CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst+ (CySA+) Flashcards

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  1. What four domains make up the CySA+ (CS0-003) exam objectives?

    Security Operations; Vulnerability Management; Incident Response and Management; and Reporting and Communication.

  2. What is the primary goal of threat intelligence in security operations?

    To collect, process, and analyze data about adversary capabilities, infrastructure, and intent so defenders can proactively adjust controls and detection rather than react blindly.

  3. What does the Cyber Kill Chain describe?

    A sequential model of attacker stages — reconnaissance, weaponization, delivery, exploitation, installation, command and control, and actions on objectives — used to identify where defenses can interrupt an attack.

  4. How does the MITRE ATT&CK framework differ from the Cyber Kill Chain?

    ATT&CK is a matrix of real-world adversary tactics and techniques organized by objective (not strict sequence), giving defenders granular, mappable behaviors for detection and threat modeling rather than a linear phase model.

  5. What is a false positive in security monitoring?

    An alert that indicates malicious or anomalous activity when none actually occurred, wasting analyst time and potentially causing alert fatigue.

  6. What is a false negative and why is it dangerous?

    A real threat or malicious event that fails to trigger an alert; it's dangerous because the attack goes undetected and unaddressed.

  7. What is the purpose of a SIEM?

    A Security Information and Event Management platform aggregates, normalizes, and correlates log data from many sources to enable centralized detection, alerting, and investigation.

  8. What does SOAR add beyond a SIEM?

    Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response tools automate repetitive investigation and remediation steps (playbooks) and orchestrate actions across multiple security tools, reducing analyst workload and response time.

  9. What is the difference between a vulnerability scan and a penetration test?

    A vulnerability scan is an automated, non-intrusive process that identifies known weaknesses; a penetration test actively exploits weaknesses to demonstrate real-world impact, typically performed manually or semi-manually.

  10. What is CVSS used for?

    The Common Vulnerability Scoring System provides a standardized numeric score (0-10) reflecting a vulnerability's severity based on exploitability and impact metrics, helping prioritize remediation.

  11. What is the difference between CVE and CWE?

    A CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) identifies a specific, publicly disclosed vulnerability instance; a CWE (Common Weakness Enumeration) categorizes the underlying type of software weakness (e.g., buffer overflow) that can lead to vulnerabilities.

  12. What is credentialed vs. non-credentialed vulnerability scanning?

    Credentialed scans authenticate to the target to inspect it from the inside for deeper, more accurate results; non-credentialed scans probe from the outside without login access, similar to what an external attacker would see.

  13. What is risk in the context of vulnerability management, expressed as a formula?

    Risk is generally understood as a function of threat, vulnerability, and impact (or likelihood x impact) — the potential for loss when a threat exploits a vulnerability affecting an asset.

  14. What is the purpose of a compensating control?

    An alternative safeguard used when the primary or recommended control cannot be implemented, providing similar risk reduction through other means.

  15. What are the phases of the incident response lifecycle (NIST-based)?

    Preparation; Detection and Analysis; Containment, Eradication, and Recovery; and Post-Incident Activity (lessons learned).

  16. What is the difference between containment, eradication, and recovery?

    Containment limits the spread/impact of an incident; eradication removes the root cause (malware, backdoors, compromised accounts); recovery restores affected systems to normal, verified-clean operation.

  17. What is chain of custody in digital forensics?

    Documented, unbroken record of who collected, handled, and had access to evidence, ensuring its integrity and admissibility for legal or disciplinary proceedings.

  18. What is order of volatility?

    A prioritized sequence for collecting digital evidence starting with the most volatile (CPU registers, cache, RAM) and ending with the least volatile (disk, backups, documentation), to avoid losing evidence during acquisition.

  19. What is the purpose of a legal hold in incident response?

    A directive to preserve all potentially relevant data and evidence because litigation, investigation, or regulatory action is anticipated, preventing normal deletion or overwriting.

  20. What distinguishes an IOC (Indicator of Compromise) from an IOA (Indicator of Attack)?

    An IOC is forensic evidence that a compromise already happened (e.g., a malicious hash or IP); an IOA reflects the attacker's intent or behavior in progress, enabling detection before the compromise completes.

  21. What is a playbook in incident response?

    A predefined, step-by-step procedure for responding to a specific type of incident (e.g., ransomware, phishing) that ensures consistent, repeatable, and efficient handling.

  22. What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative risk assessment?

    Qualitative assessment ranks risks using descriptive scales (low/medium/high); quantitative assessment assigns numeric/monetary values (e.g., using ALE, SLE, ARO) to express risk in financial terms.

  23. What do SLE, ARO, and ALE represent in quantitative risk analysis?

    Single Loss Expectancy (cost of one incident), Annualized Rate of Occurrence (expected frequency per year), and Annualized Loss Expectancy (SLE x ARO), used to estimate yearly financial risk exposure.

  24. What is threat hunting?

    A proactive, analyst-driven search through networks and systems to detect threats that have evaded existing automated security controls, often based on hypotheses derived from threat intelligence.

  25. What is the difference between an IDS and an IPS?

    An Intrusion Detection System passively monitors and alerts on suspicious traffic without blocking it; an Intrusion Prevention System sits inline and can actively block or drop malicious traffic in real time.

  26. What is a UEBA solution used for?

    User and Entity Behavior Analytics establishes behavioral baselines for users and devices and flags anomalies (e.g., unusual login times, data access patterns) that may indicate compromised credentials or insider threats.

  27. What is the purpose of network segmentation as a security control?

    Dividing a network into isolated zones limits an attacker's ability to move laterally and contains the blast radius of a compromise to a smaller portion of the environment.

  28. What is a Software Bill of Materials (SBOM)?

    An inventory listing all components, libraries, and dependencies within a piece of software, used to identify supply-chain risk and quickly determine exposure when a component vulnerability is disclosed.

  29. What is the goal of attack surface management?

    Continuously discovering, inventorying, and reducing all points (assets, services, exposed interfaces) where an attacker could potentially gain entry to an environment.

  30. What is the difference between EDR and traditional antivirus?

    Traditional antivirus primarily relies on signature matching to block known malware; Endpoint Detection and Response continuously monitors endpoint behavior, enables investigation, and supports active response actions like isolation.