General Securities Principal Exam (Series 24) Study Guide
- Questions
- 150
- Time limit
- 3h 45m
- Passing score
- 70%
- Exam fee
- $235
- Governing body
- FINRA
The General Securities Principal Exam (Series 24) is the FINRA qualification exam for candidates who will supervise a broker-dealer's securities business. Before you build a study plan, anchor on the exam's core mechanics:
- Format: 150 multiple-choice questions
- Time allowed: 225 minutes (3 hours and 45 minutes)
- Passing score: 70%
- Exam fee: $235
Do the math on that timing and you get roughly a minute and a half per question. That is comfortable if you keep moving, but it punishes candidates who stall on hard supervision scenarios. A good habit in practice sessions: answer, flag anything uncertain, and return to flagged items with your remaining time rather than burning three minutes on one question early.
A 70% passing bar on 150 questions also means you can miss a meaningful number of questions and still pass — so your goal in studying is broad, reliable coverage, not perfection in any single topic.
What the Series 24 Qualifies You to Do
The General Securities Principal Exam (Series 24) qualifies an individual to supervise and manage the securities business of a FINRA member firm. Passing it authorizes a candidate to oversee activities such as underwriting, trading, market making, brokerage office operations, and the supervision of registered representatives.
Exam Format and Logistics
The Series 24 is a knowledge-intensive supervisory exam that assumes you already understand the underlying products and rules — its focus is on how a principal must supervise them. Here are the core specifications you should plan around:
- Questions: The exam contains 150 multiple-choice questions.
- Time limit: You are allotted 225 minutes (3 hours and 45 minutes) to complete the exam.
- Passing score: You must score at least 70% to pass.
- Fee: The examination fee is $235.
How to Read These Numbers
With 150 scored questions and 225 minutes, you have roughly 1.5 minutes per question on average, which leaves room to flag and revisit harder supervisory scenarios. Because 70% is the passing bar, you can miss a meaningful number of questions and still pass — but the margin is smaller on a supervisory exam where many questions are judgment-based rather than purely factual.
FINRA organizes the Series 24 around job functions of a general securities principal, and it publishes item counts for the two heaviest areas:
- Function 2 — Supervision of General Broker-Dealer Activities: 45 questions
- Function 3 — Supervision of Retail and Institutional Customer-Related Activities: 32 questions
Together these two supervision functions account for 77 of the exam's 150 questions — just over half of the entire test. That single observation should shape your study calendar: a candidate who is merely adequate on supervision of broker-dealer operations and customer-related activities is fighting uphill on more than half the exam, no matter how strong they are elsewhere.
How to use this weighting
- Schedule your longest, most focused study blocks for supervision of general broker-dealer activities — at 45 questions, it is the largest published block on the exam.
- Treat retail and institutional customer-related supervision (32 questions) as the second pillar, and drill it with scenario-style questions rather than pure memorization, since supervision topics tend to be tested as judgment calls.
- Cover the remaining functions thoroughly, but let the published item counts decide where your marginal study hour goes.
Build Your Pace Around the Clock
The exam gives you 225 minutes for 150 questions. That averages to about 90 seconds per question, but you should not treat every question equally — factual recall items (registration timeframes, filing thresholds) should take well under a minute, banking time for the long supervisory scenarios and calculation-style questions that can take two to three minutes each.
A Practical Pacing Plan
- Checkpoint approach: Aim to complete roughly one-third of the questions (about 50) every 75 minutes so you always know whether you are ahead or behind.
- First pass: Answer everything you know quickly, and flag anything requiring rereading or calculation.
- Second pass: Return to flagged items with your remaining time, using the buffer built up from the fast factual questions.
Why This Works
Because the passing score is 70%, your goal is consistent accuracy across the whole exam rather than perfection on any single hard question. Spending five minutes on one ambiguous scenario is a poor trade when that time could secure several easier points elsewhere.
What a Principal Is Tested On
The Series 24 is organized around the supervisory responsibilities of a general securities principal. While the exam draws on product knowledge you gained from prior qualifications, the questions consistently frame material from the perspective of a supervisor who must design, apply, and document compliance with firm and regulatory requirements.
Major Domains
- Supervision of investment banking and underwriting: Overseeing public offerings, due diligence, and the distribution of securities.
- Supervision of trading and market making: Managing trading desk conduct, quotations, and order handling.
- Supervision of brokerage office operations: Account approvals, recordkeeping, and customer complaint handling.
- Supervision of sales and associated persons: Registration, communications with the public, and suitability oversight.
- Regulatory framework and compliance: Applying rules to real supervisory scenarios and maintaining written supervisory procedures.
How to Study Each Domain
For every topic, ask not just 'what is the rule?' but 'what must a principal do to supervise it, and how is that documented?' The exam rewards candidates who can translate a rule into a supervisory action or a required written procedure.
You cannot sit for the Series 24 as your first securities exam. Candidates must pass the Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) exam and an appropriate representative-level qualification exam — such as the Series 7 — before taking the Series 24.
The SIE piece of the path
- The SIE consists of 75 scored questions.
- The SIE enrollment fee is $100.
- A passing SIE result remains valid for four years.
That four-year validity window deserves attention if you passed the SIE a while ago — for example, before joining your current firm. Before your firm opens a Series 24 exam window, confirm that your SIE pass is still within its four-year validity period; otherwise you may need to retake it before you can complete the principal-level qualification.
If you are earlier in the path, plan the sequence deliberately: SIE, then a representative-level exam such as the Series 7, then the Series 24. Budgeting the $100 SIE fee alongside the $235 Series 24 fee gives you a realistic picture of the exam costs on the principal track.
The Series 24 is not an exam you can simply sign up for on your own. Enrollment requires sponsorship by an eligible regulatory authority, and self-enrollment is not available. In practice, a candidate associated with a broker-dealer typically has a Form U4 submitted by the firm to request the exam — so your first conversation is with your firm's registration or compliance team, not with a test vendor.
The 120-day window
Once your enrollment is processed, FINRA posts a 120-day window in which the exam must be taken. Treat that window as your study deadline, and work backward from it. Two practical tips:
- Don't schedule at the very end of the window. Booking your appointment with time to spare leaves room to reschedule if preparation runs long or life intervenes.
- Coordinate the U4 filing with your study plan. If your firm files before you have started studying, the clock is already running; if you have flexibility, ask the firm to time the request so the 120 days align with your preparation.
Booking the appointment
Appointments are scheduled with Prometric, FINRA's test delivery vendor, either at a local test center or online. Decide early which delivery mode suits you — a quiet, controlled test-center room versus testing from your own space — and book promptly, since you are choosing from available appointment slots within your window.
Set a Target Above the Minimum
The passing score is 70%, so a disciplined study plan should aim for consistent practice-exam scores in the high 70s or low 80s before test day. Building that cushion protects you against exam-day variability and the tendency of scenario questions to feel harder under time pressure.
A Suggested Timeline
- Weeks 1–3 — Foundations: Read the full curriculum once, focusing on understanding supervisory principles rather than memorizing.
- Weeks 4–5 — Application: Work topic-by-topic question sets, reviewing every wrong answer to identify the supervisory concept you missed.
- Weeks 6+ — Simulation: Take full-length, timed practice exams under realistic conditions to build stamina for the 225-minute session.
Simulate the Real Conditions
Because the actual exam is 150 questions over 225 minutes, at least a few of your practice sessions should replicate that full length and time limit. This trains both your pacing and the mental endurance needed to stay accurate deep into a nearly four-hour exam. Also confirm your registration and the $235 fee well ahead of your scheduled date so logistics never disrupt your study rhythm.
FINRA's cancellation rules have real money attached, so know them before you book.
- To avoid any fees: cancel or reschedule a minimum of 10 business days before your appointment.
- Late changes and no-shows: rescheduling or cancelling within two business days of a scheduled appointment, or failing to appear, results in a fee equal to the cost of the exam.
Since the Series 24 costs $235, a missed appointment effectively forfeits the full $235 — you pay the price of the exam without taking it. The practical takeaway: put a reminder in your calendar at least two weeks (to be safely past the 10-business-day mark) before your test date. That is your honest decision point — if you are not on track by then, move the appointment while it is still free to do so, rather than gambling on a late cram.
The numbers FINRA publishes about the Series 24 tell you how to prepare for it. Here is a plan that uses each of them.
Let the 120-day window set your phases
Your exam must be taken within the 120-day window FINRA posts, so structure preparation as phases inside it: an initial pass through all content areas, a second pass weighted toward the supervision functions, and a final stretch dominated by full-length practice exams and review of weak spots.
Weight your hours like the exam weights its questions
With 45 questions on supervision of general broker-dealer activities and 32 on supervision of retail and institutional customer-related activities, supervision scenarios are the center of gravity of this exam. If your practice scores are uneven, fix supervision gaps first — improvement there moves your overall score more than improvement anywhere else, because those two functions alone span 77 of the 150 questions.
Train pacing and the passing bar together
Take at least a few practice exams under real conditions: 150 questions in 225 minutes. Score them against the real 70% passing bar, not a comfort threshold. If you are consistently clearing 70% with room to spare under timed conditions, you are ready; if you are hovering at the line, use the remaining window — and if necessary a fee-free reschedule made at least 10 business days out — rather than walking in on hope.
The week before
- Confirm your Prometric appointment details, including whether you booked a test center or online delivery.
- Re-verify the logistics that carry fees: you are past the point of free changes once you are within 10 business days.
- Taper new material; spend final days on timed review of the two supervision functions.
Series 24 flashcards
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What score is required to pass the Series 24, and what does it cost?
A passing score of 70%; the exam fee is $235.
What prerequisite exam must you generally hold before the Series 24?
A qualifying representative-level exam — most commonly the SIE plus a representative exam such as the Series 7 (General Securities Representative).
What is the purpose of an annual compliance meeting and branch office inspections?
To review compliance with rules; each registered person must attend an annual compliance interview/meeting, and offices must be inspected on a risk-based schedule (OSJs at least annually).
What is an OSJ?
An Office of Supervisory Jurisdiction — a location where key supervisory or securities functions occur (e.g., order execution, approving new accounts, structuring offerings, supervising other offices). Each OSJ must have an on-site principal.
Who must approve the opening of a new customer account, and when?
A principal must approve each new account, generally promptly after the first transaction, evidenced in writing.
What is the difference between a firm-commitment and a best-efforts underwriting?
In a firm-commitment underwriting the underwriter buys the entire issue and assumes the risk of reselling it; in best-efforts the underwriter acts as agent and only sells what it can, with no purchase obligation.
Under Reg M, what does Rule 101 restrict?
It restricts distribution participants (underwriters, broker-dealers) from bidding for or purchasing the security being distributed during the applicable restricted period, to prevent manipulation.
When must a firm file a communication with FINRA, and who approves retail communications?
A registered principal must approve retail communications before use; certain communications (e.g., those concerning specified products) must be filed with FINRA's Advertising Regulation Department.
How many questions are on the Series 24 exam, and how long is it?
150 multiple-choice questions, with a time limit of 225 minutes (3 hours and 45 minutes).
What does the Series 24 (General Securities Principal) qualification allow?
It qualifies a person to supervise and manage a broker-dealer's investment banking and securities business, including supervision of associated persons in those activities.
What are the four FINRA 4530 series rules, and what does each regulate?
Rule 4530 (Supervision), 4532 (Communications), 4535 (Complaint Handling), and 4552 (Variable Contracts)—they cover supervisory activities, approved communications, customer complaint resolution, and variable insurance products respectively.
Describe the content and approval process for customer communications.
All retail communications (advertisements, sales literature, email) must be approved by a principal before use. They must be accurate, fair, not misleading, and comply with all applicable rules. Specific product communications may require filing with FINRA's Advertising Department.
What are the responsibilities of a General Securities Principal as a supervisor?
A GSP must supervise all associated persons, ensure compliance with rules, approve customer accounts and communications, oversee OSJs, conduct periodic reviews, and maintain required records and documentation.
What is the difference between an OSJ and a non-OSJ branch office?
An OSJ is a location where key supervisory functions or significant securities business occurs (e.g., order execution, account approval); it requires on-site principal supervision. A non-OSJ branch has limited functions and can be supervised remotely.
What is Regulation SHO and what are its primary restrictions?
Reg SHO governs short selling. Rule 201 restricts short-sale execution to upticks only (in a declining market); Rule 204 requires close-out of naked short positions within specific timeframes to prevent settlement failures.
Under Regulation M, when does the restricted period apply, and who is covered?
The restricted period runs from when a deal is announced until at least five trading days after the end of the distribution. It applies to distribution participants (underwriters, broker-dealers, selling group members) to prevent market manipulation.
Explain the primary market (IPO) underwriting process from syndication to stabilization.
Underwriters are selected, a syndicate agreement allocates responsibilities and compensation, the underwriting agreement is signed with the issuer, and the underwriters form a selling group. After distribution, stabilization activities (e.g., repurchasing shares) may occur within specified limits to maintain the offering price.
What is a road show, and why is it used in securities offerings?
A road show is a presentation tour where issuer management meets potential institutional investors (and sometimes retail in smaller offerings) to pitch the securities and gauge demand. It helps assess investor appetite and price sensitivity for the offering.
Describe the types of underwriting compensation: spread, discounts, and allowances.
Spread is the difference between the public offering price and the underwriter's purchase price. Discounts and allowances are concessions paid to members of the selling group for retailing the securities. Compensation must be fair and reasonable.
What are the standards for institutional and retail communications under Rule 4532?
Communications to institutional clients may have more flexibility due to their sophistication, while retail communications must avoid complex jargon and misleading claims. All must be fair, balanced, and substantiated; prior principal approval is required.
Explain the meaning and application of best execution.
Best execution requires firms to execute customer orders at the best reasonably available price and terms. Principals must establish and enforce procedures to monitor whether the firm achieves best execution across venues and time periods.
What actions constitute market manipulation, and how do rules restrict them?
Market manipulation includes wash trades, matched orders, fictitious trades, and activities designed to affect price artificially. Rules under Regulation M and other regulations restrict these practices and require fair dealing standards.
Describe the types of underwriting conflicts of interest and how they must be managed.
Conflicts include research analyst independence (Regulation FD and research restrictions), allocation of hot IPOs to insiders, and proprietary trading advantages. Firms must disclose conflicts, enforce information barriers (Chinese walls), and implement policies to manage them.
What does a syndicate letter or agreement establish, and what does it include?
A syndicate agreement specifies the managing underwriters, their roles, how fees are allocated among members, penalties for failures, and the conditions under which the agreement may be terminated. It governs the relationship among syndicate members.
Explain the concept of due diligence in new securities offerings.
Due diligence requires underwriters and dealers to conduct reasonable investigation into the issuer's business, financial condition, and disclosure to ensure representations are accurate and complete. Failure to conduct due diligence can result in liability under securities laws.
What are the requirements for record-keeping related to communications and approvals?
Firms must retain copies of all communications, evidence of principal approval, and dates of approval for at least six years. Records must be reasonably accessible and show compliance with pre-approval and filing requirements.
How must firms handle customer complaints, and what is the timeline for responding?
Complaints must be documented (in writing if the customer requests), investigated, and resolved promptly. A principal must approve the response. Unresolved complaints must be reported to FINRA through the complaint reporting system.
Describe the relationship between market maker obligations and their exemption from Regulation M restrictions.
Market makers must provide continuous bid-ask quotes and maintain inventory in assigned securities. They may be exempted from Reg M's distribution-period restrictions if they follow strict price-and-volume limits to ensure their activities support fair pricing rather than inflate the offering.
What is the purpose of Regulation FD (Fair Disclosure), and what conduct does it prohibit?
Reg FD prohibits selective disclosure of material non-public information to favored investors or analysts. If such disclosure occurs, the issuer must simultaneously disclose the information to the public to ensure all investors have equal access.
Explain the concept of suitability and how it applies to principal oversight.
Suitability requires that recommendations align with a customer's financial situation, investment objectives, and risk tolerance. Principals must monitor that representatives follow suitability standards and document their rationale for recommendations.
What is a prospectus, what information must it contain, and when must it be delivered?
A prospectus is a written disclosure document describing an issuer's business, financial condition, risks, and the securities being offered. It must contain all material facts; a copy must be delivered to investors before or with the confirmation of their order.
Describe the hierarchy of offerings: intrastate, Reg A (Tier 1 and 2), and Reg D (506 offerings).
Intrastate offerings are exempt if all purchasers and the issuer are in the same state. Reg A allows up to $75M (Tier 1) or $250M (Tier 2) with varying disclosure and testing-the-waters rules. Reg D Rule 506(b/c) allows unlimited raises from accredited investors with minimal disclosure but strict resale restrictions.
What is the form and content requirement for evidence that customer account opening was approved?
A principal's written approval (including signature, date, and evidence of review) must be maintained in the customer's account record. This documents the principal's oversight that the account is appropriate for the customer.
How do the rules apply to social media communications, blogs, and interactive platforms?
Communications on social media are treated the same as other retail communications: they require principal pre-approval, must be fair and not misleading, and must comply with all applicable rules. Firms must monitor for content accuracy and unauthorized posts.
Series 24 glossary
The General Securities Principal Exam (Series 24) is a FINRA-administered qualification exam that assesses a candidate's competency to supervise and manage a broker-dealer's investment banking and securities business. Comprising 150 multiple-choice questions over 225 minutes, it requires a 70% passing score to qualify a registered representative as a general securities principal.
29 terms the Series 24 tests, defined in plain English.
- Account Designation
- The classification of a customer account type such as individual, joint, or institutional, which determines which rules apply and what supervisory scrutiny is required. Principals must ensure representatives properly designate accounts and supervise activity according to account type.
- Advertising and Communications Rule
- Requirements that all firm marketing materials, communications with customers, and performance claims must be accurate, not misleading, and approved before use. Principals or their designees must review and approve advertisements to ensure compliance with FINRA rules.
- Anti-Money Laundering (AML) Program
- A firm's comprehensive system for identifying, monitoring, and reporting suspicious customer transactions to prevent the laundering of illicit proceeds. Principals oversee AML compliance, customer verification (know your customer), and suspicious activity reporting.
- Best Execution
- The obligation to execute customer orders at prices and in a manner that are most favorable given prevailing market conditions. Principals monitor execution quality metrics, compare pricing across venues, and remediate instances where best execution may have been compromised.
- Branch Office
- Any office of a broker-dealer other than its principal place of business where securities transactions are conducted or customer accounts are opened. A principal designated as the branch manager or office manager is responsible for supervising all activities and compliance at that location.
- Broker-Dealer
- A firm or person in the business of buying and selling securities either for customers (broker) or for its own account (dealer). Series 24 principals supervise the operations of such firms.
- Compensation and Incentive Programs
- The structure of commissions, bonuses, and other payments to representatives that can influence their sales behavior. Principals must oversee compensation programs to ensure they do not incentivize unsuitable recommendations or violations of sales practice rules.
- Conflict of Interest
- A situation in which a representative or firm has competing financial incentives that could compromise its duty to act in a customer's best interest. Principals must identify and manage conflicts through disclosure, policies, and supervision of potentially problematic transactions.
- Customer Complaint Procedure
- A firm's documented system for receiving, tracking, investigating, and resolving customer complaints about its services or representatives. Principals are responsible for ensuring complaints are handled promptly and that patterns of complaints trigger corrective action.
- Exam Enrollment Fee
- The cost charged to register for and sit the exam. The Series 24 fee is $235.
- Exam Session Time Limit
- The total amount of time a candidate is allotted to complete all questions in a single sitting. For the Series 24, the time limit is 225 minutes (3 hours and 45 minutes).
- FINRA
- The Financial Industry Regulatory Authority, the self-regulatory organization that writes and enforces rules for broker-dealers and administers qualification exams such as the Series 24.
- General Securities Principal (Series 24)
- A FINRA registration category that qualifies an individual to supervise and manage the securities-related activities of a broker-dealer, including underwriting, trading, and market-making. It is the credential earned by passing the Series 24 exam.
- Insider Trading
- Trading in securities based on material non-public information, which is illegal under securities laws. Principals must maintain and enforce information barriers (Chinese walls), restricted lists, and blackout periods to prevent illegal insider trading by firm employees and customers.
- Know Your Customer (KYC)
- The process of collecting and verifying customer identity, financial background, and investment experience before opening an account or executing transactions. Principals must ensure representatives gather and maintain accurate KYC information for all customers.
- Market Maker
- A dealer that stands ready to buy and sell a particular security by continuously quoting both a bid and an ask price, providing liquidity to the market. Series 24 principals oversee market-making activity.
- Multiple-Choice Item
- A single test question offering several answer options from which the candidate selects the best one; the Series 24 exam is built entirely from these. The exam contains 150 such questions.
- Mutual Fund and Structured Product Rules
- Specialized regulations covering the sale, disclosure, and suitability considerations unique to mutual funds, exchange-traded funds, and complex structured products. Principals must ensure representatives understand redemption features, expense ratios, and sales practice rules specific to these products.
- Net Capital
- A measure of a broker-dealer's liquid assets in excess of its liabilities, used by regulators to ensure the firm can meet its obligations to customers. Understanding net capital requirements is part of the financial-responsibility knowledge tested on the Series 24.
- Order Routing Rule
- The requirement that broker-dealers execute customer orders in a manner reasonably designed to obtain best execution. Principals must monitor execution quality, trading venues, and order handling practices to ensure compliance.
- Passing Score
- The minimum percentage of questions a candidate must answer correctly to pass. For the Series 24, the passing score is 70%.
- Principal Approval and Designation
- The process of senior management formally authorizing certain activities or individuals to take on supervisory roles. Specific transactions, account openings, and personnel determinations may require principal approval to ensure senior-level oversight and accountability.
- Record-Keeping Requirements
- The obligation for broker-dealers to maintain books and records documenting customer accounts, transactions, communications, and regulatory compliance. Principals oversee the firm's record retention policies and must ensure records are complete, accurate, and accessible for regulatory examination.
- Registered Representative
- An individual licensed to transact securities business with the public on behalf of a broker-dealer. A General Securities Principal is responsible for supervising the conduct of these representatives.
- Sales Practice Rule
- Regulations governing how representatives may conduct business with customers, including rules against fraud, misrepresentation, high-pressure tactics, and unsuitable recommendations. Principals enforce these rules through training, supervision, and disciplinary action when violations occur.
- Suitability Rule
- A regulatory requirement that broker-dealers and representatives must ensure recommended investments are appropriate for a customer's financial situation, investment objectives, and risk tolerance. Principals must supervise compliance by reviewing customer account records and recommendation documentation.
- Supervisory Review and Testing
- The process of periodically examining customer records, transactions, and compliance documentation to verify that the firm's supervisory controls are effective. Principals must design and execute supervisory review programs that test for suitability, best execution, and other key compliance areas.
- Supervisory System
- The framework of written procedures, designated principals, and controls a firm must maintain to reasonably ensure compliance with securities laws and rules. Establishing and enforcing this system is central to the principal role tested by the Series 24.
- Underwriting
- The process by which a broker-dealer helps an issuer bring new securities to market, often committing to buy the shares and resell them to the public. Supervising this activity is a core Series 24 responsibility.
Frequently asked questions
Do I need to pass any other exams before I can take the Series 24?
Yes. Before taking the Series 24, you must pass the Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) exam and an appropriate representative-level qualification exam, such as the Series 7. The SIE itself consists of 75 scored questions and carries a $100 enrollment fee. Keep in mind that a passing SIE result remains valid for four years, so if you passed the SIE some time ago, confirm it is still within its validity window before your firm requests the Series 24.
How many questions are on the Series 24, and what score do I need to pass?
The Series 24 has 150 multiple-choice questions, and you get 225 minutes (3 hours and 45 minutes) to complete it — an average of a minute and a half per question. The passing score is 70%. The exam is weighted heavily toward two areas: Function 2, Supervision of General Broker-Dealer Activities, contains 45 items, and Function 3, Supervision of Retail and Institutional Customer-Related Activities, contains 32 items. Together those two functions account for 77 of the 150 questions — more than half the exam — so prioritize them in your study plan.
How much does the Series 24 cost, and can I sign up on my own?
The Series 24 exam fee is $235, and no — you cannot sign up on your own. Enrollment requires sponsorship by an eligible regulatory authority, and self-enrollment is not available for the Series 24. In practice, a candidate associated with a broker-dealer typically has a Form U4 submitted by the firm to request the exam. If you have not yet passed the SIE prerequisite, budget for its separate $100 enrollment fee as well.
How do I schedule my Series 24 appointment, and what happens if I need to cancel or reschedule?
Once your enrollment is processed, FINRA posts a 120-day window in which the exam must be taken. Within that window, you schedule an appointment with Prometric, FINRA's test delivery vendor, either at a local test center or online. If your plans change, cancel or reschedule a minimum of 10 business days in advance to avoid any fees. Rescheduling or cancelling within two business days of your appointment — or simply not showing up — results in a fee equal to the cost of the exam, which for the Series 24 means forfeiting the full $235. Put the deadline dates on your calendar as soon as your window opens.
Official sources
Primary documents used to verify the exam details shown on this page.
- Series 24 Exam OverviewFINRAfinra.org
- Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) ExamFINRAfinra.org
- Series 24 – General Securities Principal ExamFINRAfinra.org
- Enroll for an ExamFINRAfinra.org
- Reschedule or Cancel Your AppointmentFINRAfinra.org
- Schedule an ExamFINRAfinra.org
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