ServSafe Manager Practice Test.
Free practice exam — 129 quality-checked questions, instant feedback.

1. A food handler has been diagnosed with an illness caused by Norovirus. Which of the following is the required response?

• A. The handler may work if they avoid ready-to-eat items
• B. The handler must not work with food
• C. The handler may work if symptoms are mild
• D. The handler may work after a single handwashing

2. Which of the following is one of the major food allergens a food handler must be able to recognize?

• A. Rice
• B. Beef
• C. Sesame
• D. Corn

3. After using the restroom, a cashier who also plates desserts skips the handwashing sink and applies hand sanitizer at the counter instead. Why is this insufficient for proper hygiene?

• A. Handwashing must be done at a designated handwashing sink for at least 20 seconds with soap and warm running water
• B. Only servers, not cashiers, are required to wash their hands
• C. Hand sanitizer is required to be applied for a full minute
• D. Handwashing is only necessary before, not after, restroom use

4. A server offers a slightly impaired guest a plate of appetizers and a glass of water. What effect will this have on the guest's blood alcohol concentration?

• A. It will immediately lower the guest's blood alcohol concentration
• B. It will not lower the guest's blood alcohol concentration; only time can do that
• C. It will lower the concentration only if the food is high in protein
• D. It will raise the guest's blood alcohol concentration

5. A guest with glassy, bloodshot eyes and increasingly aggressive behavior insists on being served another drink and says a cup of coffee will "fix it." Which action reflects responsible alcohol service?

• A. Serve the drink because aggressive behavior is not a sign of intoxication
• B. Serve the drink because coffee will quickly reduce the guest's blood alcohol concentration
• C. Serve the drink because glassy eyes only matter for minors
• D. Recognize the signs of intoxication and understand that coffee will not lower the guest's blood alcohol concentration

6. A patron presents a driver's license that is clearly past its expiration date. Based on identification requirements, how should the server treat this ID?

• A. As acceptable, provided the photo still resembles the patron
• B. As unacceptable, because acceptable ID must be unexpired
• C. As acceptable, because a driver's license is always valid regardless of date
• D. As acceptable, because it is government-issued

7. A cook removes a large pot of beef stew from the stove at 135°F to begin cooling it. According to safe cooling practice, what is the maximum time allowed to bring the stew from 135°F down to 70°F?

• A. Six hours
• B. Four hours
• C. Two hours
• D. One hour

8. Which temperature range defines the danger zone, where pathogens grow most rapidly?

• A. 32°F to 100°F
• B. 41°F to 135°F
• C. 70°F to 155°F
• D. 41°F to 165°F

9. A tray of TCS food has spent time sitting out on a prep counter within the danger zone. What is the maximum total time it may remain in the danger zone before it must be discarded?

• A. Six hours
• B. Four hours
• C. Eight hours
• D. Two hours

10. A kitchen is preparing roasted chicken and a batch of ground-beef patties. Which cooking requirement is correct for these two items?

• A. Both to 165°F for one second
• B. Chicken to 155°F for 17 seconds; ground beef to 165°F for one second
• C. Both to 155°F for 17 seconds
• D. Chicken to 165°F for one second; ground beef to 155°F for 17 seconds

11. On a hot-holding line, at what minimum temperature must hot TCS food be held?

• A. 41°F or lower
• B. 70°F or higher
• C. 135°F or higher
• D. 165°F or higher

12. A chef finishes the first cooling stage, reaching 70°F exactly two hours after removing the food from heat. How much additional time is allowed to bring the food from 70°F down to 41°F?

• A. Two hours
• B. Six hours
• C. One hour
• D. Four hours

13. Following the two-stage cooling procedure correctly, what is the total maximum time allowed to cool cooked TCS food from 135°F all the way to 41°F?

• A. Four hours
• B. Six hours
• C. Eight hours
• D. Two hours

14. A cold-holding unit is checked during a routine line inspection. At what maximum temperature must the cold TCS food inside be held?

• A. 41°F or lower
• B. 55°F or lower
• C. 70°F or lower
• D. 32°F or lower

15. A chicken breast is being stuffed with a bread-and-herb filling. To what minimum internal temperature must this stuffed poultry item be cooked, and for how long?

• A. 165°F for one second
• B. 135°F for four hours
• C. 70°F for two hours
• D. 155°F for 17 seconds

16. A manager notices that the upper boundary of the temperature danger zone is the same value used as the minimum hot-holding temperature. What is that shared temperature?

• A. 41°F
• B. 165°F
• C. 135°F
• D. 70°F

17. A line cook returns from the restroom and prepares to handle ready-to-eat salad greens. According to proper hygiene procedure, how long must the cook scrub during handwashing, and where?

• A. At least 5 seconds at a designated handwashing sink with soap
• B. At least 20 seconds at a food-prep sink using sanitizer only
• C. At least 10 seconds at any available sink with cold water
• D. At least 20 seconds at a designated handwashing sink with soap and warm running water

18. Which combination correctly describes the minimum acceptable handwashing practice for a food handler?

• A. 20 seconds, designated handwashing sink, soap, warm running water
• B. 15 seconds, designated handwashing sink, hand sanitizer
• C. 20 seconds, mop sink, soap, cold running water
• D. 30 seconds, prep sink, soap, warm standing water

19. A server tells a manager they have been vomiting since the morning shift. What is the correct action regarding their food-handling duties?

• A. They may continue if they wear gloves
• B. They may handle only pre-packaged food
• C. They may continue as long as they wash hands frequently
• D. They must not work with food while experiencing vomiting

20. Which symptom, on its own, requires a food handler to be kept from working with food?

• A. Jaundice
• B. A mild headache
• C. Seasonal sneezing without illness
• D. Muscle soreness

21. Which set of practices is used to prevent cross-contamination in a food operation?

• A. Storing all foods together to save space and rinsing equipment with water only
• B. Using one cutting board for all tasks and wiping it with a dry cloth
• C. Relying solely on cooking temperatures to eliminate any contamination
• D. Separating raw and ready-to-eat foods, using separate equipment, and cleaning and sanitizing surfaces

22. A prep cook has just cut raw chicken on a cutting board and now needs to slice lettuce for a salad. Which action best prevents cross-contamination?

• A. Use separate equipment for the lettuce and clean and sanitize the surface
• B. Wipe the board with a dry towel and continue
• C. Slice the lettuce on the same board immediately to save time
• D. Rinse the board with cool water and reuse it right away

23. A guest asks whether a dish is safe for a peanut allergy. Which grouping correctly reflects the major food allergens the staff should screen for?

• A. Milk, eggs, fish, shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, wheat, soy, and sesame
• B. Milk, eggs, fish, shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, rice, soy, and mustard
• C. Milk, beef, fish, shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, wheat, soy, and sesame
• D. Milk, eggs, corn, shellfish, tree nuts, peanuts, wheat, soy, and sesame

24. A prep cook finishes cutting raw chicken on a cutting board and immediately wants to use the same board to slice fresh vegetables for a salad. According to the practices covered for preventing cross-contamination, what is the correct action before the board touches the ready-to-eat produce?

• A. Rinse the board with cold water only and reuse it right away
• B. Let the board air-dry for a few minutes, then reuse it
• C. Wipe the board with a dry paper towel and continue
• D. Clean and sanitize the board, or switch to separate equipment for the raw and ready-to-eat foods

25. Which of the following is identified as one of the three core methods for preventing cross-contamination in a food operation?

• A. Reheating ready-to-eat foods before service
• B. Labeling every container with the supplier's name
• C. Freezing all incoming produce on delivery
• D. Cleaning and sanitizing surfaces

26. A manager is training new staff on why surfaces must be cleaned AND sanitized (not just cleaned) between tasks. Which explanation is best supported by the food-safety practices covered?

• A. Sanitizing is only required at the end of the shift, never between tasks
• B. Sanitizing surfaces is one of the recognized ways to prevent cross-contamination between foods
• C. Cleaning surfaces makes sanitizing unnecessary
• D. Sanitizing is only needed on floors and walls, not food-contact surfaces

27. A line cook washes their hands correctly and then handles ready-to-eat food, but the prep table underneath was never sanitized after raw fish was portioned on it. Based on the covered prevention methods, what gap remains in the operation's practice?

• A. No gap remains, because clean hands eliminate the need to sanitize surfaces
• B. The only remaining step is to increase the handwashing time
• C. The food-contact surface still needs to be cleaned and sanitized to fully prevent cross-contamination
• D. The table only needs to be sanitized if the fish was frozen

28. An operation plans to use one set of cutting boards and knives for raw poultry and a physically separate set for salad greens. Which prevention method does this practice represent?

• A. Using separate equipment for raw and ready-to-eat foods
• B. Cooling food in two stages
• C. Holding hot food at 135°F or higher
• D. Cooking poultry to a minimum internal temperature

29. During a shift, a food handler develops diarrhea. Beyond cleaning and sanitizing the station, what does exclusion guidance require for this worker?

• A. The worker may continue as long as they wear gloves
• B. The worker must not work with food while experiencing that symptom
• C. The worker may keep handling food after washing hands for 20 seconds
• D. The worker only needs to move to a different prep table

30. A trainee claims that as long as a food-contact surface is separated from raw foods, cleaning and sanitizing that surface is optional. How should this claim be evaluated against the covered practices?

• A. Incorrect — but only because handwashing replaces sanitizing
• B. Incorrect — cleaning and sanitizing surfaces is itself a listed prevention method, not an optional add-on
• C. Correct — separation alone removes the need to clean and sanitize
• D. Correct — sanitizing is only for equipment, never for surfaces

31. After portioning raw ground meat on a work surface, a cook wants to prepare a ready-to-eat sandwich on the same spot. Which single action most directly reduces the risk of transferring pathogens from the raw meat residue to the sandwich?

• A. Extending the handwashing time beyond 20 seconds
• B. Holding the sandwich at 41°F or lower after assembly
• C. Cooking the ground meat to a higher internal temperature
• D. Cleaning and sanitizing the work surface before using it for the sandwich

32. A food handler is diagnosed with Norovirus. Aside from cleaning and sanitizing the areas where they worked, what does the exclusion guidance direct regarding this person's food work?

• A. They may keep working with food if they feel well enough
• B. They may work with food after a single 20-second handwash
• C. They must not work with food, because Norovirus is a diagnosis that triggers exclusion
• D. They may work only with ready-to-eat foods

33. A guest orders a beer and hands the server a passport as proof of age. Which characteristic is required for this passport to count as acceptable identification?

• A. It must include the guest's home address and signature
• B. It must be issued by the same state as the establishment
• C. It must have been issued within the last six months
• D. It must be a government-issued photo ID that is unexpired

34. Which of the following is an acceptable form of identification to verify a customer's age before serving alcohol?

• A. A valid, unexpired military ID
• B. A photocopy of a birth certificate
• C. A credit card bearing the customer's name
• D. A student ID card from a university

35. A server notices a patron speaking with slurred speech and struggling to keep their balance while walking to the bar. These observations are best described as:

• A. Evidence the patron's blood alcohol concentration has already returned to normal
• B. Symptoms that require food-handler exclusion
• C. Signs of intoxication
• D. Indicators that the patron's ID is fraudulent

36. Which behavior would NOT, on its own, be considered a sign of intoxication a server should watch for?

• A. Glassy or bloodshot eyes
• B. Impaired balance
• C. Paying the bill with a credit card
• D. Lowered inhibitions or aggressive behavior

37. A visibly intoxicated guest asks the server how they can sober up quickly before driving home. What is the most accurate response?

• A. Only the passage of time will lower their blood alcohol concentration
• B. Drinking several glasses of water will lower their blood alcohol concentration
• C. Eating a large meal will lower their blood alcohol concentration
• D. Black coffee will lower their blood alcohol concentration

38. An establishment continues serving drinks to a patron who is visibly intoxicated, and that patron later causes an injury. Under which type of law can the establishment be held legally liable?

• A. Cooling-time laws
• B. Cross-contamination laws
• C. Exclusion laws
• D. Dram shop laws

39. Which pair of circumstances can expose an establishment to liability under dram shop laws when a served patron later causes injury?

• A. The patron was a first-time guest, or the patron tipped poorly
• B. The patron was visibly intoxicated, or the patron was a minor
• C. The patron ordered food, or the patron used a rideshare
• D. The patron paid in cash, or the patron sat at the bar

40. A guest with a severe shellfish allergy orders grilled chicken. The line cook intends to cook it on the section of the flat-top that was just used for shrimp, wiping it down with a damp side towel first. How should the manager respond to this plan?

• A. The chicken should simply be cooked to a higher internal temperature to break down any residual allergen
• B. The chicken must be cooked on a cleaned and sanitized surface with clean utensils, because cooking does not destroy allergen proteins
• C. The wipe is sufficient, because the heat of the flat-top denatures and destroys allergen proteins
• D. The wipe is sufficient as long as the cook changes gloves before plating the chicken

41. An operation runs a high-temperature warewashing machine. How should the manager verify that dishes coming out of it have actually been sanitized rather than merely washed?

• A. Confirm that the dishes leave the machine visibly clean, completely dry and hot enough to be uncomfortable to pick up
• B. Confirm the final rinse meets the temperature on the machine's data plate, and use a maximum registering thermometer or heat-sensitive strip on the dish surface
• C. Test the water from the final rinse with a chlorine test kit at the start of each shift and record the reading on the warewashing log
• D. Rely on the machine's built-in gauges, since they were calibrated when the machine was installed and are read at the start of every shift

42. A deli slicer runs continuously through a five-hour lunch shift on one single product, with no change of food and no break in the work. How often must it be cleaned and sanitized during that stretch, and on what reasoning?

• A. Only at the end of the shift, because the product being sliced never changed
• B. Every four hours of constant use, because pathogens multiply in the residue left on the surface
• C. Every two hours, matching the first stage of the cooling process
• D. Only when a different food is introduced to the slicer

43. A manager wants hoods, walk-in shelving and floor drains cleaned on a reliable cycle rather than whenever somebody happens to notice them. What must an effective master cleaning schedule specify?

• A. What must be cleaned, who is responsible for cleaning it, when it must be cleaned, and how it is to be cleaned
• B. The list of cleaning chemicals approved for use in the operation and the dilution rate for each of them
• C. The frequency at which each food-contact surface in the operation must be cleaned and then sanitized
• D. The order in which items pass through the three compartments of the manual warewashing sink

44. Three separate guests telephone within an hour to report illness after eating the same menu item yesterday evening. What should the manager do first?

• A. Discard all remaining product of that item immediately, clean and sanitize the station where it was prepared, and reopen as normal the following day
• B. Wait for a fourth complaint before taking any action, since three reports arriving within an hour of each other could easily be a coincidence
• C. Gather details from each caller, including exactly what was eaten and when symptoms began, segregate and label any suspect product so it is not thrown out, and contact the regulatory authority
• D. Interview the staff who worked that station during the shift in question and take no further action unless one of them admits to a mistake

45. A cook with an uncovered infected cut on one finger prepares a large batch of chicken salad by hand, and the salad sits at room temperature for five hours before service. Guests fall ill within four hours of eating it. The manager asks whether reheating the remaining salad to 165 degrees Fahrenheit would make it safe to serve.

• A. Yes, because reheating to 165 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds destroys the organism responsible
• B. Yes, provided the salad is reheated within two hours and then held at 135 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. No, because the salad has been in the danger zone too long, although reheating would destroy the toxin
• D. No, because the illness is caused by a heat-stable toxin that reheating will not destroy

46. A large stockpot of beef gravy is cooked in the morning, left on the back of the range at roughly 120 degrees Fahrenheit all afternoon, and served at dinner. Several guests report abdominal cramps and diarrhea about 12 hours later, with no vomiting and no fever. Which organism best fits this outbreak?

• A. Listeria monocytogenes
• B. Hepatitis A
• C. Clostridium perfringens
• D. Norovirus

47. A hospital kitchen serves ready-to-eat deli meats and soft cheeses that have been correctly held at 38 degrees Fahrenheit for six days. A pregnant patient develops a severe illness traced to that food. Which characteristic of the responsible organism explains why correct cold holding did not prevent the illness?

• A. It continues to multiply at refrigeration temperatures
• B. It requires the anaerobic environment created by vacuum packaging
• C. It is a virus and therefore does not need food in order to multiply
• D. It produces a toxin that survives normal cooking temperatures

48. An operation traces an outbreak of vomiting and diarrhea to raw oysters harvested from water contaminated with human sewage. Which pair of organisms is most commonly associated with shellfish taken from sewage-contaminated water?

• A. Bacillus cereus and Clostridium perfringens
• B. Staphylococcus aureus and Listeria monocytogenes
• C. Hepatitis A and Norovirus
• D. Clostridium botulinum and Campylobacter jejuni

49. A kitchen cooks a large batch of rice in the morning, holds it uncovered at room temperature until the dinner rush, and then stir-fries it to order. Guests report sudden vomiting one to five hours after eating. Which organism is most strongly associated with this pattern?

• A. Shigella species
• B. Vibrio vulnificus
• C. Campylobacter jejuni
• D. Bacillus cereus

50. A guest eating seared tuna develops flushing, a peppery or metallic taste in the mouth, headache and hives within minutes of the first bite. The kitchen confirms the tuna loin sat on a prep counter for several hours before it was portioned and cooked. What is the most likely cause?

• A. An allergic reaction to a protein naturally present in tuna
• B. Histamine formed by bacteria during time-temperature abuse of the fish
• C. Ciguatera toxin that accumulated in the fish before it was harvested
• D. Sanitizer residue left on the prep surface where the loin was portioned

51. A chef wants to add barracuda and large amberjack taken from a tropical reef to the menu. Which hazard should concern the chef most, and can the kitchen control it after receiving the fish?

• A. Vibrio bacteria, which are controlled by cooking the fish thoroughly
• B. Ciguatera toxin, which is not destroyed by cooking or by freezing
• C. Parasites, which are controlled by freezing the fish before service
• D. Histamine, which is controlled by holding the fish at 41 degrees Fahrenheit or lower

52. An operation plans to serve house-cured salmon that will never be cooked before it reaches the guest. What must the operation do about the parasite hazard, and what record keeping goes with it?

• A. Serve the salmon only to adults, since parasites are a hazard only for highly susceptible populations
• B. Cure the salmon in salt for at least 24 hours, which destroys any parasites present
• C. Buy fish that the supplier has frozen to the required time and temperature, and keep the supplier's documentation on file
• D. Hold the salmon at 41 degrees Fahrenheit or lower for seven days before serving it

53. A bartender stores a batch of freshly squeezed lemonade overnight in a galvanized tub, and a cook holds tomato sauce in an unlined copper pot. Why do both practices create a chemical hazard rather than a biological one?

• A. Metal containers create the anaerobic conditions that Clostridium botulinum needs
• B. The metal reacts with residual chlorine sanitizer to form a toxic compound
• C. The metal neutralizes the acid, raising the pH so that pathogens can multiply
• D. Acidic foods can leach metals such as zinc and copper out of the container into the food

54. A restaurant blends raw garlic into oil and keeps the jar on the cook line at room temperature so it is ready throughout the week. Which hazard does this create, and what control removes it?

• A. Listeria growth, controlled by using commercially pasteurized garlic
• B. Staphylococcus aureus growth, controlled by wearing single-use gloves while blending
• C. Bacillus cereus growth, controlled by discarding the mixture after four hours on the line
• D. Clostridium botulinum growth, controlled by refrigerating the mixture and discarding it at the end of its date-marked life

55. A dishwasher arrives for a shift and the manager notices that the whites of the employee's eyes are yellow. The employee says the discoloration started three days ago and has not seen a doctor. What must the manager do?

• A. Allow the employee to keep washing dishes, since dishware is not food
• B. Exclude the employee from the operation and notify the regulatory authority
• C. Send the employee home and allow a return after 24 hours without symptoms
• D. Restrict the employee to duties away from exposed food until the discoloration fades

56. A delicatessen outbreak is traced to a potato salad prepared by an employee who did not wash hands correctly, in a kitchen that also has a persistent fly problem near the back door. Which organism is most closely associated with both poor hand hygiene and flies?

• A. Clostridium perfringens
• B. Shigella species
• C. Bacillus cereus
• D. Listeria monocytogenes

57. A supplier makes an overnight key drop delivery while the restaurant is closed, letting itself in and placing product directly into the walk-in cooler. When the manager arrives in the morning, what must be verified before this delivery can be accepted?

• A. Only that the product temperatures are correct, since an approved supplier working under contract is responsible for everything before the drop
• B. That the food came from an approved supplier, was placed in the correct storage area, was protected from contamination, and shows no sign of tampering
• C. Nothing may be accepted, because a delivery made while no employee of the operation is present can never satisfy the receiving requirements
• D. Only that the invoice matches the purchase order and that the delivery log was signed, since the paperwork is what an inspector asks to see

58. While checking in a case of canned tomatoes, a receiving clerk finds one can with a swollen end and one with a deep dent running along the side seam. What should the clerk do with these two cans?

• A. Accept both but label them for use within 24 hours
• B. Accept both, because the contents were commercially processed and are sterile
• C. Reject both, because swelling and seam damage each indicate the hermetic seal may be compromised
• D. Accept the swollen can and reject only the dented one, since dents damage the seal

59. A case of frozen shrimp arrives with large ice crystals over the product, a dried water stain on the bottom of the carton, and the individual shrimp frozen together into one solid block. What do these signs indicate and what is the correct action?

• A. The product thawed and was refrozen; reject the case
• B. Ordinary freezer burn; accept the case and rotate it to the front to be used first
• C. A packaging defect; accept the shrimp and transfer them to a new container
• D. The freezer truck ran colder than specified; accept the case and note it on the invoice

60. One delivery truck drops off four items at the same time. Which single item gives the receiving clerk grounds to reject the delivery on temperature alone?

• A. A case of peas that is frozen solid
• B. A case of fresh chicken measured at 50 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Fresh milk measured at 40 degrees Fahrenheit
• D. Hot soup delivered at 140 degrees Fahrenheit

61. An inspector asks a manager to produce the identification tags for a lot of live oysters that the kitchen finished serving and discarded last week. How long must the operation keep those tags, and from what date is the clock counted?

• A. 90 days from the date the last shellfish was used from that container
• B. 7 days from the date the container was first opened
• C. 30 days from the date the container was received
• D. Only until the next routine inspection, whenever that occurs

62. A walk-in cooler has four shelves and must hold ready-to-eat pasta salad, raw salmon fillets, raw ground beef and whole raw chicken. Which top-to-bottom arrangement is correct, and what principle determines the order?

• A. Pasta salad, raw ground beef, raw salmon, whole chicken, ordered by how quickly each item spoils
• B. Whole chicken, raw ground beef, raw salmon, pasta salad, ordered by the weight of each package
• C. Raw salmon, pasta salad, whole chicken, raw ground beef, ordered by the delivery date of each item
• D. Pasta salad, raw salmon, raw ground beef, whole chicken, ordered by minimum internal cooking temperature

63. A manager walks through the dry storage room and finds sacks of flour and cases of canned goods stacked directly on the floor along the back wall. What clearance is required beneath stored food and what is the main reason for the rule?

• A. Twelve inches, so that air can circulate freely around the product
• B. Two inches, so that spills can be mopped up quickly
• C. Six inches, so that the floor can be cleaned and pests have nowhere to shelter
• D. No clearance is required as long as the floor is sealed and cleanable

64. A kitchen prepares a batch of tuna salad on Monday and holds it continuously at 41 degrees Fahrenheit. Assuming it is never used up, what is the last day it may be served, and how is the count made?

• A. Sunday, counting Monday as day one of a seven-day maximum
• B. Friday, counting Tuesday as day one of a five-day maximum
• C. Wednesday, counting 48 hours from the moment it was prepared
• D. There is no limit, as long as the salad stays at 41 degrees Fahrenheit or lower

65. During a walkthrough a manager finds a spray bottle of degreaser on the shelf directly above a bin of dry pasta, and a case of oven cleaner stored beside bags of sugar. Which statement identifies the rule that has been broken?

• A. Chemicals must be separated from food only in operations that serve a highly susceptible population
• B. Chemicals may share a shelving unit with food as long as they are stored on the lowest shelf
• C. Chemicals must be stored in a separate area away from food, utensils, linens and single-use items
• D. Chemicals may be stored beside food as long as every container is clearly labeled

66. A cook pours sanitizer solution into an unlabeled clear squeeze bottle identical to the one used for cooking oil, and transfers bulk salt from its original sack into an unmarked deli container. Which statement evaluates both actions correctly?

• A. Both are violations: chemical working containers and food removed from its original package must be labeled with the common name of the contents
• B. Only the salt is a violation, since chemical containers used within one shift are exempt from labeling
• C. Only the sanitizer is a violation, since salt is not a hazardous ingredient
• D. Neither is a violation, provided the same cook uses both containers during a single shift

67. A manager needs additional dry storage and considers three candidate locations: the space under an open stairwell, a room crossed by an exposed water line that drips occasionally, and a lockable room whose door opens onto the corridor beside the restrooms. Which assessment is correct?

• A. Only the stairwell is unacceptable, because of the foot traffic passing overhead
• B. The stairwell and the room with the dripping line are unacceptable; the lockable room off the corridor may be used
• C. All three are unacceptable, because food may only be stored inside the kitchen itself
• D. All three are acceptable as long as the food is kept in sealed containers

68. A regular guest offers to sell the restaurant jars of home-canned pickled vegetables, and a neighbor offers eggs from an uninspected backyard flock at half the wholesale price. How should the manager respond to these two offers?

• A. Accept both, because neither product is a time and temperature control for safety food
• B. Decline both, because food must be purchased from approved, reputable suppliers inspected under an applicable regulatory program
• C. Accept the pickles only, because the vinegar makes them shelf stable
• D. Accept both if the manager personally inspects the guest's kitchen and the neighbor's farm

69. A case of fresh whole fish arrives on ice. Which single observation gives the receiving clerk the strongest grounds to reject the case?

• A. Bright red gills and shiny, tightly attached scales
• B. Flesh that springs back immediately when pressed with a finger
• C. A mild, faintly briny smell close to the gills
• D. Dull, sunken eyes and flesh that holds an indentation when pressed

70. A cooler holds three identical pans of the same sauce, bearing discard dates of the 12th, the 9th and the 14th. A cook takes the pan closest to the door, which is the one dated the 14th. What is wrong with this and what rule corrects it?

• A. The newest product should be used first so it does not sit in the cooler and lose quality
• B. Nothing is wrong, because any pan still within its discard date may be used
• C. Product with the earliest discard date must be used first, so shelving should be arranged to bring that pan forward
• D. The three pans should be combined into a single pan and given a fresh discard date

71. A cook needs to thaw a case of frozen boneless chicken breasts for service tomorrow and weighs four options. Which one is an acceptable thawing method?

• A. Submerging the chicken in a sink of standing water held at 100 degrees Fahrenheit
• B. Placing the chicken in the walk-in cooler, where the product stays at 41 degrees Fahrenheit or lower
• C. Leaving the case on a prep table overnight at room temperature
• D. Setting the case beside the oven vent where the moving air is slightly warm

72. An operation thaws frozen fish fillets under running water in a designated prep sink. Which set of conditions makes this method acceptable?

• A. Water at 100 degrees Fahrenheit or higher to speed the thaw, with the sink drained and refilled every 30 minutes so particles do not accumulate
• B. Water at 70 degrees Fahrenheit or lower in a sink that is filled once and then left undisturbed until the fillets have thawed through the center
• C. Standing water at any temperature, provided the fillets go straight into the oven as soon as the last ice has gone from the center of the fish
• D. Potable water at 70 degrees Fahrenheit or lower, flowing strongly enough to carry loose particles into the overflow, with the fish never above 41 degrees Fahrenheit longer than four hours

73. A cook uses a microwave oven to cook raw chicken pieces that will be plated and served immediately. Which requirements apply when TCS food is cooked in a microwave rather than a conventional oven?

• A. Cook to 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds, then hold at 135 degrees Fahrenheit until the order is called
• B. Cook to 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds and serve it straight from the oven with no standing time
• C. Cook to 165 degrees Fahrenheit, cover the food, rotate or stir it partway through, and let it stand at least two minutes after cooking
• D. Cook to 165 degrees Fahrenheit uncovered, so that steam escapes and the heating stays even across the dish

74. A restaurant wants to partially cook chicken during slow afternoon periods, chill it, and finish cooking it to order during the dinner rush. Which combination of controls makes this practice acceptable?

• A. Par-cook the chicken to any temperature, freeze the product immediately, thaw it in the cooler, and finish it to the required minimum internal temperature
• B. Written procedures approved by the regulatory authority, an initial heating step of no more than 60 minutes, immediate cooling, separate storage from ready-to-eat food, and final cooking to the required minimum internal temperature
• C. Par-cook the chicken to 145 degrees Fahrenheit, hold it at 135 degrees Fahrenheit through the afternoon, and finish it to 165 degrees Fahrenheit within four hours
• D. It is never acceptable to interrupt the cooking of a TCS food, so the chicken must be cooked in one continuous step and served or hot-held from there

75. A menu offers steak tartare, a house Caesar dressing made with raw shell eggs, and hamburgers cooked to the temperature the guest requests. What must the operation provide, and what does that requirement not accomplish?

• A. A consumer advisory; once the advisory is printed on the menu, these items may be served on request to any guest in any setting
• B. Nothing, because the guest is the one choosing the level of doneness and therefore accepts the risk that goes with it
• C. A written waiver signed by each guest who orders one of these items, kept on file with the service records for that day
• D. A consumer advisory containing both a disclosure and a reminder; it does not make these items acceptable to serve to a highly susceptible population

76. A manager takes over foodservice at a nursing home and reviews a menu that includes a raw sprout salad, soft-poached eggs, fresh-squeezed unpasteurized orange juice and medium-rare roast beef. What menu change is required?

• A. Remove all raw produce from the menu
• B. Post a consumer advisory and continue serving every current item
• C. Remove raw seed sprouts and any undercooked eggs, meat or seafood, and switch to pasteurized eggs and pasteurized juice
• D. No change is needed, provided every item reaches the standard minimum internal cooking temperature

77. A kitchen roasts a whole beef top round and a sheet tray of bone-in pork chops in the same convection oven. Which minimum internal cooking requirement applies to each item?

• A. The roast to 165 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds and the chops to 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds
• B. Both to 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds
• C. Both to 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds
• D. The roast to 145 degrees Fahrenheit for four minutes and the chops to 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds

78. A pan of chili that was cooked and correctly cooled yesterday is going onto today's hot-holding line. What must happen to it before it is placed in the steam table well?

• A. Reheat it to 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds within four hours
• B. Reheat it to 165 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds within two hours
• C. Reheat it to 135 degrees Fahrenheit, since that is the minimum hot-holding temperature
• D. Place it cold in the steam table and let it come up to temperature there

79. During service a cook nests a container of hot soup in an ice bath to cool it, then scoops ice out of that same bath to fill a pitcher of iced tea for the dining room. What is the problem with this?

• A. The ice should have been rinsed with hot water before it went into the pitcher
• B. The only issue is the resulting temperature of the tea, not the source of the ice
• C. Ice used to cool food or food containers must never afterward be used as an ingredient
• D. There is no problem, provided the outside of the soup container was clean

80. A manager watches the self-service hot buffet for a few minutes and notes four things. Which observation is a violation that requires immediate correction?

• A. Every pan on the line has its own dedicated serving utensil
• B. Each pan is labeled with the name of the food it contains
• C. A sneeze guard extends across the full width of the serving line
• D. A guest returns to the line and refills the plate already used at the table

81. Between batches on the cook line a serving spoon is used repeatedly for mashed potatoes. Where may that in-use utensil be kept so that it does not have to be cleaned and sanitized every single time it is set down?

• A. In a container of standing room-temperature water beside the pan
• B. In the mashed potatoes themselves, with the handle extended above the rim of the container
• C. In a container of water held at 70 degrees Fahrenheit and changed once an hour
• D. Lying on a clean paper towel on the prep table until the end of the shift

82. A guest sends back a plate carrying an untouched dinner roll from the bread basket, an unopened packet of oyster crackers and a half-eaten salad. What, if anything, may be served to a different guest?

• A. Nothing from the plate may be served to another guest under any circumstances
• B. The roll and the crackers, since neither one was touched
• C. Only the unopened packet of oyster crackers
• D. Everything on the plate, provided it is first reheated to 165 degrees Fahrenheit

83. A prep cook scrubs whole cantaloupes under running water, cuts them into cubes, and leaves the full pan of cubes uncovered on the prep table for the afternoon. Which statement about this sequence is correct?

• A. Washing the rind was unnecessary because the rind is discarded, and the cubes may be held at room temperature until service
• B. The cubes require refrigeration only after four hours out, and washing the rind matters only for melon served with the rind attached
• C. Cut melon is a TCS food that must be held at 41 degrees Fahrenheit or lower, and washing the rind mattered because the knife carries surface contamination into the flesh
• D. Cut melon is not a TCS food, so leaving the pan at room temperature is acceptable, and washing the rind was the step that mattered

84. A caterer must move hot pans of lasagna and cold trays of shrimp cocktail 45 minutes by van to an outdoor event site. Which practice is required for this off-site service?

• A. Transport at any temperature, provided the food is served within four hours of leaving the kitchen and the pans stay covered in transit
• B. Pack the hot and cold items into one insulated carrier so their temperatures average out during the drive, then check them on arrival at the site
• C. Transport in insulated containers holding 135 degrees Fahrenheit or higher and 41 degrees Fahrenheit or lower, label each container with holding instructions, and confirm the site has safe water
• D. Let every item come to room temperature before loading, so that it heats and chills evenly once the equipment is set up on site

85. A breakfast operation cooks scrambled eggs two ways: one batch is plated to order and handed straight to the guest, and a second batch goes onto the steam table for a buffet. Which cooking requirement applies to each batch?

• A. Eggs for immediate service to 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds; eggs that will be hot-held to 165 degrees Fahrenheit
• B. Eggs for immediate service to 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds; eggs that will be hot-held to 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds
• C. 145 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds in both cases
• D. 155 degrees Fahrenheit for 17 seconds in both cases

86. A pizzeria wants to keep pans of sliced pepperoni and shredded cheese on the make line without refrigeration during the lunch rush. Both products come out of a cooler at 41 degrees Fahrenheit. What must be in place for this to be permitted, and what happens to whatever is left over?

• A. The pans may stay out all day, provided the product is stirred every hour and returned to the cooler at the end of service
• B. The pans may stay out for up to eight hours, provided the temperature of the product never rises above 70 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Each pan must be labeled with the time it must be discarded, held no longer than six hours and never above 70 degrees Fahrenheit, then thrown out
• D. Leftover product may be returned to the cooler and used the next day, provided it is still below 70 degrees Fahrenheit at that point

87. The waste line from an ice machine has been plumbed straight into the floor drain, with the end of the line resting below the rim of the drain where water sometimes stands. What hazard does this arrangement create, and what corrects it?

• A. A grease trap failure; correct it by having the trap pumped and cleaned weekly
• B. A cross-connection; correct it by installing a check valve on the water supply line feeding the ice machine
• C. A cross-connection that permits backflow; correct it by leaving an air gap between the end of the waste line and the drain
• D. A pest harborage; correct it by sealing around the drain with silicone

88. A manager inspects the handwashing sink nearest the cook line and finds running water at 100 degrees Fahrenheit and a working soap dispenser, plus a pump bottle of hand sanitizer someone set on the ledge. What is missing from this station?

• A. Only the sign is missing, since hand sanitizer is an acceptable way to clean and to dry the hands
• B. Nothing is missing, because the pump bottle of hand sanitizer on the ledge completes the station
• C. A means of drying hands, a waste container and a sign reminding staff to wash their hands; the hand sanitizer replaces none of these
• D. Only a waste container is missing, since staff may dry their hands on a clean apron or side towel

89. During a rush a cook rinses a colander of lettuce in the handwashing sink because both prep sinks are occupied. How should the manager respond to what has just happened?

• A. Stop it: a handwashing sink may be used only for handwashing, and this lettuce must be discarded
• B. Stop it going forward, but let this batch of lettuce go out since it was rinsed in potable water
• C. Allow it, because the sink supplies potable running water
• D. Allow it, provided the sink is cleaned and sanitized immediately afterward

90. A restaurant is remodeling its prep kitchen and the contractor proposes unsealed wooden shelving, a carpeted runner at the entrance to the walk-in, and a square right-angle joint where the floor meets the wall. Which objection should the manager raise?

• A. None of the three is a problem, provided every surface in the room is cleaned thoroughly at the end of each day
• B. All three fail: surfaces in food-prep areas must be smooth, durable and nonabsorbent, and the floor-to-wall joint should be coved so it can be cleaned
• C. Only the carpet is a problem, because it holds moisture and cannot be cleaned to a food-preparation standard
• D. Only the shelving is a problem, because unsealed wood is porous and cannot be properly cleaned and sanitized

91. An inspector cites an operation for inadequate lighting at the station where a cook operates a slicer. What lighting intensity is required in areas where employees work with food, utensils and equipment, and why is the requirement higher there than elsewhere?

• A. 10 foot-candles, the same as a walk-in cooler, because the equipment supplies its own task lighting
• B. 100 foot-candles, matching the level required in dining rooms during service
• C. 50 foot-candles, so staff can see soil on surfaces and work safely with sharp equipment
• D. 20 foot-candles, the same level required at handwashing and warewashing stations

92. The closing dish crew has been rinsing out the indoor garbage cans in the vegetable prep sink each night because it is the largest basin in the kitchen. What is wrong with this routine and where should the work be done?

• A. The cans should be run through the dish machine instead, since heat sanitizing is more thorough than washing by hand
• B. The cans do not require cleaning at all, as long as heavy-duty plastic liners are used and changed every night
• C. Nothing is wrong, provided the vegetable prep sink is cleaned and sanitized immediately afterward each night
• D. Garbage containers must be cleaned away from food, prep areas and clean equipment, in a designated area served by a utility sink

93. A kitchen props its back door open every morning for a long delivery window, and flies and rodents have become a problem. Which set of measures best applies the principle of denying pests access to the building?

• A. Keeping all dry goods in sealed containers and sweeping and mopping the floors nightly
• B. Fitting a self-closing door with tight screening, sealing gaps around pipes and the door frame, and installing an air curtain
• C. Setting glue boards inside the doorway and spraying pesticide along the threshold each week
• D. Signing a contract with a pest control operator for a monthly inspection of the building

94. Staff report a strong oily odor near the dish area. Investigating, the manager finds dark specks resembling coarsely ground pepper along a wall seam and several small brown capsule-shaped shells tucked behind the equipment legs. What do these findings indicate?

• A. A fly breeding site in the floor drain
• B. A cockroach infestation
• C. A rodent infestation
• D. Mold growth in the wall cavity behind the equipment

95. A manager buys a consumer insecticide at a hardware store, pours it into a clearly labeled spray bottle, and has a line cook apply it along the kitchen baseboards after close. Which statement identifies the errors in this plan?

• A. There is no error, because the spray bottle was clearly labeled and the application happened outside of service hours
• B. The only error is applying the product after close rather than first thing in the morning before the operation opens
• C. Pesticides must be applied by a licensed pest control operator and kept in their original containers, stored away from food and food-contact items
• D. The only error is buying a consumer product at a hardware store rather than a commercial-strength professional one

96. Twenty minutes before dinner service, a sewage line backs up through the kitchen floor drain and spreads across part of the prep area. What is the correct sequence of actions?

• A. Shift prep to the far side of the kitchen, continue service, and notify the regulatory authority the next business day
• B. Stop service immediately, notify the regulatory authority, and reopen only after receiving its approval
• C. Mop up the backup, sanitize the floor, and continue service while a plumber is called
• D. Close only the affected section of the kitchen and keep serving items prepared elsewhere in the building

97. A rural operation draws its water from a private well on the property and also maintains a separate nonpotable line that supplies the fire sprinkler system. Which statement about these two water sources is correct?

• A. Both lines may feed a single system, as long as a check valve is installed to separate the potable side from the nonpotable side
• B. A private well may not be used by a foodservice operation under any circumstances, because well water cannot be held to a potable standard
• C. The well may be used only if it is tested and approved as a safe source, and the nonpotable line must be clearly identified and never connected to the potable system
• D. The nonpotable line may supply the warewashing machine, as long as the final rinse water reaches 180 degrees Fahrenheit

98. An operation buys a used floor-model mixer at a restaurant auction and sets it directly on the kitchen floor tight against the wall. Which two problems should the manager identify before the mixer is put into service?

• A. The mixer requires a dedicated electrical circuit of its own, and it must be positioned beneath a ventilation hood before it is put into service
• B. The equipment should carry the certification mark of a recognized standards agency, and stationary floor equipment must sit on legs raising it at least six inches or be sealed to a masonry base
• C. Used equipment may never be purchased for a food operation, and all kitchen equipment must be mounted on casters so it can be moved for cleaning
• D. The mixer must be inspected and approved by the regulatory authority before it is used, and it must stand at least three feet away from any wall

99. A kitchen mixes its chlorine solution to exactly the right strength, but staff spray a prep table and immediately wipe it dry with a paper towel so the next task can begin. Which of the five factors governing sanitizer effectiveness is being defeated?

• A. The pH of the solution
• B. Concentration
• C. Water hardness
• D. Contact time

100. A cook mixes a fresh bucket of quaternary ammonium solution and judges the strength by how slippery it feels and how strongly it smells. What must be used instead, and what is the consequence of a solution that is too strong?

• A. A pH meter; an overly strong solution corrodes stainless steel but is otherwise harmless
• B. Nothing, because sanitizer concentration cannot be measured inside an operation
• C. A thermometer; an overly strong solution simply works faster and is not a concern
• D. A test kit made for that specific sanitizer; an overly strong solution can leave a toxic residue on food-contact surfaces

101. Two operations sanitize their prep surfaces with different chemicals, each mixed to the correct concentration and used at the correct water temperature. Which statement about the required contact time is accurate?

• A. Contact time is irrelevant so long as the concentration is correct, because concentration alone determines the rate of kill
• B. Every chemical sanitizer requires the same contact time of 30 seconds, regardless of which chemical the operation has chosen
• C. Contact time varies by chemical: chlorine requires the shortest of the three common sanitizers, while iodine and quats require longer
• D. Contact time applies only to heat sanitizing in a warewashing machine, not to chemical sanitizing on a work surface

102. A dish area uses a three-compartment sink to wash pots and pans by hand. Which sequence of steps is correct, and what is the minimum temperature for the detergent water?

• A. Scrape and pre-rinse, wash in detergent at least 110 degrees Fahrenheit, rinse in clean water, sanitize, then air dry
• B. Rinse, wash, sanitize, then air dry; detergent water at least 180 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Wash, rinse, sanitize, then towel dry; detergent water at least 75 degrees Fahrenheit
• D. Wash, sanitize, rinse, then air dry; detergent water at least 110 degrees Fahrenheit

103. A server keeps one damp cloth tucked into an apron all shift and uses it both to wipe down dining tables and to wipe stray sauce off plate rims before running food. What is the correct practice for wiping cloths?

• A. One damp cloth per server per shift is acceptable, provided it is rinsed under hot running water at least once every hour of service
• B. Cloths may be carried in an apron pocket between uses, as long as every cloth is laundered at the end of the night
• C. Wiping cloths are prohibited outright in a food operation; only single-use paper towels may be used on any surface
• D. Cloths used on food-contact surfaces must sit in sanitizer at the correct concentration between uses, and separate cloths must serve nonfood-contact surfaces

104. At close, a porter empties the mop bucket into the floor drain nearest the vegetable prep table, then leans the wet mop head-down against the dry storage room wall to dry overnight. Identify the problems with this routine.

• A. Mop water must be emptied into a designated utility or service sink, and cleaning tools must be air dried and stored in a designated area away from food and food-prep areas
• B. Mop water should be emptied into the three-compartment sink, and the mop stored on a rack beside it so that it drips into the basin
• C. Neither action is a problem, provided the mop head is laundered once a week and the floor drain is flushed out afterward
• D. Mop water may be emptied into any floor drain in the building, but the mop itself must be stored hanging in the dish area to dry

105. A guest vomits on the dining room floor a few feet from the self-service beverage station during a busy service. What must the operation already have in place, and what is the immediate priority?

• A. The operation must close for the remainder of the day and must obtain written approval from the regulatory authority before it may reopen the dining room
• B. No specific written procedure is required; a porter should mop the area with the standard floor cleaner and set out a wet floor sign until it dries
• C. A written procedure for responding to vomiting and diarrheal events; the immediate priority is to segregate the area, protect nearby food and surfaces, and clean and disinfect according to that procedure
• D. The area should be sprayed with quaternary ammonium at the normal wiping-cloth concentration, wiped dry, and returned to service immediately

106. A manager tests every sanitizer bucket on the line and finds the concentration correct, yet swab tests taken from the prep tables still come back poor week after week. Which explanation is the most likely?

• A. The tables are stainless steel, and chemical sanitizers are not effective on stainless surfaces
• B. The tables are not being cleaned of soil before the sanitizer is applied, and the solution is being wiped away before the required contact time has elapsed
• C. The sanitizer is mixed too strong, and excess concentration neutralizes the chemical's own activity on contact
• D. The buckets used on the line are too large, which dilutes the solution over the course of a shift

107. A team building a HACCP plan for a new sous vide program has finished listing every biological, chemical and physical hazard likely to occur at each step in the flow of food. Which principle must they apply next?

• A. Determine critical control points, the steps where an identified hazard can be prevented, eliminated or reduced to a safe level
• B. Establish critical limits, the measurable boundaries that must be met at each step of the process
• C. Identify corrective actions, the predetermined responses to be taken whenever a limit is not met
• D. Establish monitoring procedures, the checks that confirm each step is performing as intended

108. In a HACCP plan for cooking chicken, one entry reads that the product must reach 165 degrees Fahrenheit, and another reads that the cook will probe two pieces from every batch with a calibrated thermometer and record the readings on a log. Which two principles do these entries represent?

• A. The first is a critical control point and the second is a record-keeping procedure
• B. The first is a corrective action and the second is verification
• C. Both entries are critical limits
• D. The first is a critical limit and the second is a monitoring procedure

109. A cook probing a batch of chicken finds that it reached only 150 degrees Fahrenheit at the end of the cook time. The response written into the operation's HACCP plan for exactly this situation illustrates which principle, and what would an appropriate response be?

• A. Monitoring; probe a second piece from the same batch and record that reading
• B. Corrective action; keep cooking the chicken until it reaches the critical limit
• C. Hazard analysis; add undercooking to the list of hazards identified for that step
• D. Verification; recalibrate the thermometer and note the reading in the log

110. An operation is considering four changes to its business. Which one most clearly requires it to obtain a variance from the regulatory authority and to submit a HACCP plan?

• A. Packaging fresh fish in reduced-oxygen packaging on site for retail sale
• B. Extending hot-holding hours on the lunch buffet by one hour
• C. Adding a house salad dressing made with commercially pasteurized eggs
• D. Installing a second high-temperature warewashing machine in the dish area

111. Active managerial control means designing the operation around the risk factors that actually cause illness. Which list correctly names the common risk factors identified as responsible for most foodborne illness?

• A. Poor personal hygiene, too few handwashing sinks, chemical storage errors, unapproved suppliers, and improper thawing
• B. Failing to date mark, failing to cool correctly, failing to calibrate thermometers, failing to train staff, and failing to document procedures
• C. Purchasing food from unsafe sources, failing to cook food adequately, allergen cross-contact, pest infestation, and inadequate lighting
• D. Purchasing food from unsafe sources, failing to cook food adequately, holding food at incorrect temperatures, using contaminated equipment, and practicing poor personal hygiene

112. An inspector arrives unannounced in the middle of lunch service and asks to see temperature logs and shellstock identification tags. How should the manager handle the visit?

• A. Ask the inspector to come back after service, because an unannounced visit during a rush is not permitted
• B. Refuse to sign the report, since a signature amounts to agreeing with every finding in it
• C. Hand over the records but decline to accompany the inspector, so as not to appear to influence the findings
• D. Cooperate, ask for identification, accompany the inspector throughout, take notes, provide the records requested, and sign the report at the end

113. During an inspection the regulatory authority finds that the building has no hot water anywhere and no prospect of restoring it that day. What authority does the inspector have, and what determines when the operation may reopen?

• A. The inspector may levy a fine but has no power to restrict the operation's activity
• B. The inspector may issue a written warning only, and the operation may keep trading while the problem is fixed
• C. The inspector may suspend the permit to operate; the operation may reopen only once the problem is corrected and the authority approves
• D. The inspector must obtain a court order before any operation can be required to close

114. A new manager is confused about which agency does what. Which statement correctly describes the respective roles of the FDA, the USDA, and state or local health departments?

• A. The CDC writes the Food Code and inspects restaurants, while the FDA and USDA regulate imported food only
• B. The FDA inspects restaurants directly, the USDA writes the Food Code, and state authorities license individual food handlers
• C. The USDA writes the Food Code, the FDA inspects meat and poultry plants, and the CDC inspects restaurants
• D. The FDA writes the Food Code as a recommendation, the USDA inspects meat, poultry and egg products, and state or local authorities adopt food regulations and inspect restaurants

115. After an illness complaint, a manager discovers that new hires have been learning the cooling procedure informally, by watching whoever happened to be training them on their first day. Which element of active managerial control is missing?

• A. A larger number of thermometers distributed around the kitchen
• B. A written, consistent training program with documented completion and periodic retraining
• C. More frequent inspections by the regulatory authority
• D. A stricter uniform and jewelry policy for kitchen staff

116. A cook checks a batch of chili exactly two hours after it came off the heat and finds it sitting at 90 degrees Fahrenheit. What are the only acceptable ways to handle this batch?

• A. Keep cooling it and allow the remaining four hours to bring it down to 41 degrees Fahrenheit
• B. Hold it at 90 degrees Fahrenheit and reheat it to 165 degrees Fahrenheit immediately before service
• C. Reheat it to 165 degrees Fahrenheit for 15 seconds and begin the cooling process again from the start, or discard it
• D. Transfer it to the freezer and continue the process as normal

117. A kitchen keeps failing the first stage of the cooling process with large batches of stock left in the original stockpot. Which combination of changes will most directly fix the problem?

• A. Divide the stock into shallow pans, use an ice-water bath with stirring or an ice paddle, and leave containers loosely covered until chilled
• B. Move the pots to the coolest corner of the kitchen, stir them once an hour, and refrigerate them once they stop steaming
• C. Leave the stock in the original pots, cover them tightly, and set them on the top shelf of the walk-in cooler overnight
• D. Combine each hot batch with an equal quantity of already-chilled stock so that the two average out to a safe temperature

118. A bimetallic stemmed thermometer placed in a slurry of crushed ice and water settles at a reading of 36 degrees Fahrenheit. What does this tell the manager, and what must be done about it?

• A. It is within tolerance, so no action is needed
• B. It is reading four degrees high and must be adjusted to read 32 degrees Fahrenheit while still in the slurry, or else taken out of service
• C. It is reading four degrees low and must be adjusted to read 40 degrees Fahrenheit
• D. It should be calibrated in boiling water instead, because an ice-water slurry is not a valid reference point

119. A cook checks a whole roasted turkey breast by pushing the tip of a bimetallic stemmed thermometer about half an inch below the surface and reading the dial. Why is this reading unreliable?

• A. Only an infrared thermometer gives an accurate reading on poultry, because it does not disturb the surface of the meat
• B. The thermometer should be inserted into the body cavity of the bird rather than into the meat, where the reading runs high
• C. The sensing area runs from the tip to the dimple, so the stem must go in at least to the dimple, in the thickest part and away from bone
• D. Bimetallic stemmed thermometers may not be used on cooked poultry at all; only a thermocouple is acceptable for that purpose

120. A manager walks the hot-holding line with an infrared thermometer, aims it at each pan, and records the resulting numbers on the log as the internal temperatures of the food. What is wrong with this practice?

• A. Nothing is wrong, provided the infrared thermometer is calibrated at least once a month and logged
• B. Infrared thermometers must be held within one inch of the food surface for the reading to be valid
• C. Infrared thermometers read surface temperature only and cannot verify internal temperature, so a probe thermometer is required for the log
• D. Infrared thermometers may be used only on cold food and never on hot food coming off a steam table

121. A cook reads the walk-in cooler's built-in air thermometer at 38 degrees Fahrenheit and, on that basis, logs every product inside the unit as compliant without probing anything. Why is this insufficient?

• A. Only freezers require product temperature checks; coolers may be logged from the unit's own built-in air reading alone
• B. The requirement applies to the internal temperature of the food itself, which can sit well above the air temperature after recent stocking or a long door-open period
• C. Air temperature and product temperature are always identical in a refrigeration unit that is functioning properly and holding at 41 degrees Fahrenheit
• D. Walk-in coolers are not required to have a built-in air thermometer, so the reading the cook took has no regulatory standing at all

122. A pan of chicken salad is prepped at 9 a.m., left on the prep table for an hour, refrigerated until 11:30 a.m., set out on the service line for two hours through lunch, and then returned to refrigeration. How should the manager account for the time this product has spent in the danger zone?

• A. Only continuous intervals longer than two hours count toward the limit
• B. Refrigeration between intervals cancels the time already accumulated
• C. Time in the danger zone accumulates across the whole flow of food, and once the total reaches four hours the product must be discarded
• D. Each interval resets once the food goes back into refrigeration, so no limit has been approached

123. A newly promoted supervisor tells the crew that freezing kills pathogens, so any product that was temperature-abused can be made safe by putting it into the freezer. How should the manager correct this?

• A. Freezing kills bacteria only when the product is held below zero degrees Fahrenheit for at least 30 continuous days
• B. Freezing destroys all bacteria present in the food but has no effect on viruses, which survive and resume activity on thawing
• C. Freezing is a form of pasteurization and can be substituted for cooking when the product will be served cold
• D. Freezing generally halts the growth of pathogens without destroying them, and it does not reverse toxin already formed or time already spent in the danger zone

124. A line cook puts on single-use gloves at the start of service, forms raw hamburger patties for twenty minutes, then plates a green salad while still wearing the same gloves, reasoning that the gloves touched nothing but food. What is wrong with this?

• A. Gloves are not required at all for this work, provided the cook washed both hands thoroughly at the start of service
• B. The gloves should have been washed with soap and water at the handwashing sink between the two tasks and then put back on
• C. Gloves must be changed, and hands washed, whenever the cook starts a different task, whenever the gloves become soiled or torn, and after handling raw meat
• D. Nothing is wrong, because the gloves were clean when service began and have touched nothing but food since then

125. A bartender scoops ice into a glass with the designated scoop, then reaches into the garnish tray with bare fingers to drop in a lemon wedge and a sprig of mint. Which part of this sequence breaks the rule on ready-to-eat food?

• A. Only the use of the ice scoop, because ice must be dispensed by the machine directly into the glass without a scoop entering the bin
• B. Neither action, because the bartender is working behind a service bar rather than in a food-preparation area of the kitchen
• C. Adding the lemon wedge and mint by hand, because bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food is not permitted; tongs, deli tissue or single-use gloves must be used
• D. Both actions, since ice and cut garnishes present an identical hazard and neither one may be handled with a utensil

126. A prep cook reports for a shift wearing a plain wedding band, a wristwatch, long acrylic nails finished with polish, and no hair restraint. Which of these must be addressed before the cook may work with food?

• A. Only the hair restraint, since jewelry and fingernails are matters of personal appearance rather than of food safety
• B. All jewelry including the plain band must be removed, while nails and hair remain a matter of the employee's own preference
• C. Nothing needs to change, provided the cook wears single-use gloves for the entire shift and changes them every hour
• D. The watch and any jewelry beyond a plain band must come off, the nails must be short, clean and unpolished or else covered with gloves, and a hair restraint must be worn

127. A cook keeps an open can of soda on the prep table and chews gum while portioning salad greens. Which assessment of these two habits is correct?

• A. Chewing gum is acceptable anywhere in the operation, while drinks are never permitted in any part of the building at any time
• B. Neither is acceptable in a prep area; staff may drink only from a covered container with a lid and straw, in a place where a spill cannot contaminate food, hands or surfaces
• C. Both are acceptable in a prep area, as long as the cook washes both hands thoroughly before returning to the salad greens
• D. Both are acceptable in this situation because neither habit involves the cook touching the food directly with hands or mouth

128. A food handler reports a sore throat accompanied by a fever. What action is required in an ordinary restaurant, and how does the required action change if the same employee works in a nursing home kitchen?

• A. Exclude the employee from the operation in both settings for 24 hours, and then allow a return to normal duties
• B. No action is required in either setting unless the employee also develops vomiting, diarrhea or jaundice
• C. Restrict the employee from working with or around exposed food in an ordinary restaurant, and exclude the employee entirely where a highly susceptible population is served
• D. Restrict the employee from working with exposed food in both settings, until a written release from a medical practitioner is produced

129. An employee tells a manager, in passing, that someone in the employee's household has just been diagnosed with an illness caused by one of the pathogens that operations are required to report. What obligation does this create?

• A. The employee must be permanently excluded from the operation and may not return to any food-handling role
• B. Employees must report when they or a household member are diagnosed with one of these illnesses, and the manager must notify the regulatory authority
• C. The manager must close the operation until the household member has recovered and been cleared by a physician
• D. None, because the reporting requirement covers only an employee's own diagnosis, not that of anyone else in the household