coagulant dose of 20 mg/L. What is the required coagulant feed rate in kg/day?
- A. 8.64 kg/day
- B. 36 kg/day
- C. 864 kg/day
- D. 8,640 kg/day
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The feed rate equals the dose concentration times the daily flow volume. Converting 0.5 m^3/s to 43,200 m^3/day, and applying a dose of 20 mg/L (equivalent to 20 g/m^3), gives 20 × 43,200 = 864,000 g/day, or 864 kg/day. Converting the flow using seconds-per-hour instead of the full seconds-per-day, or shifting a decimal place in the unit conversion, both give a feed rate that would not actually match the plant's true daily flow volume.55. An 8 m span floor girder, simply supported at each end, is loaded by a uniform 10 kN/m load running its entire length. What is the maximum bending moment developed at midspan?
- A. 640 kN·m
- B. 40 kN·m
- C. 160 kN·m
- D. 80 kN·m
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
For a simply supported beam under a uniform load over its full span, the maximum midspan moment is M = wL^2/8 = 10 × 8^2/8 = 80 kN·m. Forgetting to divide by 8 leaves an unreduced value far too large, while dividing by 16 or multiplying by an extra factor of 2 instead of the correct denominator both give a moment that does not match the actual parabolic moment distribution produced by a uniform load on a simply supported span.56. In a simple triangular truss, a joint has only two non-collinear members meeting there, with no external load or support reaction applied at that joint. What can be concluded about the force in each of those two members?
- A. One member is in tension while the other automatically carries double that force in compression
- B. Both members carry equal and maximum compressive force
- C. Both members carry zero force, since equilibrium at the joint requires each non-collinear member force to vanish
- D. The member forces cannot be determined without knowing the entire truss geometry
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
At a joint with only two members meeting at different angles and no applied load or reaction, equilibrium in both the horizontal and vertical directions can only be satisfied if both member forces are zero, since neither member can balance a component of the other along a different line of action. Assuming a maximum or doubled force at such a joint, or claiming the outcome depends on the rest of the truss geometry, both ignore that this conclusion follows directly and immediately from the equilibrium conditions at that single joint.57. Two simply supported beams have identical spans and loading, but Beam X has twice the moment of inertia of Beam Y. How does the maximum midspan deflection of Beam X compare to Beam Y, assuming the same material and elastic behavior?
- A. Beam X deflects twice as much as Beam Y
- B. Beam X deflects four times as much as Beam Y
- C. Beam X deflects half as much as Beam Y, since deflection is inversely proportional to moment of inertia for the same load and span
- D. Beam X and Beam Y deflect the same amount, since deflection depends only on span and load
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
For beams of the same span, material, and loading, elastic deflection formulas show deflection is inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of the cross section, so doubling the moment of inertia halves the deflection. Claiming deflection doubles, quadruples, or stays unchanged with a larger moment of inertia all contradict the way stiffer cross sections resist bending deformation under an identical load and span.58. A shallow foundation has an ultimate bearing capacity of 450 kPa determined from a geotechnical analysis. Using a factor of safety of 3, what is the allowable bearing pressure?
- A. 1,350 kPa
- B. 225 kPa
- C. 447 kPa
- D. 150 kPa
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Allowable bearing pressure is found by dividing the ultimate bearing capacity by the factor of safety: 450 / 3 = 150 kPa. Multiplying instead of dividing wildly overstates the safe pressure, using a smaller factor of safety than the one actually specified overstates it less severely, and simply subtracting the factor of safety from the ultimate value ignores that the factor is meant to be applied as a divisor, not a subtracted quantity.59. Which statement correctly distinguishes the shear strength behavior of a cohesionless (granular) soil from a purely cohesive (saturated clay) soil under typical loading conditions?
- A. Both soil types derive shear strength exclusively from cohesion, regardless of drainage conditions
- B. Cohesionless soils rely primarily on internal friction between particles for shear strength, whereas cohesive soils can exhibit strength from particle bonding even at low confining stress
- C. Cohesive soils have essentially zero shear strength under any loading condition
- D. Cohesionless soils rely primarily on cohesive bonding between particles rather than on interparticle friction
Show answer & explanation
Answer: B
Granular soils such as sands and gravels derive most of their shear resistance from friction and interlocking between individual particles, which depends heavily on confining stress, while saturated clays can exhibit meaningful shear strength from cohesive bonding between fine particles even when confining stress is low, particularly under undrained conditions. Claiming both soils behave identically, that granular soils are cohesive rather than frictional, or that clays have no strength at all all misrepresent the fundamentally different strength mechanisms of the two soil types.60. A closed traverse has interior angles summing to 538°. For a five-sided polygon (pentagon), the theoretical sum of interior angles is 540°. What is the angular misclosure of this traverse?
- A. 1,078°
- B. 0°
- C. 538°
- D. 2°
Show answer & explanation
Answer: D
Angular misclosure is the difference between the theoretical interior-angle sum and the actual measured sum: 540 - 538 = 2°. Reporting the raw measured sum as if it were the error itself, adding the two sums together instead of subtracting them, or assuming no misclosure exists at all each fails to isolate the actual small discrepancy that must be distributed as a correction across the traverse's measured angles.61. A highway curve has a radius of 300 m, and vehicles travel through it at 25 m/s. Using the side-friction equation e + f = v^2/(gR) with g = 9.81 m/s^2 and an assumed side-friction factor f = 0.12, what superelevation rate e is required?
- A. 21.2%
- B. 4.6%
- C. 9.2%
- D. 33.2%
Show answer & explanation
Answer: C
The side-friction equation gives v^2/(gR) = 625/(9.81×300) ≈ 0.2124. Solving for superelevation, e = 0.2124 - 0.12 ≈ 0.092, or about 9.2%. Forgetting to subtract the assumed side-friction factor leaves the full 21.2% figure unadjusted, while adding the friction factor instead of subtracting it, or dividing the result by an extra factor of two, both distort how much of the needed lateral force is actually supplied by friction versus by banking the roadway.
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Key facts: FE Civil exam
The FE Civil is administered by National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES), with 110 scored questions and a 5 hours 20 minutes time limit.
This free FE Civil practice test has 61 original questions written to National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES)'s official content outline, last checked against it on August 9, 2026. Every question shows a worked explanation, and nothing here requires a signup.
As of 2026, the FE Civil exam fee is $225.
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Every exam fact on this page traces to a primary document published by the body that administers the exam.
- Fundamentals of Engineering (FE) CIVIL CBT Exam SpecificationsNational Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES)ncees.org
- FE Exam | NCEESNational Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES)ncees.org
- Exams | NCEESNational Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES)ncees.org
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Frequently asked questions
How many questions should I expect to practice for the FE Civil exam?
The official FE Civil exam contains 110 questions, so a good practice test should mirror that scope. Working through practice questions across all fourteen content areas is the best way to see where your knowledge is thin before test day.
Which topics get the most practice-test emphasis?
Geotechnical Engineering, Structural Engineering, and Water Resources and Environmental Engineering each carry 10 to 15 questions on the real exam, making them the heaviest-weighted domains to drill. Statics, Mathematics and Statistics, and Transportation Engineering also make up a large share of the total.
What score do I need on a practice test to feel ready?
NCEES does not publish a fixed passing percentage for the FE exam, since passing is set using a psychometric standard rather than a simple cut score. Treat consistent, confident performance across every content area on full-length practice sets as your best readiness signal, and check NCEES's official exam page for how results are reported.
What's the best way to use a practice test?
Take a full-length practice test under timed conditions first to get an honest baseline, then review every missed question to understand the underlying concept rather than just memorizing the answer. Repeating this cycle while rotating through weaker content areas builds both speed and retention.
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You can work through the practice questions here without creating an account or entering payment information. It's designed to be a quick way to gauge your readiness before committing to the official exam registration and fee.
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Your actual exam appointment runs 6 hours total, with 5 hours and 20 minutes of that dedicated to answering questions. Practicing under a similar time limit helps you build the pacing needed to get through all 110 questions.